I think the analysis below is mistaken:  Whether or not cabbies' refusal to 
carry alcohol should be barred by some general common-carriage requirement, it 
shouldn't be treated as religious discrimination.  What's more, I think the 
argument that such a refusal is religious discrimination itself calls for 
discrimination against those with religious motivations for their actions.

1.  To begin with, as others have pointed out, the cabbies' actions affected 
Christians, Jews, Muslims, the irreligious, and anyone else who carried 
alcohol.  Moreover, they didn't affect Christian, Jews, Muslims, the 
irreligious, and anyone else who didn't carry alcohol.

2.  Now I take it that the response is that the really devout Muslims of the 
same religious views as the cabbies generally wouldn't be affected (just as, I 
suppose, Mormons or Methodists wouldn't be affected), because they generally 
wouldn't carry alcohol.  But that analysis strikes me as unsound, and here's 
why.

Imagine a case closely modeled on Rasmussen v. Glass (Minn. Ct. App. 1993) 
(review granted but appeal later dismissed), 
http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=648897692635049631.  A restaurant 
owner refuses to deliver food to a doctor who performs abortions, because the 
owner believes abortions are evil, and doesn't want to provide any help, even 
indirect, to such evil.  And say the restaurant owner's is irreligious, and his 
opposition to abortion is based on his own personal moral views (e.g., he 
follows Nat Hentoff, 
http://groups.csail.mit.edu/mac/users/rauch/nvp/consistent/indivisible.html).  
I take it that we would all agree that the restaurant owner is not 
discriminating based on religion.  To be sure, devout Catholics, and devout 
members of other anti-abortion religious groups, wouldn't perform abortions.  
But that doesn't mean the restaurant owner is discriminating based on the 
would-be customers' religions - he's discriminating based on their secular 
actions.

Now say that another restaurant owner acts precisely the same way, but his 
opposition to abortion is based on his religious views.  As I understand the 
argument below, he would be seen as discriminating based on religion, because 
the performing of abortion is "a badge of a religion different from yours."  
And thus he would be presumptively required to deliver to the doctor's office, 
if state public accommodations law covers discrimination based on religion in 
restaurant delivery.  But this would mean that the law itself has become 
religiously discriminatory:  The secular anti-abortion restaurant owner is free 
to do something (here, refusing to deliver to an abortion provider), but the 
religious anti-abortion restaurant owner is barred from doing precisely the 
same thing.

3.  I think the same applies to the alcohol example.  A secular cab driver who 
opposes alcohol on secular grounds would presumably not be treated as 
discriminating based on religion.  But to treat the religious cab driver who 
opposes alcohol on religious grounds would be treated as discriminating based 
on religion, and would thus be potentially violating relevant public 
accommodations bans.  Yet such an approach would itself impermissibly 
discriminate (in violation of Lukumi Babalu) against the religious cab driver 
based on the religiosity of his motivation for his conduct.  Or am I missing 
something here?

Eugene

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Steven Jamar
Sent: Wednesday, March 07, 2012 7:10 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Cabbies vs. lawyers

Of course it is a proxy -- just like a collar or burka or yarmulke -- a badge 
of a religion different from yours -- only in this case it is alcohol 
possession -- a badge of a religion different from yours.  The dodge of "oh, 
I'm not against their religion, just against their conduct" can't be allowed 
can it?  The person transporting the alcohol is the passenger, not the cab 
driver.  The fact of hidden vs. open possession of the bottle of wine gives it 
away, doesn't it -- it is not about the action, it is about the religious 
nature of the action -- the violation of the religious beliefs of the driver by 
the religious beliefs (ok to have and transport alcohol) by the passenger.

It is action based on a difference of religious belief.  That is discrimination 
no matter how one twists it.

Maybe we should allow this discrimination, just like maybe we should allow 
discrimination in allowing landlords to discriminate against gays based on the 
landlord's religious beliefs, but that is still religious-based discrimination.

You can't suddenly say that motivation doesn't matter just because the 
motivation is their own religious beliefs.

Steve
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