I understand that there may be some room to "play between the joints"
when it comes to the clauses in question, but in reviewing Trinity
Lutheran Church's petition to the Supreme Court, I keep banging my
head against the religious practice involving the playground that
falls into the gap between the Establishment Clause and the Free
Exercise Clause in the question presented before the Court.

The question before the Court is the following:

"Whether the exclusion of churches from an otherwise neutral and
secular aid program violates the Free Exercise and Equal Protection
Clauses when the state has no valid Establishment Clause concern."

Putting the Equal Protection segment aside for a moment and focusing
on the Free Exercise Clause part - I'm assuming that by "free
exercise" the church is asserting a right to, put it obviously,
exercise its religion and it is somehow being prevented by the state
from doing so.  Then I see the "no valid Establishment Clause concern"
meaning that it is somehow more secular than the "Free Exercise" part
of the question would seem to indicate.

I suspect that there is probably some kind of argument that these two
clauses referenced in its question are parallel tracks that never meet
in this case, but I can't help but wondering about this question:

***Is the church arguing that it has a religious practice that is
being infringed upon (its Free Exercise violated) that is in fact
secular (no Establishment Clause violation)?  Or are there "low level"
religious practices like having a playground "ministry" that don't
quite violate the Establishment Clause but do significantly affect the
Free Exercise of Religion?


Michael Peabody, Esq.
ReligiousLiberty.TV

(For what it's worth, I express some concern about the church's
petition and what it could mean on my blog at
http://religiousliberty.tv/7222.html  "Faustian Bargain: Supreme Court
to Decide Whether Taxpayers Must Pay for Church Playground Upgrade" )
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