List, Jon:

On Jan 17, 2015, at 3:32 PM, Jon Awbrey wrote:

>  But I can assure you that mathematicians as a rule, including Peirce, regard 
> mathematical objects as “having properties”, which makes them “real” 
> according to the technical Scholastic definition of “real” that Peirce always 
> uses and often mentions when he's being precise. 

I concur, the manner of usage of symbols by mathematicians is often confounding.

Your assertion, however, obscures a far deeper philosophical problem.  It is 
the sort of problem that philosophers love to ignore as it removes some from 
their "comfort zone" and hence jeopardizes their academic reputations.

Namely, that the usage of mathematical symbols obscures the more important 
pragmatic differentiations between  philosophical talk and mathematical talk 
and physical talk and chemical talk and ...many other disciplines.

As I understand it, the mathematical talk of "having properties" is a critical 
association of logical concepts that associate mathematical concepts as 
structure (sets, semi-groups, groups, rings, vector spaces, topologies, 
matroids, categories and a large number of other mathematical forms.)   For 
example, a group has the property of a set and a logical operation (as well as 
other properties.)  A ring has the properties of a set and two logical 
operations, both addition and multiplication.

 Is this usage an example of philosophical realism? 

A similar situation occurs in the context of the chemistry. A chemical term, a 
concrete "real" name, as a chemical element, is considered real because it has 
measurable properties that are independent of time and place.  A chemical 
element is conceived as an entity with an identity, not as a mathematical 
variable representing a single physical quale.
The set of the table of elements is a set of concrete "real" names with the 
addition property of creating a set of natural relatives. 

Chemical talk of "having properties" refers to those measured properties from 
the empirical methods used in a laboratory.  Pragmatically, differentiation of 
chemical properties lies at the heart of the practical logic of chemistry. 

The difference between chemical talk and mathematical talk is with respect to 
the conceptualization of the nature of  qualia.  The qualia of mathematical 
talk are "objective" by virtue of the meaning of mathematical symbols and 
mathematical traditions.  At least that is how I interpret CSP's writings, such 
as those cited by Ben.

The qualia of chemical talk are the consequences of the consistency of physical 
measures, independent of the time and place of measurements. By consistency, I 
mean the empirical reproducibility of empirical observations.  But, these 
chemical qualia are under extremely severe constraints such that the 
methodology must be consistent. Here, by consistency, I mean that the coherence 
of the logical arithmetic on the molecular numbers, the molecular weight, the 
molecular formula, and the molecular icon are logically extendible.  

The nature of the "reality of properties" (qualia and quanta) of mathematics 
and chemistry rarely overlap.  Indeed, 
Mathematical properties (qualia) are aligned with the regularity of the 
geometry of a line or lines  such that they become merely carriers of 
measurements of chemical qualia.  

Chemical properties may be aligned with mathematical regularity (such as the 
graphs of methane, ethane, propane, butane, pentane...) and a corresponding set 
of icons (structures). 

 Or, as is more commonly the case, chemical qualia are aligned with awesome 
IRREGULARITY.  The combinations of valences of a set of related atoms  generate 
a graph with millions of distinctive irregularities, as in the handedness of 
proteins.  A central principle of molecular biology and bio-semiotics rests on 
the irregularities of the qualia of handedness.

Is this chemical usage of the concept of realism an example of philosophical 
realism?

Is there a distinction between mathematical realism and chemical realism?

Are the three trichotomies of terms of a sign selected purposely by CSP to 
simply avoid the confrontation between qualia  and objects (sinsigns)?

Are the three trichotomies of a sign selected purposely by CSP to distinguish 
between mathematical realism and chemical realism?  

>From a century of hindsight, it is a curious game we are playing by asking 
>such speculative questions.  Speculating about CSP's motivations is almost as 
>curious as speculating about current national and international political 
>games. 

As a footnote (based on my personal perceptions of my individual experiences 
with conceptualization of laws), it appears to me that philosophical realism is 
too narrowly defined to clearly and distinctly separate the pragmatic usages of 
the term realism in both mathematical physics and chemistry.  Not to mention 
the far more difficult task of understanding "realism" in the sense of 
economics, or biology, or medicine or consciousness. 

Enough!  I have wandered into technical terminology - a "real"  no, no! 

Cheers

Jerry 



> On Jan 17, 2015, at 4:05 PM, Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote:
> 
>> Very funny. No, that's not it. It's not Alice in Wonderland. I think it's 
>> objective vs subjective but I simply can't remember how Howard uses the 
>> terms. I just remember that at one time, it dawned on me that he uses them 
>> in a particular way and I then understood what he was talking about.
>>  
>> Edwina
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: Jon Awbrey
>> To: Edwina Taborsky
>> Cc: Howard Pattee ; <biosemiot...@lists.ut.ee> ; Peirce-L
>> Sent: Saturday, January 17, 2015 3:54 PM
>> Subject: Re: [PEIRe: Natural Propositions : Chapter 8
>> 
>> Edwina,
>> 
>> For instance, “Real men don't eat quiche” and “Real mathematicians don't 
>> each Bourbaquiche”.
>> 
>> Jon
>> 
>> http://inquiryintoinquiry.com
>> 
>> On Jan 17, 2015, at 3:32 PM, Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote:
>> 
>>> Howard, I think that possibly, you are using your own definition of 
>>> 'realism' rather than the one many of us use; we've been through this 
>>> difference before. The one many of us use is that 'realism' refers to 
>>> universals or generals or 'common rules'  being objectively real. Not 
>>> existent as particular instances but objectively real. I've forgotten what 
>>> you mean by this term 'realism' but it's quite different.
>>>  
>>> Could you remind us of your meaning? Thanks.
>>>  
>>> Edwina
>>>  
>>> ----- Original Message -----
>>> From: Howard Pattee
>>> To: biosemiot...@lists.ut.ee ; biosemiot...@lists.ut.ee ; Peirce-L
>>> Sent: Saturday, January 17, 2015 3:28 PM
>>> Subject: [PEIRCE-L] Re: [biosemiotics:7934] Re: Natural Propositions:
>>> 
>>> Thank you Ben for a clear answer. I would say, then, that in thinking about 
>>> formal mathematics Peirce was to some extent nominalistic, which of course 
>>> leaves him free to be realistic about diagrams and physics. The basis for 
>>> considering logic to be realistic is still mysterious to me. 
>>> 
>>> Of course there is still a great epistemic variety among today's 
>>> mathematicians and physicists, largely because of        great mysteries. 
>>> Natural selection has made sure we begin life as naive realists which is 
>>> necessary for immediate survival. However, as physics has had to rely more 
>>> and more on creative imagination for models of events, which are way beyond 
>>> natural senses and common sense, it is only reasonable that the models 
>>> become more nominalistic.
>>> 
>>> Howard
>>> 
>>> At 12:59 PM 1/17/2015, Benjamin Udell wrote:
>>> 
>>>> Howard, lists,
>>>> 
>>>> My sense of it is that Peirce does not push the idea that mathematicals 
>>>> are real. His discussions of math and reality tend to involve a variation 
>>>> of sense of word 'real' into the concretely real, the actual, the 
>>>> existent, etc. He says that mathematicians (of whom he of course was one) 
>>>> don't care about the real and that their ideal forms are the truly real to 
>>>> them a la Plato. I do recall Peirce somewhere saying that the question of 
>>>> whether mathematicals are real is a question for the metaphysician, not 
>>>> the mathematician, and I recall him not answering the question at that 
>>>> point. Peirce always says that mathematical objects are purely 
>>>> hypothetical. 
>>>> 
>>>> Here's an example, from _Writings_ 6:255:
>>>> The reasonings and conclusions of the mathematician do not in the least 
>>>> depend upon there being in the real world any such objects as those which 
>>>> he supposes. The devoted mathematician cares little for the real world. He 
>>>> lives in a world of ideas; and his heart vibrates to the saying of his 
>>>> brother Plato that actuality is the roof of a dark and sordid cave which 
>>>> shuts out from our direct view the splendors and beauties of the vast and 
>>>> more truly real world,—the world of forms beyond. A great mathematician of 
>>>> our day said with gustful emphasis: "A great satisfaction in the study of 
>>>> the theory of numbers is that it never has been, and never can be, 
>>>> prostituted to any practical application whatever."
>>>> [End quote]
>>>> 
>>>> Peirce positively rejects the reality of generals proposed by false 
>>>> propositions. Such generals are figments, e.g., bat that evolved from bird.
>>>> 
>>>> Best, Ben
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
>>> 
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