I don't find the proposition to be particularly comforting that religious 
liberty concerns must take a back seat in areas "highly regulated" by the 
government as opposed to "lightly regulated" ones.    Instead, it seems to me 
that the need to vigorously protect free exercise of religion is of greater 
importance in those areas of life where government intrusion is higher.   More 
fundamentally, the view that the free exercise of religion matters less when 
the government has already occupied the regulatory space raises the question of 
where does the right to free exercise of religion come from at all.    Is the 
protection of religious exercise just a gift of a positivist state that sees 
some utilitarian benefit in providing some of its citizens a right to practice 
religion?   (E.g., wouldn't it be quaint if our government allowed a few 
Mennonites-so long as they don't take their faith too seriously).    Or does 
the government protect the free exercise of religion because it recognizes that 
following one's conscience in religious matters is something that is in the 
very nature of its people and is therefore a fundamental right that exists in 
all people prior to the state even existing?   Under the first view, what the 
state gives, the state can take away.   Under the second view, the power of the 
state is necessarily constrained by the existence of fundamental rights that 
inhere in the very nature of the people.   Yes, the government can limit 
exercise of religion in the second view, but only where it truly satisfies 
strict scrutiny; if the government exercises its power more broadly to limit 
free exercise of religion, it loses its legitimacy by denying its people the 
ability to live and act in accordance with something that makes them human in 
the first place-the ability to live and act in accordance with their 
religiously informed conscience.

On the substance, I would also disagree that Hobby Lobby and Conestoga have 
"ignored" the so-called Caldor / Establishment Clause problem of needing to 
avoid harm to 3rd parties.    To the contrary, the briefs deal extensively with 
whether the alleged harm to 3rd parties-i.e., increasing the number of women 
who won't get free abortifacients /contraceptives--qualifies as a compelling 
government interest.   The briefs convincingly demonstrates that this doesn't 
qualify as a compelling government interest because the regulatory regime 
established by the government already allows for large numbers of women not to 
get free abortifacients /contraceptives from their employers (i.e., women in 
grandfathered plans, plans with employers who employ less than 50 employees, 
and plans with those employers the Administration (grudgingly) conceded were 
sufficiently religious).   Where so many exceptions to this interest already 
exist, this doesn't rise to the level of a compelling government interest.  
Moreover, the fact that other exceptions are given for non-religious reasons 
means that this is not a case in which an exception has been given for uniquely 
religious reasons, thereby further avoiding an Establishment Clause concern.

Grace and peace to you,
Derek L. Gaubatz
IMB General Counsel

Our vision is a multitude from every language, people, tribe and nation knowing 
and worshipping our Lord Jesus Christ.

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Ira Lupu
Sent: Thursday, February 20, 2014 8:27 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: recommended Hobby Lobby posts

Mark Scarberry writes "We are on a slippery slope when we refer to someone as 
seeking to have "the government[] ... authorize [it] to act on religious 
beliefs in ways that harm others," when what is at stake is whether the 
government can force that person to do something for others in violation of 
religious conscience. This comes very close to saying that the government 
authorizes whatever it does not prohibit."

Mark's concern is very apt in a world of lightly regulated relationships 
between people who are not in a legally constructed relationship.  The 
government does not "authorize" me to be rude to my neighbors when it fails to 
prohibit the rudeness.  But the employment relation is a highly regulated 
contractual one, with all sorts of legal duties imposed on parties, especially 
on employers.  So if government prescribes terms for that relationship -- e.g., 
provide a safe workplace -- then an exemption from those terms is 
"authorization" to behave differently and alter the contract to the detriment 
of the other party.
The minimum coverages -- contraceptive and otherwise -- are now effectively 
part of the employment contract in firms with 50+ employees, and the only ways 
out are 1) keep your pre-ACA plan, or 2) pay the assessable payment for 
dropping or not obtaining coverage. (If you do the latter, your employees can 
buy coverage on the exchanges, and they will get all the coverages.)  An 
exemption from these minimum coverages "authorizes" employers to do something 
different, and thereby deprive their employees of the minimum coverages through 
either employment or purchase on the exchanges.  The "grandfather" exemption, 
whatever else we say about it (such as its design as a transition rule), also 
authorizes deprivation of coverages, but NOT as a result of religious belief.  
The Establishment Clause limits the power of government to authorize employers 
to deprive employees of minimum coverages (or other statutorily mandatory terms 
of the employment relation) for reasons of employer religious belief.  (Maybe 
Mark and others think Caldor is wrong; but if it's right, there is an 
Establishment Clause problem here, and it doesn't go away just because Hobby 
Lobby and Conestoga Wood have ignored it in the litigation thus far.)

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