Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-15 Thread Radford Neal

In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>,
EugeneGall <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> I too think that the odds ratio is the appropriate way to present
> the data, but after looking at these results, I can appreciate why
> the Gallup organization didn't do so.
>
> The data on racial favorability ratings which Gallup called
> 'proportionate' not 'disproportionate':
>
> GWBush favorability pre- and post-9/11
> Pre-disasterPost-disasterOddsRatio
> White (odds)  60% (1.5)90% (9)6
> Black  (odds) 33% (0.49)   68% (2.1)  4.3
>
> GHBush favorability pre- and post-Gulf War
> Pre-disasterPost-disasterOddsRatio
> White (odds) 64% (1.8) 90% (9)  5.1
> Black  (odds)33% (0.49)70% (2.3) 4.7
>
> Unless I'm missing something, a logistic regression analysis with
> disaster and race coded as dummy variables with an interaction term
> (disaster x race) would have a sign for the interaction coefficient
> indicating that the odds of white favorability for Bush after a
> disaster increased more than the increase in black favorability for
> Bush after a disaster. This is NOT what I'd expected after looking
> at the raw percentages, which to me indicated a disproproportionate
> increase in black favorability for the Bushes after disasters.

I think you're all reading too much into this data.  A simple
examination of the the 9/11 and Gulf War numbers shows that there 
is virtually no difference in all four of the numbers (60% vs. 64%,
68% vs. 70%, others identical).  Since people's opinions are presumably
influenced by other issues, not to mention the weather at the time the
poll is conducted, drawing any conclusion to the effect that the two 
disasters had different political effects would be ridiculous.

As for the data on just one disaster (say 9/11), it's silly to
summarize it, or to describe the changes as "proportionate" or not.
There are just four numbers.  Anyone can look at them and draw their
own conclusions.  Nothing is gained by attempting to interpret them in
terms of odds ratios.  There is no reason to think that a logistic
regression model is going to provide insight into the extremely
complex interactions of factors (most invisible in this data, of
course) that determine people's political opinions.  To mention just
one possibility, there may well be groups of people who would never
say they approve of Bush, or never say they don't approve, because of
ideological committments having nothing to do with 9/11, which they
are very unlikely to abandon.  Any logistic regression style model
would then be more appropriately applied only to the people with more
malleable opinions.  The regression coefficients obtained from this
model (if one could fit it, which one can't, of course) could well be
quite different from those obtained on the whole data set.

   Radford Neal


Radford M. Neal   [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Dept. of Statistics and Dept. of Computer Science [EMAIL PROTECTED]
University of Toronto http://www.cs.utoronto.ca/~radford



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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-14 Thread EugeneGall

Rich Ulrich wrote:

>I am not positive, but
>I think I would have objected to "equal % change"  
>as  =proportionate=  by the time I finished algebra in high school. 
>
>I know I have objected to similar confusion, on principled 
>grounds, since I learned about  Odds Ratios.
>
>I suspect that the original sample was small enough that 
>the apparent difference in ORs   was not impressive.
>-- 
>
I too think that the odds ratio is the appropriate way to present the data, but
after looking at these results, I can appreciate why the Gallup organization
didn't do so.

The data on racial favorability ratings which Gallup called 'proportionate' not
'disproportionate':

GWBush favorability pre- and post-9/11
 Pre-disasterPost-disasterOddsRatio
White (odds) 60% (1.5) 90% (9)  6
Black  (odds) 33% (0.49)   68% (2.1)  4.3

GHBush favorability pre- and post-Gulf War
 Pre-disasterPost-disasterOddsRatio
White (odds)64% (1.8)  90% (9)5.1
Black  (odds)33% (0.49)70% (2.3) 4.7

Unless I'm missing something, a logistic regression analysis with disaster and
race coded as dummy variables with an interaction term (disaster x race) would
have a sign for the interaction coefficient indicating that the odds of white
favorability for Bush after a disaster increased more than the increase in
black favorability for Bush after a disaster. This is NOT what I'd expected
after looking at the raw percentages, which to me indicated a
disproproportionate increase in black favorability for the Bushes after
disasters. 

Gene Gallagher
UMASS/Boston 


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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Bert Bishop

Perhaps it's just a matter of getting a meaningful denominator.  Certainly the
100% of each group which the Gallop presentation uses seems to do violence to the
concept of proportional.  As Elliot Cramer writes it also doesn't make much sense
to use the percent approval before 9/11.  But isn't it meaningful to use the
percent disapproval before 9/11?  Then if white approval went from 60% to 90% his
disapproval dropped 75% and if black approval went from, say 40% to 70% his
disapproval among blacks was only cut in half.  75% compared to 50%.  Using these
numbes Black disapproval would have to shrink to about 15% from 60% to make a
change "proportional" to that of whites (10% from 40%).

Elliot Cramer wrote:

> On Fri, 11 Jan 2002, Dennis Roberts wrote:
>
> >
> > finally ... i think we are making a mountain out of a molehill in this ...
> > to me ... the most important "fact" from the video was that (regardless of
> > change and how you define it) ... whites approved of the president to a FAR
> > greater extent than blacks ... and, the second most important "fact" was
> > that AFTER the event ... the approval ratings for BOTH groups went un
> > dramatically
> >
>
> I agree with this;  I just don't think that there is any meaningful way of
> comparing Black and white increases, given that they start from very
> different bases
>
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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Art Kendall

one traditional way of comparing changes in percentages to to transform to
z-scores and  then subtracting.  I think this is what signal-detection people
call D-prime.

Elliot Cramer wrote:

> On Fri, 11 Jan 2002, Dennis Roberts wrote:
>
> >
> > finally ... i think we are making a mountain out of a molehill in this ...
> > to me ... the most important "fact" from the video was that (regardless of
> > change and how you define it) ... whites approved of the president to a FAR
> > greater extent than blacks ... and, the second most important "fact" was
> > that AFTER the event ... the approval ratings for BOTH groups went un
> > dramatically
> >
>
> I agree with this;  I just don't think that there is any meaningful way of
> comparing Black and white increases, given that they start from very
> different bases
>
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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Rich Ulrich

On 11 Jan 2002 07:46:20 -0800, [EMAIL PROTECTED] (Dennis Roberts) wrote:

> definition: proportionate = equal % change
> 
> IF we agree on this ... and maybe we don't ... then, since the % change is 
> always UN =, then all changes are DISproportionate
[ ... ]

Are you sure you *advocate*  that?  

I am not positive, but
I think I would have objected to "equal % change"  
as  =proportionate=  by the time I finished algebra in high school. 

I know I have objected to similar confusion, on principled 
grounds, since I learned about  Odds Ratios.

I suspect that the original sample was small enough that 
the apparent difference in ORs   was not impressive.
-- 
RIch Ulrich, [EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html


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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Elliot Cramer



On Fri, 11 Jan 2002, Dennis Roberts wrote:

> 
> finally ... i think we are making a mountain out of a molehill in this ... 
> to me ... the most important "fact" from the video was that (regardless of 
> change and how you define it) ... whites approved of the president to a FAR 
> greater extent than blacks ... and, the second most important "fact" was 
> that AFTER the event ... the approval ratings for BOTH groups went un 
> dramatically
> 

I agree with this;  I just don't think that there is any meaningful way of
comparing Black and white increases, given that they start from very
different bases




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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Dennis Roberts

1. well, one can consider proportionate ... equal change VALUES ... and i 
think that is one legitimate way to view it ... which is how the video guy 
was talking about it ...

2. one could consider proportionate ... equal change from the BASE ... and 
i think that is legitimate too ... this is clearly NOT how the video guy 
was referring to it to

sure, if one group goes from 60 to 90 ... this is a change of 30 % points ...
and, if another group goes from 30 to 60 ... this is a change of 30% points 
...
i think it is fair to say that the amount of change % points is the same 
... thus proportional

now, another way we can view the data is to say that in the first group ... 
since the base is 60 ... the change of 30 is a 50% change in % points ... 
compared to the base ... whereas in the second group ... the change from 30 
to 60 represents a 100% change from the base ...

now, if the base N is the same ... say 600 people ... 30% of 600 = 180 
people ... no matter if a group change from 60 to 90 OR 30 to 60 ... thus, 
if the BASE n is the same ... then both value of % change AND volume of n 
... mean the same thing

if one group's n = 600 and another group's n = 100 ... these are not the same

but in any case ... and the way we usually look at these poll %ages ... is 
in terms of the absolute value of the % values ... so, in THAT context and 
the way the public usually views these things ... scenario #1 above is how 
the video person presented the data ... and in that context i think his 
presentation did NOT try nor did "snow" the video viewers

i don't think there is any natural law that says that proportionate or 
disproportionate has to be interpreted in terms of scenario #2 above ...

finally ... i think we are making a mountain out of a molehill in this ... 
to me ... the most important "fact" from the video was that (regardless of 
change and how you define it) ... whites approved of the president to a FAR 
greater extent than blacks ... and, the second most important "fact" was 
that AFTER the event ... the approval ratings for BOTH groups went un 
dramatically

if the video guy had made the distinctions in scenarios 1 and 2 above ... 
and had then interpreted the data under both cases ... i think this would 
have helped NONE in conveying to the public the information that i (IMHO) 
think was most important ...

we seem to be trying to find something that the fellow was hiding FROM the 
public when, i don't really think he was trying (nor gallup) to hide 
anything ... he was presenting some data results ... giving one 
interpretation of the results ... and, if WE want to interpret them 
differently ... we can

is that not true for any set of results?




At 10:58 AM 1/11/02 -0500, you wrote:


>On Fri, 11 Jan 2002, Dennis Roberts wrote:
>
> > if the polls used similar ns in the samples ... i disagree
> >
> > now, if the white sample was say 600 and the black sample was 100 ... i
> > MIGHT be more likely to agree with the comment below
>
>consider white goes 10% to 15% up 50%, 5%pts
>  black goes 66.7% to 100%  up 50%, 33.3%pts
>
>These are proportionate but hardly equivalent
>
>white goes 0 to 50% up infinite %, 50%pts
>black goes 50% to 100%  up 100%50pts
>same %pts but black is more striking
>I can't see any kind of equivalence in either case

_
dennis roberts, educational psychology, penn state university
208 cedar, AC 8148632401, mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm



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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Elliot Cramer



On Fri, 11 Jan 2002, Dennis Roberts wrote:

> if the polls used similar ns in the samples ... i disagree
> 
> now, if the white sample was say 600 and the black sample was 100 ... i 
> MIGHT be more likely to agree with the comment below

consider white goes 10% to 15% up 50%, 5%pts
 black goes 66.7% to 100%  up 50%, 33.3%pts

These are proportionate but hardly equivalent

   white goes 0 to 50% up infinite %, 50%pts
   black goes 50% to 100%  up 100%50pts
same %pts but black is more striking
I can't see any kind of equivalence in either case



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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Dennis Roberts

if the polls used similar ns in the samples ... i disagree

now, if the white sample was say 600 and the black sample was 100 ... i 
MIGHT be more likely to agree with the comment below

At 06:12 PM 1/10/02 -0500, Elliot Cramer wrote:
>EugeneGall <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>: The Gallup organization posted a video to explain why the the increase in
>: black's job approval for Bush is 'proportionate' to the increase among 
>whites.
>
>It makes no sense to talk of "proportionate" increases in percentages
>
>Suppose you start at zero or 99% ...
>
>
>
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208 cedar, AC 8148632401, mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Dennis Roberts

definition: proportionate = equal % change

IF we agree on this ... and maybe we don't ... then, since the % change is 
always UN =, then all changes are DISproportionate

but, given margins of error and the like ... and, just the practical 
interpretation of the data ... i would say that we could have a pragmatic 
agreement that if the changes were within P %, then we might "call" the 
changes =

the fact is, if the data are accurate, for both whites and blacks, the 
after ratings jumped dramatically .. compared to the before ratings ... now 
we are just quibbling over whether those dramatic jumps should be called = 
or not

thus, the issue in the video and the information that was presented is ... 
are the changes SO large as to make even tolerant  people say that they are 
different

in the case of george w and, the white and black change from pre to post 
... i am MORE than willing to concede that they look about the same

for the elder bush ... in term of gulf war pre and post ... the changes 
between approval ratings between whites and blacks i would be less willing 
to argue that way

but, unless we have STANDARD ERRORS OF DIFFERENCES IN PROPORTIONS FOR 
CORRELATED SAMPLES .. to make the comparisons with, i think it is just an 
exercise in "whatever you think" about the data

i still don't think the person in the video made any egregious 
misstatements of how the data looked, and in addition ... if you view the 
data watching the video, which is very clear  you could make up your 
own mind anyway

perhaps you could elaborate on why you think he should have been saying 
DISproportionate all the time ... at what threshold "change" value would 
have to be evidenced in the data for you to think he should have been 
speaking in opposite terms?



At 09:59 PM 1/10/02 +, EugeneGall wrote:
>His definition of proportionate would mean that if a group's approval of Bush
>went from 1% to 31%, that too would be proportionate.  The relative odds would
>be one way of expressing the changes in proportions, but the absolute
>difference (60% to 90% is roughly propotionate to an increase from 33% to 68%)
>seems quite wrong.
>
>
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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-11 Thread Rolf Dalin

Eugene Gall wrote:

> His definition of proportionate would mean that if a group's approval of
> Bush went from 1% to 31%, that too would be proportionate.  The relative
> odds would be one way of expressing the changes in proportions, but the
> absolute difference (60% to 90% is roughly propotionate to an increase
> from 33% to 68%) seems quite wrong.

Using relative odds as a definition of changes in proportions would 
mean that your example of a 30%-units increase from 1% to 31% 
would, for example, be poroportionate to a 73%-units change from 
10% to 83%. Both would have the same odds ratio = 44.

Equal differences in percentages means that the same proportion of 
the population changed their minds. 

The meaning was probably "proportionate" = "of the same order of 
magnitude". 

Rolf Dalin


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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-10 Thread Elliot Cramer

EugeneGall <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
: The Gallup organization posted a video to explain why the the increase in
: black's job approval for Bush is 'proportionate' to the increase among whites. 

It makes no sense to talk of "proportionate" increases in percentages

Suppose you start at zero or 99% ...



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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-10 Thread EugeneGall

His definition of proportionate would mean that if a group's approval of Bush
went from 1% to 31%, that too would be proportionate.  The relative odds would
be one way of expressing the changes in proportions, but the absolute
difference (60% to 90% is roughly propotionate to an increase from 33% to 68%)
seems quite wrong.


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Re: Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-10 Thread Dennis Roberts

there are two sets of data ... one for georgeDUBU ... and the elder george bush

here is what i glean from the charts

for george w ... the EVENT was sept 11 ... for the elder george bush ... 
the EVENT was the gulf war ... and both were before and after ratings

1. whites approval rating for BOTH ... was much higher than blacks
2. both whites and blacks jumped rather dramatically (in the 30 percent 
range) on AFTER compared to BEFORE
3. to me, proportionate would be "both increasing" the same approximate % 
... disproportionate would imply large differentials in % changes ...

in neither case were the % jumps the same ... for each bush ... before and 
after ... comparing whites and blacks (assuming the data reported in the 
video is correct) ... so TECHNICALLY ... it is disproportionate ... but ... 
what about "approximately" ??? i think it is a matter of practical 
differences and semantics ... not really statistically significant 
differences ... given the ns ... it is possible that the difference in THE 
differences MIGHT have been significant ...

here are the values

george w ...

WHITES
pre post change

60   9030

BLACKS

33   6835


elder george

WHITES

64   9026

BLACKS

33   7037

difference between w/b for geore w = 31 versus 35

difference between w/b for elder george = 26 versus 37

now, i would be willing to say that there is less difference in change for 
george w than the elder george ...

in viewing the video ... i did not see that the person really said anything 
categorical about this ... he used the term "roughly" ... just depends if 
the VIEWER of the video and data wants to think that 4% verus 11% means 
"roughly" the same change ... or not

thus, i don't think the moderator said anything really wrong ...




At 04:27 PM 1/10/02 +, EugeneGall wrote:
>The Gallup organization posted a video to explain why the the increase in
>black's job approval for Bush is 'proportionate' to the increase among 
>whites.
>Both increased by about 30% (60 to 90 for whites, mid thirties to roughly 70%
>for blacks), so the increase is proportionate, not disproportionate, since 
>both
>increases were about 30%.  Unless I'm missing something, and I don't think I
>am, this proportionate - disproportionate error is repeated and emphasized
>several times in the video.
>
>http://www.gallup.com/poll/Multimedia/video/archived/2002/01/vr020108b.ram
>
>Gene Gallagher
>UMASS/Boston
>
>
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Proportionate vs. disproportionate

2002-01-10 Thread EugeneGall

The Gallup organization posted a video to explain why the the increase in
black's job approval for Bush is 'proportionate' to the increase among whites. 
Both increased by about 30% (60 to 90 for whites, mid thirties to roughly 70%
for blacks), so the increase is proportionate, not disproportionate, since both
increases were about 30%.  Unless I'm missing something, and I don't think I
am, this proportionate - disproportionate error is repeated and emphasized
several times in the video.

http://www.gallup.com/poll/Multimedia/video/archived/2002/01/vr020108b.ram

Gene Gallagher
UMASS/Boston


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