On Sat Oct 3, at SaturdayOct 3 2:47 AM, A-NO-NE Music wrote:
On 2009/10/02, at 18:18, Robert Lingnau wrote:
To answer your question: Yes, C MI 6 with the 6th in the bass is A
MI7 (b5).
They are not the same. A-7(b5) dictates Locrian. C-6 forces you
to avoid 7th to voice, meaning the 7th will be b7th or natural 7th
which will be a choice for the improviser.
Again, most important thing here is that 6 chord by definition
tells you not to voice the 7th.
I have to respectfully disagree with you here, Hiro, on both points.
First of all, the PITCH CONTENT of both chords is the same.
Therefore, they are the same, and any other interpretive points (like
what scale to play or what extensions to add to the voicing) occur in
the ear of the player, not prescriptively in the chord symbol.
Secondly, there is nothing inherent in the Am7(b5) chord symbol that
dictates locrian, as there is no mention of the second degree at all.
Depending on the context, the locrian maj2 scale might be a better
choice (and I'm not even going into other choices!)
Granted, it usually shows up as a II chord in Gminor, where probably
locrian might be the first choice. But what about a VI chord
following a Im(maj7) in Cm, or an altered II chord in G major? Both
those situations might like locrian maj2 better than locrian.
But I accept the concept that a musician from the 40s might be more
likely to choose the Bnat if he sees Cm/A rather than Am7(b5), which
wasn't common in those circles at the time. Today, with a schooled
jazz musician, it would be another matter. That, I believe, was the
original point of the question.
Christopher
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