Post of the month

--- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, "PaliGap" <compost...@...> wrote:
>
> 
> 
> --- In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, "do.rflex" <do.rflex@> wrote:
> 
> > the Daily Mail, has taken another body blow with the 
> > paper publishing a false story claiming that Phil
> > Jones had admitted that there had been no global
> > warming since 1995.
> 
> The original interview with Jones is here:
> http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/sci/tech/8511670.stm
> 
> I really do believe it is an extraordinary interview. 
> It's not just some of things that Jones says, it's 
> also the fact that it is a story carried by the BBC 
> and by Roger Harrabin of all people. "The times they 
> are a changin'".
> 
> This is one of the questions: 
> 
> "Do you agree that from 1995 to the present there has 
> been no statistically-significant global warming"
> 
> His answer? Yes, he DOES agree. So, quite simply, this 
> is NOT (in this respect) a "false story". He adds to  
> this by stating that any warming signal in this period 
> is not statistically significant, just as any cooling 
> from 2002 is not statistically significant. 
> 
> It might not be too far off the mark then to say that 
> temperatures from 1995 have been pretty "flat" 
> (according to Jones). As I recall, when I mentioned 
> something to this effect a year or so ago, Do-reflex 
> appeared to think I was so batty I must have just 
> dropped in from Mars...
> 
> This was enormously significant too:
> 
> "Do you agree that according to the global temperature 
> record used by the IPCC, the rates of global warming 
> from 1860-1880, 1910-1940 and 1975-1998 were identical?"
> 
> Although he huffs and puffs a bit, the answer is again 
> yes, he does agree.
> 
> Why is that so significant? Well it brings to the 
> surface something that is not widely acknowledged in 
> the media: In all the glib talk of consensus, one fact 
> that IS generally accepted by climate scientists is 
> that a warming period began after the end of the "mini 
> ice age" (ie 1860 or so) and BEFORE industrial and 
> post-industrial societies had had a chance to puff out 
> too much CO2. So here he is confirming this.
> 
> If warming was occurring in 1860, then this suggests 
> that any CO2 component of warming in recent times is 
> likely to be a "forcing" superimposed on an underlying 
> warming trend (which we don't really understand). This 
> means that attempting to evaluate empirically 
> ("scientifically") the CO2 component in the data we 
> have (which is turning out to be very limited and of 
> dubious quality anyway) becomes a fiendishly tricky 
> and complex task. Possibly impossible. And certainly 
> not possible to the degree that warmists are fond of 
> claiming.
> 
> Of course you may think "CO2 induced climate change" 
> is true *a priori*". But if you do so, it's hardly 
> reasonable of you to claim the rational and scientific 
> high ground, is it? To bandy about phrases such as 
> "flat earthers" and "deniers" for those who have less 
> faith in your *a priori* methodology?
> 
> Or again you may think that facts about glaciers and 
> polar bears etc are the experimental proof for the CO2 
> conjecture. But all such talk looks suspiciously like 
> "modus morons"! Viz:
> 
> "If P is True, Q will be the case"
> "Q is true"
> "Therefore P is true"
> 
> The error is in the first statement, which for global 
> warmers needs to be modified to:
> 
> "Only if P is True, Q will be the case"
> 
> And that's where the events of 1860 (or the medieval 
> warm period) assume their significance.
>


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