Edwina, List: It has nothing to do with whether Peirce ever used his own analytic framework in a certain way. My basic question is, how do we ascertain whether a particular analytic framework that someone is using to examine the actual world is really *THE* Peircean analytic framework--i.e., *Peirce's *analytic framework--if not by comparing how that person describes it with *his *texts? And where there are obvious discrepancies between them, in what sense can that person legitimately claim to be using *THE* Peircean analytic framework--i.e., *Peirce's *analytic framework--at all?
Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Mon, Oct 18, 2021 at 8:30 AM Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote: > JAS, list > > Your original reply focused, yet again, on The Text, and seemed to insist > on a focus only on text-to-text outlines, ie, where someone 'explains' to > us what Peirce 'really meant' in his texts. > > But I'd still appreciate your thoughts on my basic question - which is - > if someone is using the Peircean analytic framework to examine the actual > world - and of course they can't use ALL of Peirce's analytic framework! - > but if they are using it, would you say that this is only a > 'Peircean-inspired-framework'- because Peirce never used it this way? > > Edwina >
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