> On Dec 12, 2016, at 5:16 PM, Jerry LR Chandler <jerry_lr_chand...@me.com> > wrote: > > Clark, please read more carefully what I wrote. > > Obviously, atoms are presupposed logically to be symmetric in order to derive > QM eqn for spectra. > But, this belief is mathematically grounded on the notion that the nucleus of > an atom resides at a stationary point which coincides with the point [0,0,0] > in the Cartesian co-ordinate system and that the electrons “orbit" the > nucleus, the shape and the forms of these orbits be dependent on the atomic > number and the immediate source of the spectra. This is the Schrodinger > hypothesis and its extensions. > > You aware of that, I presume. Perhaps your question is simply a question of > mathematical logic? > > Perhaps you are over-looking the mathematical fact that the axioms of group > theory are an antecedent algebraic theory that can generate geometric > physical consequences when one applies to use physical variables? > > Perhaps you are not aware that a single chemical atom, the name of a chemical > element represents a logical constant, not a logical variable? > > I am curious, which of these three speculative conjectures reflects your > motivations for framing such a strange question? >
I think I was thinking you were arguing for a different sense of asymmetry. i.e. some absolute asymmetry like left spin or right spin. If I have you right though (and please be patient with me) you’re more talking just about the asymmetry intrinsic due to the interactions of the atoms? That is the group as a whole? I confess I’m still not sure what you’re saying, undoubtedly due to my ignorance of your topic than your explanation. Do you have a link to a tutorial on this by any chance? I’m am curious but obviously missing the obvious. (Again almost certainly due to me and undoubtedly in part the mental exhaustion this time of year)
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