Gamaliel: A Historical Question

2011-02-04 Thread Nathan Oman
I have a question for those of you who are familiar with early modern, e.g.
16th and 17th century, debates over religious toleration.  Do you know of
any writers that used the story of Gamaliel as a justification for
toleration.  In the NT, Gamaliel is a Pharisee who argues against the
persecution of the early Christians on the grounds that if there work is not
of God it will perish but if it is of God one would be sinning in acting
against it.  Either way, the best course of action is toleration.  (See Acts
5)  I am just wondering if it was every invoked in polemics about religious
toleration.

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell
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The End of NY's Kosher Inspectors

2011-01-05 Thread Nathan Oman
According to the story below, NY has decided to nix its Kosher inspectors as
a way of spending money.  Does anyone know the details (and citation) for
the 2004 case mentioned in the article?  Also, I am wondering what precisely
the inspectors after the decision.  Finally, does anyone know why the
inspectors were set up in the first place?  Why wasn't the issue simply
solved by having private kosher audits by reputable bodies?  The idea of a
state Kosher inspector just seems perverse and unnecessary to me.  What am I
missing?

http://online.wsj.com/article/SB10001424052748704735304576058100916662270.html?mod=WSJ_hps_sections_newyork

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell
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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toanarbitration agreement?

2011-01-04 Thread Nathan Oman
On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 9:35 PM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 Point of clarification--So genital mutilation is culturally Islamic as
 opposed to theologically Islamic?


FMG is not practiced by the vast majority of Muslims and there is nothing in
traditional Islamic law that supports it.  My understanding it is that it is
a practice -- like honor killings -- that is confined to a specific ethnic
group and is practiced despite its formal condemnation by Islamic scholars.
 It is basically an East African tradition, although I wouldn't be surprised
if the Muslim East Africans who practice it see it as connected to their
religion, despite the absence of anything about FMG  in the classical fiqh.

The term autonomy really does nothing to further discussions about law and
 religion. It is a code word with more hidden agendas than meanings


No hidden agenda in my use of the term autonomy, or at least no more
hidden agenda than in the use of any other label to refer to a body of
theories and arguments.  I was not offering it up as a theory of law and
religion but as a theory of contract law.  You asked why the state should
enforce religious contracts.  My answer is that the state should enforce
such contracts for the same reason that it enforces any other contract.  Why
should religious contracts be treated differently?  I see no reason that the
kinds of arguments deployed by autonomy theorist of contract (or efficiency
theorists for that matter) cannot be deployed when the contract has a
religious content.  Given how deeply embedded the idea of the law's
agnosticism toward the substantive content of contracts is, it seems to me
that the burden is on those seeking to single some contract out for special
disapproval.  (This is why public policy and unconscionability are defenses
rather than formation requirements.)

In the case of Islamic commercial arbitration, two Muslims are likely to
invoke Islamic law -- if they are Muslim -- because they believe that
western law allows undue exploitation of weak parties and the accumulation
of wealth through immoral means -- e.g. the charging of interest.  They wish
to avoid direct complicity in such practices by having future disputes
governed by what they regard as a more just set of rules.  The state becomes
involved in such arbitration proceedings when one side disputes the scope of
the contract, alleging that the other has not complied with his or her
obligations under it.  The state's involvement at this point is predicated
on the ordinary values associated with the enforcement of contracts.  The
state is not enforcing this contract because it subscribes to the inherent
value of Islamic law any more than the state's enforcement of your lease
covenants has anything to do with the inherent value of restricting dog
ownership in your building.  Rather, the contract is being enforced either
to respect the autonomous choices of citizens in a liberal polity a la
Charles Fried, Randy Barnett, Steven Smith, etc. advance the efficient
allocation of resources a la Richard Crasswell, Richard Posner, Bob Scott,
Alan Schwartz, etc. protect against ex post opprotunism and reliance a la
Grant Gilmore, Patrick Atiyah, etc.  And so on.  My point is simply that
there is nothing special about religious contracts and the fact that the
argument obscures the very fact that they are religious is an attack on our
current system of contract law rather than a truism of law and religion
debates.
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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toanarbitrat...

2011-01-04 Thread Nathan Oman
 I think it important to publicly identify criminal and tortious behavior
 with the religious tradition on which it rests.  Otherwise, we are
 catering to the American societal instinct to whitewash religion to protect
 it from its darker corners.


I agree with you in the abstract.  You will notice that I did not deny the
FMG is in some sense Islamic, only that it is compelled by Islamic law as
that term is generally understood.  I have no doubt that Muslim East
Africans who practice FMG see it as a way of avoiding zina (sexual
immorality) even if classical Muslim ulamas have never made this argument
and the claim is denied by many modern Islamic jurists.  It seems to me that
there are two dangers with your preferred strategy.

First, doing it well requires a fairly nuanced understanding of a religious
tradition and this is not something that one often sees in public
discussions of religion.  The widespread belief -- which I take it that you
shared -- that FMG is part of Islamic law and is a widespread Muslim
practice is a case in point.  I agree with you that there is a dangerous
intellectual poverty in a discussion of religion that insists that it can
never have any darker manifestations.  On the other hand, there is a real
risk of perpetuating ignorant stereotypes and this risk rises the more
foreign the religion seems, where in functional terms in American society
foreigness is defined in terms of one's distance from mainstream
Protestantism.

The second danger is the ease of assuming religious causation.  For example,
one might argue that Islam causes FMG.  Here the issues get even more
complicated.  Clearly Islam does not cause FMG in any absolute sense.  FMG
is practiced by only a tiny minority of the world's billion or so Muslims.
 Also, my understanding is that FMG cuts across religious lines in East
Africa, and is practiced by Muslims, Christians, and animists.  At the same
time, you are likely to see uniquely Islamic manifestations of the practice,
manifestations that are going to be embedded in Islamic narratives about
zina, etc. etc.  A public pose of honestly calling a spade a spade etc.
etc., especially when it is based on only a cursory understanding of the
religious dynamics is likely to simply wash away such nuances and replace it
with a linear story of religion X causes evil Y.  This is especially true
where religion X seems exotic and where there are groups such as the media
and the plaintiffs bar that have powerful financial incentives
to propagate simplistic stories.


 At least under existing Establishment Clause doctrine, contracts that
 require religious interpretation (all contracts require interpretation)
 present special problems not present in any other contract.  I think Jones
 v. Wolf is very helpful on these points.  In that case, the Court says that
 neutral principles of law can apply in disputes between believers over
 property, but the Court warns religious organizations to enter into
 contracts that reflect their intent using those neutral principles.  If the
 courts must be arbiters of belief, they may not resolve the property
 dispute.  Same principles apply here.   By keeping courts out of the
 business of interpreting (i.e., determining) religious doctrine, the ends
 you mention are not necessarily disserved.  Rather, commercial contractors
 are required to translate their religious beliefs into neutral rules that
 are then incorporated into the contract.  The interpretation of doctrine is
 therefore done by the individuals, not the courts, and the courts are
 enforcing neutral principles.  The use of Sharia law is a shorthand, not a
 necessity.   The defense that having to spell out the principles of Sharia
 law that the parties intend to incorporate requires more words or paper is
 hardly persuasive.


I don't have a quarrel with the basic approach in Jones v. Wolf, but I do
think that your approach to contract drafting and interpretation runs
counter to more than a century of development in contract theory and
contract doctrine.  I think that it is fairly widely accepted that in
contract interpretation one of the chief functions of the courts is to
assist the parties in resolving their dispute by seeking to give effect to
their agreed upon terms.  We do this all the time in other contexts, even
when doing so requires that we make inquiries into the the shared meaning of
apparently vague or ambiguous terms.  This is the whole point behind the
modern relaxation of the parole evidence rule or the mirror image rule under
UCC 2-207.  This approach in effect amounts to an ex post subsidy of
contract drafting via the courts.  The alternative is to simply refuse to
interpret terms that aren't crystal clear on their face and require the
parties to bear the costs of increased contract drafting ex ante.  My point
is simply that there is no reason to impose on religious contractors a
greater burden in ex ante drafting than we impose on any other contracting
party.  This 

Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toanarbitrat...

2011-01-04 Thread Nathan Oman
I agree with what Steven says here, but with some additions.  First,
generally foreign law is treated as a question of fact rather than a
question of law.  This means that the courts don't make their own
independent judgment about the content of UK law or the like but are
supposed to take evidence from experts etc.  This means that the question of
religious law must be a question of fact not of religious doctrine.  To give
a concrete example from Islamic law, it is a question of fact whether the
Hanbali school of Islamic jurisprudence allows mut'a marriages (temporary
marriages for a fixed term).  It is NOT a question of fact (or at least a
question of fact that a court can inquire into) whether mut'a marriage is
truly Islamic.  (Shias generally say yes; Sunnis generally say no).  It
seems to me that courts should be free to pass judgment on the first
question but ought to be constitutionally prohibited from passing judgment
on the second question.  Whether a contract referencing Islamic law is
asking the first sort of question or the second sort of question is a matter
of interpretation that depends on the facts of the transaction.  There are,
however, good reasons for supposing that it is pretty unlikely that a
commercial contract involving the application of Saudi law is asking the
second sort of question rather than the first sort of question.

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


On Tue, Jan 4, 2011 at 9:44 AM, Steven Jamar stevenja...@gmail.com wrote:

 Is contract law shorthand?  Or should we spell out all provisions of the
 UCC and common law contract of the particular state?  Or can we just say
 law of the state of North Carolina?

 If we can say law of North Carolina will govern, we can also say law of
 France or law of Saudi Arabia or law of the Vatican.  And if one or
 more of those happen to be religious law, that is just what is going on and
 the court must interpret that law, whatever its source or external
 characterization just as it would any other law.

 Most legal systems do not require that ridiculous thing called
 consideration as part of the contract formation process.  So what?  From
 within any legal system one can determine the existence of non-existence of
 a contract (or judicially enforceable agreement if you prefer).  It doesn't
 matter whether that is the sharia or civil law or any other legal system.

 There remain many points of contention about what the law is in the common
 law and even more about how to apply it in a given setting -- even in a
 mature area like contracts.  Same is true in other legal systems.  No big
 deal.  For the commercial contract, the court can figure out what the law is
 and apply it --even if it includes principles analogous to unconscionability
  as part of the understanding of the contract law.

 It is not establishment.  It is not interpreting doctrinal disputes among
 churches with legal consequences -- it is resolving a contract dispute using
 the choice of law of the parties.  End of line.  This is no more
 establishment than is applying any choice of law provision.  Like all choice
 of law provisions, however, the forum state will always be able to ignore
 particular bits of the foreign law that are against public policy in the
 forum state.  that is a universal part of choice of law standards, howsoever
 varied choice of law rules themselves are.

 Steve


 On Jan 4, 2011, at 9:04 AM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 t least under existing Establishment Clause doctrine, contracts that
 require religious interpretation (all contracts require interpretation)
 present special problems not present in any other contract.  I think Jones
 v. Wolf is very helpful on these points.  In that case, the Court says that
 neutral principles of law can apply in disputes between believers over
 property, but the Court warns religious organizations to enter into
 contracts that reflect their intent using those neutral principles.  If the
 courts must be arbiters of belief, they may not resolve the property
 dispute.  Same principles apply here.   By keeping courts out of the
 business of interpreting (i.e., determining) religious doctrine, the ends
 you mention are not necessarily disserved.  Rather, commercial contractors
 are required to translate their religious beliefs into neutral rules that
 are then incorporated into the contract.  The interpretation of doctrine is
 therefore done by the individuals, not the courts, and the courts are
 enforcing neutral principles.  The use of Sharia law is a shorthand, not a
 necessity.   The defense that having to spell out the principles of Sharia
 law that the parties intend to incorporate requires more words or paper is
 hardly persuasive.



 --
 Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox:  202-806-8017
 Associate 

Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to an arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman
It seems difficult to find an equal protection violation if the Court is
merely enforcing the contract.  It seems to me that a more likely
constitutional objection would be that the contract cannot be enforced
without running afoul of the neutral principles doctrine.  Can a court make
a decision about who is or is not a Muslim without making theological
choices?  Would a shia muslim be acceptable?  A member of the nation of
Islam?

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 10:06 AM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

 That’s the issue lurking in *In re Aramco Servs. 
 Co.*http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=11521915190435651264,
 now on appeal to the Texas Supreme Court. DynCorp and Aramco Services (both
 of which were at the time Delaware corporations headquartered in Houston,
 though Aramco Services is a subsidiary of Saudi 
 Aramcohttps://www.aramcoservices.com/about/,
 the Saudi government’s oil company) signed an agreement under which DynCorp
 was to create a computer system (in the U.S.) and install it at Aramco’s
 Saudi facilities. The contract provided that it was to be interpreted under
 Saudi law, and arbitrated under Saudi arbitration rules and regulations.
 Those rules and regulations apparently call for the arbitrators to be Muslim
 Saudi citizens. The trial court, however, appointed a three-arbitrator panel
 consisting of a Muslim (apparently a Saudi) and two non-Muslim non-Saudis.
 Aramco appealed, arguing that (1) under the contract the arbitrators were
 not supposed to be appointed by a court, and, (2) in the alternative, that
 the court erred in appointing non-Muslim non-Saudis.



 The Texas Court of Appeals agreed with Aramco on item 1, and therefore
 didn’t reach item 2. But there is an interesting constitutional issue
 lurking in the background: If a contract does call for a court to appoint
 arbitrators, and provides that the arbitrators must be Muslims (or Jews or
 Catholics or what have you), may a court implement that provision, or does
 the First Amendment or the Equal Protection Clause bar the court — a
 government entity — from discriminating based on religion this way, even
 pursuant to a party agreement?  Any thoughts on this?



 Eugene



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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to an arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman
Eugene,

In your mind does the constitutional difficulty arise from the court
choosing a Muslim arbitrator under the contract or from the enforcement of a
contract involving religious terms?  Suppose, for example, that the parties
had -- pursuant to the contract -- chosen Muslim arbitrators, who had
arbitrated the dispute, and then one the parties sought to enforce the
arbitration award in court.  Could the other party defend on the ground that
the court was being asked to enforce an arbitration that was infected with
unconstitutional religious discrimination?

Frankly, I am skeptical of the equal protection argument here.  I don't see
how you can get an equal protection violation without doing some sort of
Shelly v. Kramer end run around the state action doctrine, and I think that
such an end run is both unlikely to succeed and as a normative matter should
be done only sparingly.  I think that we want to allow people to use the law
to create illiberal arrangements, so long as such arrangements don't pose a
threat to the basic liberal order.  The widespread use of racially
restrictive covenants given the American experience with race posed such a
threat.  I have a hard time seeing that voluntary commercial arbitration
under sharia law poses such a threat.   Hence, in response to Marci's
initial question of what about a contract that called for an arbiter based
on race or gender, my default position is to say No problem.  Let people
write the contracts that they wish to write.  This, however, is only a
default.  If Marci and other skeptics can tell a sufficiently compelling
story about how this particular practice or form of private discrimination
threatens the liberal order, then I think that we have a reason for denying
enforcement.  (I suspect that Marci and I would differ on what constitutes a
threat to the liberal order.)  Even in these cases, I think that as a
doctrinal matter it makes more sense to do this via things like the void as
against public policy doctrine under contract law rather than through a
convoluted reading of the equal protection clause.

I think that the neutral principles doctrine has a bit more traction,
although even there I am skeptical.  At some point I think that the first
amendment is implicated when a court makes religious identifications, but it
seems to me that in order for courts to be cognicient of religion in ways
that I am assuming are uncontroversial -- such as for purposes of providing
free exercise protection or policing establishment clause violations --
courts will have to be able to make religious identifications.  It is not
clear to me that a contract calling for a Saudi national who is a Muslim
will -- as a practical matter -- raise these sorts of problems.  A contract
calling for a pious and orthodox Muslim in contrast, might.

Best,

NBO

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 4:19 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

  My view is that being a Muslim is not a limitation on
 being an arbitrator that a court may properly enforce, given the First
 Amendment and the Equal Protection Clause.



 I don’t think there’s any constitutional difficulty with a
 court’s deciding whether someone adequately knows Sharia as it is understood
 in Saudi Arabia, though I imagine a court would have a pretty difficult time
 resolving such matters; it would make much more sense to leave the
 appointment of such an arbitrator to a private entity (or to a Saudi
 government entity).



 There might be a constitutional difficulty – of the
 entanglement / religious decisions variety – with a court’s deciding whether
 someone adequately knows Sharia as Islamic law as such, for instance if
 there’s a dispute about whether a person’s view on a Sharia question shows
 ignorance or just shows disagreement about theological matters.



 Eugene



 *From:* religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:
 religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] *On Behalf Of *Steven Jamar
 *Sent:* Monday, January 03, 2011 12:38 PM

 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Subject:* Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators,
 pursuant to an arbitration agreement?



 Eugene, do you contend that knowledge of the Sharia is not a valid
 limitation or only that being a Muslim is not?





 On Jan 3, 2011, at 2:32 PM, Douglas Laycock wrote:



  must know the Shari'a, commercial laws and the customs in force in the
 Kingdom



 --

 Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox:  202-806-8017

 Associate Director, Institute for Intellectual Property and Social Justice
 http://iipsj.org

 Howard University School of Law   fax:  202-806-8567

 http://iipsj.com/SDJ/





 Love the pitcher less and the water more.

Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to an arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman

   I’m no great fan of the more expansive readings of Shelly.
 But when a government actor is deciding who gets a particular (lucrative)
 position based on that person’s religion, it seems to me that state action
 is eminently present, or more specifically that the government actor is
 discriminating based on religion in presumptive violation of the Free
 Exercise Clause and the First Amendment.  To be sure, the government actor
 isn’t motivated by religious animus; it’s just trying to enforce a
 contract.  But it is still deliberately treating people different from other
 people based on whether they are Muslims or not.  (When the court just
 enforces an arbitration conducted by a private party, there is not such
 discrimination by a government entity, even if the private party
 discriminates based on religion or sex in selecting the arbitrators.)


Why say that the government is discriminating on the basis of religion if it
is simply apply neutral principles of contract law.  I understand that there
is a question as to whether the contract can be enforced using merely
neutral principles, but that isn't your argument here.  Rather, I take it
that your objection rests on a non-discrimination principle.  Where is the
discriminatory legal principle at issue?







   I think that we want to allow people to use the law to create illiberal
 arrangements, so long as such arrangements don't pose a threat to the basic
 liberal order.  The widespread use of racially restrictive covenants given
 the American experience with race posed such a threat.  I have a hard time
 seeing that voluntary commercial arbitration under sharia law poses such a
 threat.   Hence, in response to Marci's initial question of what about a
 contract that called for an arbiter based on race or gender, my default
 position is to say No problem.  Let people write the contracts that they
 wish to write.  This, however, is only a default.  If Marci and other
 skeptics can tell a sufficiently compelling story about how this particular
 practice or form of private discrimination threatens the liberal order, then
 I think that we have a reason for denying enforcement.  (I suspect that
 Marci and I would differ on what constitutes a threat to the liberal order.)
  Even in these cases, I think that as a doctrinal matter it makes more sense
 to do this via things like the void as against public policy doctrine under
 contract law rather than through a convoluted reading of the equal
 protection clause.



 I think that the neutral principles doctrine has a bit more traction,
 although even there I am skeptical.  At some point I think that the first
 amendment is implicated when a court makes religious identifications, but it
 seems to me that in order for courts to be cognicient of religion in ways
 that I am assuming are uncontroversial -- such as for purposes of providing
 free exercise protection or policing establishment clause violations --
 courts will have to be able to make religious identifications.  It is not
 clear to me that a contract calling for a Saudi national who is a Muslim
 will -- as a practical matter -- raise these sorts of problems.  A contract
 calling for a pious and orthodox Muslim in contrast, might.



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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to an arb...

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman
On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 7:39 PM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

  Isn't the answer to this question, Eric, that there is no single Sharia
 law?  Interpretation of Sharia law requires a court to pick and choose
 between Sharia doctrines.  It is not terribly different from the wide
 variety of Christian interpretations of the Bible.


Yes and no.  There is actually a distinction that is made in Islamic law
between sharia and fiqh.  Sharia refers to god's commands as they actually
are.  Fiqh refers to particular interpretations of those laws.  The fiqh of
a particular school of Islamic law may actually be quite fixed and
ascertainable.  Hence, if someone says something like this contract should
be governed by sharia law as applied in Saudi Arabia or sharia law
according to the Habali school the content of the rules may be pretty
determinate.  Furthermore, if one reads the term sharia law within the
entire context of the writing and the contract -- which is how one is
supposed to do contractual interpretation after all -- one may be able to
impute a particular school's fiqh to the term.  (Different schools of fiqh
dominate in different countries and often countries that include sharia law
by reference in legislation refer to particular schools of fiqh.)  Indeed,
Arabic makes a distinction between engaging in original interpretation of
the Quran and other sources of Islamic law -- ijtihad -- and simply
mechanically applying known rules without any interpretation -- taqlid.
 Hence, the analogy to varying Christian interpretations of the Bible is
just that, an analogy.  Depending on the the context, however, determining
the content of sharia law may actually be about as mechanical as
determining the content of UK law.


 Marci


 In a message dated 1/3/2011 7:37:08 P.M. Eastern Standard Time,
 erassb...@becketfund.org writes:

 e Eugene's other (and I take it primary -- the original post mentioned only
 the Muslim identity of the arbitrators -- ) concern about entanglement, I
 don't see how being knowledgeable about Sharia necessarily implicates belief
 in a religion. I've learned a lot about particular aspects of Sharia
 representing Muslim clients but that is not affected by whether I am a
 Muslim or not.



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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman

 First, I assume as a matter of contract law that any obligations arising
 out of such agreements that involve otherwise illegal conduct are void.  So
 genital mutilation, trading of girls as wives (or simply for procreation),
 aiding polygamy, covering up child abuse when it is required to be reported,
 and the settling of debts through indentured servitude are out of the
 picture.


This is true regardless of the religious content of the contract, and would
be true regardless of the content of constitutional law.  (Also, it is worth
pointing out that female genital mutilation is not condoned by Islamic law
and is condemned by ulama of the classical fiqh.)


 Second, does commercial arbitration ever involve real property?  If so, we
 are right back in Shelley v Kraemer territory, no?   One of the reasons in
 my view justifying the Shelley result is that such contracts shut out
 minorities for generations to come.  The time lag of the deal is troubling


Two points.  First, in most of the commercial arbitrations involving Islamic
law any real estate is located in a foreign country.  Furthermore, the main
point at which these arbitrations are likely to diverge significantly from
western law is in the application of the prohibition on riba, which is
basically usury.  The reality is that this is not going to be a dramatic
show down over FMG or the stoning of adulterers.  It is going to be a
dispute about whether a sale and lease back transaction contains an implied
usurious interest rate or the like.  Second, while I think that there is
some truth to concerns about the long lasting effects of real estate, I
don't think that is ultimately what makes the outcome in Shelly v. Kramer
justifiable is that it involved real rather than personal property.  Rather,
I think that it had everything to do with the history of racial
subordination in this country and the way in which real estate covenants
perpetuated that system of racial subordination.  It makes not sense to me
to try to understand the outcomes in cases like Shelly v. Kramer as applying
some universal principle rather than as a reaction to the particular history
of slavery and its aftermath in the United States.  The normative question,
it seems to me, is whether, in light of American history and our present
circumstances, Islamic arbitration of commercial disputes between two large
corporations that have agreed to the application of Islamic law to their
dispute arising out of a transaction occurring in Saudi Arabia raises
some similar systemic threat to liberal democracy in the United States.
 Frankly, I just don't see it as being remotely analogous to the way in
which Jim Crow undermined the liberal order in the United States.  Indeed,
attempts to equate the two strike me as bizarrely implausible.

Finally, why isn't a liberal society better served by enforcement of such
 agreements within their own universes, which would leave the civil courts
 out?  Religious cultures have plenty of ways to penalize their members
 including excommunication or shunning.  Why are civil courts needed exceopt
 to shore up the power of the religion?


I actually think that this makes a great deal of sense, and as I read the
contract at issue in the Texas case it is not at all clear to me that it
actually did contemplate an American court -- as opposed to a Saudi court --
appointing the arbiter.  Hence, as a prudential matter, I think that
religious communities would be best served not trying to heavily enlist the
state in their dispute resolution processes.  That said, it seems to me that
one can involve the state in such contracts on exactly the same basis that
the state is involved in all contracts, namely respecting the independent
choices of its citizens to order their legal affairs as they see fit.  Such
an autonomy justification for contract is essentially agnostic as to the
substantive content of contracts, so long as they do not stray into
illegality or unconscionability.  What matter is not what the parties choose
but that they chose it.

Nate Oman
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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arb...

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman
On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 8:52 PM, hamilto...@aol.com wrote:

 Your response requires the agreement to specify which school of Sharia law
 is to be employed.  So my point that Sharia law is not self-defining still
 stands. No?


Yes and no.  In the abstract, I think that your point is entirely correct.
 In principle the meaning of the term sharia law necessarily requires a
deeply religious act of interpretation.  That said, however, words generally
are not used in the abstract.  They certainly are not used in the abstract
within contracts.  (Or at least this is the premise of the century-long
attack on the plain meaning rule by realist and neoclassical contract law in
the 20th century.)  Rather, words are always used within the context of a
particular transaction and a particular contract. As a matter of ordinary
contract interpretation, the term sharia law must be construed in light of
the context in which it is used.  Frankly, in almost any contract involving
commercial arbitration it will probably be possible from the context to
determine the body of fiqh that the parties expect to apply.  The content of
that fiqh may then be determined using expert witnesses, just as one would
determine the content of UK law.  Furthermore, it is extremely unlikely that
the parties to such a contract intend for the arbiter to engage in ijtihad
rather than taqlid.  Ijtihad is the kind of thing that really elite jurists,
religious radicals, or semi-mythical geniuses of the past did.  It is not
the sort of thing that one expects from your run of the mill Islamic
arbiter.  It would be really weird to suppose that the drafters of the
contract understood the terms are requiring a deeply religious act of
interpretation.

Let me give an example:  Suppose that a man enters into a contract with
another man in which he promises to pay $10,000 in return for which the
other man promises to convey a parcel of land to the church.  Now in the
abstract the term church is fraught with theological complexities and
difficulties.  Ecclesialogy varies greatly from Christian sect to Christian
sect.  On the other hand, if both men have spent their lives attending the
1st Baptist Church of Hendersonville, Kentucky and they engaged in
negotiations in which the first man said he wanted to purchase the land from
the second man to build an extension to the sanctuary, a court is going to
be able to construe the term church without theological pyrotechnics and
without shaking liberal democracy to its foundations.  This is true even
though the term church standing alone in the contract doesn't contain any
kind of explicit gloss.  My only point is that rather than exocticizing
Islamic law with a few well chosen examples from the popular press, courts
ought to understand how it gets used in the context of the contract and
transactions they are called on to adjudicate.


 Marci
 Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry

 -Original Message-
 From: Nathan Oman nate.o...@gmail.com
 Sender: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
 Date: Mon, 3 Jan 2011 20:46:47
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academicsreligionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Subject: Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant
 to
an arb...

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Re: Federal regulators apparently force bank to take down religioussymbols

2010-12-21 Thread Nathan Oman
If you step back from the concrete arguments over accommodation or
discrimination claims, I wonder if we have any set of coherent narratives to
tell about the relationship between law, religion, and commercial activity.
 It seems to me that when we talk about the relationship between religion
and the state we have a pretty clear set of relatively coherent positions
with theocracy on one hand and perhaps strict seperationism on the other
hand.  In between we have accomodationism or some sort of support for
religion as of general civic usefulness (I am thinking here of something
like the original establishment in the Massachusetts constitution).

Are we simply transferring these narratives to the commercial context.  That
is do we have some reason for adopting say a strict seperationist stance
when it comes to the issue of church and market?  Alternatively, are we
just engaged in some process by which we decide that a given commercial
situation is state-like enough to trigger the church-state concerns that
we have in the case of the government?

A pithier way of raising the issue might be to ask whether we have any
unique theories of church-and-market or whether we are simply extending our
theories of church-and-state by analogy into the marketplace.

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


On Tue, Dec 21, 2010 at 2:18 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

I appreciate Michael's thoughtful and detailed response.  But it
 sounds like his approach, then, is different from Alan's, since Alan
 apparently would treat some such cases as disparate treatment cases (yes?).
  If so, Alan, what would you think about the Las Cruces, Mogen David, or
 There Is No God on uniforms, cars, burger wrappers, and so on?

Eugene

  -Original Message-
  From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu [mailto:religionlaw-
  boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Michael Masinter
  Sent: Tuesday, December 21, 2010 11:12 AM
  To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
  Subject: RE: Federal regulators apparently force bank to take down
  religioussymbols
 
  As always, Eugene asks good questions.
 
  Religious discrimination claims can take several forms -- disparate
  treatment,  failure to accommodate, and in addition harassment and
  disparate impact.
 
  I am not familiar with any case that treats an employer's mandated
  expression of religious (dis)belief as disparate treatment since such
  a rule, uniformly applied to all similarly situated employees, would
  be disparate treatment only if it were adopted for the purpose of
  discouraging employees or applicants of a particular faith from
  applying or continuing to work.  So I would expect any claim relating
  to compelled expression to arise as a reasonable accommodation claim.
  I suppose compelled expression could be part of a religious harassment
  claim, but religious harassment claims are rare given the high burden
  (severe or pervasive) that claimants face.  Facing that higher burden,
  a sensible employee or her lawyer would surely prefer a reasonable
  accommodation claim.  Disparate impact claims raise even more
  difficult issues respecting classwide impact and preclude recovery of
  damages, so I wouldn't expect to see one of those either.
 
  My sense is that neither the Las Cruces employee nor the Mogen David
  employee is entitled to an accommodation relating to vehicles or
  stationery.  The city seal and Mogen David emblem identify the
  employer; since no reasonable observer would see them as the compelled
  expression of belief, I'd expect a court to hold that requiring the
  employer to forego their use at the request of a religious believer
  would impose an undue hardship on the conduct of the employer's
  business.
 
  It's worth noting that section 702(a) of Title VII exempts religious
  corporations, associations, and societies from the prohibition against
  religious discrimination, and therefore from any duty of religious
  accommodation.  Although courts have struggled to work out a standard
  for identifying employers entitled to the religious corporation
  exemption that is both faithful to the intent of its drafters and
  consistent with the establishment clause, all of the competing
  standards impose a de facto requirement that the employer be organized
  as a not for profit business even while insisting that the form of the
  organization is only part of the analysis.  Townley Engineering lost
  on its claim to a religious corporation exemption for precisely that
  reason.
 
  Mike
 
  Michael R. Masinter  3305 College Avenue
  Professor of Law Fort Lauderdale, FL 33314
  Nova Southeastern University 954.262.6151 (voice)
  masin...@nova.edu954.262.3835 (fax)
 

Re: A Constitutional right to make pilgrimage

2010-12-13 Thread Nathan Oman
I tried to find a copy of the complaint online.  Has anyone seen it?  To
second Mr. Stern's suggestion, when I was in practice we successfully sued
the Wisconsin prison system for failing to accomodate Halal diets for
prisoners.  The claim looked dead under Smith, but the prison system was
already accommodating Kosher prisoners, so we won...

Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell


On Mon, Dec 13, 2010 at 9:32 PM, ste...@ajc.org wrote:

 First the suit is probably brought under tile vii and not the constitution.
 The smith standard is inapplicable under that statute.. Second, the
 department will likely argue that the leave policy was administered
 unevenly-say Jews are given leave for passover.
 Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry

 -Original Message-
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 Sender: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
 Date: Mon, 13 Dec 2010 20:22:50
 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
 religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Subject: A Constitutional right to make pilgrimmage

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RE: Catholic Charities Issue

2006-03-22 Thread Nathan Oman
I am not sure that we have a mirror here.  Gay people are trying to get out 
from under an oppressive regime the likes of which conservative believers have 
not had to endure - nor are likely to.

This just seems to muddy the issue to me.  Doug's claim is not that gays and 
conservative Christians have suffered comperable levels of oppression, but that 
both should be accord a space in which to work out their visions of the good 
free of collective coercion.  Furthermore, I think that it is a mistake for 
gays -- or any other oppressed minority -- to use the fact of their oppression 
to suggest that they get some sort of free pass on the basic commitments of 
philosophical liberalism, given that they are much more likely to persuade 
those who disagree with them by appeals to liberalism than by attacks upon it.

NBO


--
**
Nathan Oman

It is a misleading cult that teaches that the remedy of our ills is to have 
the law give over, once and for all, the strivings of the centuries for a 
rational coherence, and sink back in utter weariness to a justice that is the 
flickering reflection of the impulse of the moment.  
  -- Benjamin Cardozo
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Re: Missouri declares Christianity its official religion.

2006-03-03 Thread Nathan Oman
I wonder how many of them would have the courage of their convictions if that 
were the likely outcome of their little legal-literary exercise.

I suspect that large numbers of them -- or of their fellow travelers -- would 
be willing to suffer legal sanctions for their opinions.  I think that they are 
wrong, but I see no particular reason to suppose that they are insincere.  It 
is always nice to imagine that those we disagree with are also cowards or 
hypocrits, but reality has a nasty way of refusing to script itself as 
precisely the sort of morality play that we might prefer.

NBO

--
**
Nathan Oman

It is a misleading cult that teaches that the remedy of our ills is to have 
the law give over, once and for all, the strivings of the centuries for a 
rational coherence, and sink back in utter weariness to a justice that is the 
flickering reflection of the impulse of the moment.  
  -- Benjamin Cardozo
--
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RE: From the list custodian RE: Pink Triangles and Religious Liberty

2006-01-27 Thread Nathan Oman
  messages that are
   posted; people can read the Web archives; and list members can
   (rightly or wrongly) forward the messages to others.
  
  
  
  
Rick Duncan
   Welpton Professor of Law
   University of Nebraska College of Law
   Lincoln, NE 68583-0902
  
  
   When the Round Table is broken every man must follow
  either Galahad
   or Mordred: middle things are gone. C.S.Lewis, Grand Miracle
  
   I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, 
 debriefed, 
   or numbered. --The Prisoner
  
  
  
   -
   Do you Yahoo!?
   With a free 1 GB, there's more in store with Yahoo! Mail.
  
  
  
  
   _
  
   Steve Sanders
   E-mail:  [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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--

**
Nathan Oman

www.concurringopions.com
www.timesandseasons.org

It is a misleading cult that teaches that the remedy of our
ills is to have the law give over, once and for all, the 
strivings of the centuries for a rational coherence, and 
sink back in utter weariness to a justice that is the 
flickering reflection of the impulse of the moment.  
  -- Benjamin Cardozo
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Re: B'nai Brith Canada wins in landmark supreme court case onreligious freedoms

2004-07-01 Thread Nathan Oman
Doug,

Was the condiminium corporation at issue here a public housing facility, or does the 
Charter of Rights apply to private actors as well?

Nate Oman

-- Original Message --
From: Douglas Laycock [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Date: Thu, 01 Jul 2004 14:45:26 -0500

 This is not my prose, but someone else's press release -- B'nai 
Brith Canada's I think.  I doubt we could get the same result in many U.S. 
jurisdictions.

B'nai Brith Canada wins in landmark supreme court case
on religious freedoms

FOR IMMEDIATE RELEASE


June 30, 2004.

MONTREAL - In a landmark ruling, the Supreme Court of Canada has upheld
the rights of all Canadians to follow their religious practices without
interference by the courts.

In what is widely seen as an illustration of this point, the Supreme
Court of Canada has ruled that Jewish condominium owners in a Montreal
building have the right to set up their own personal Succahs, temporary
religious huts that are constructed in celebration of the Jewish holiday
of Succot. B'nai Brith Canada's League for Human Rights had intervened
in the matter following the initial refusal of the condominium
corporation to allow observant Jewish residents to construct individual
huts on their own balconies.

Allan Adel, National Chair of B'nai Brith's League for Human Rights,
reacting to the news, stated: We are satisfied with the decision of the
Supreme Court, which has applied a broad interpretation to the Charter
guarantee of freedom of religion and believe it to be in the best
interests of all Canadians. The Succah ruling is an important,
groundbreaking case that champions the cause of religious freedom in
Canada and will have important ramifications well beyond the immediate
facts of the case.

Montreal lawyer Steven Slimovitch along with B'nai Brith's Senior Legal
Counsel David Matas, represented the League before the Court.
Slimovitch, acknowledging that he was pleased with the verdict stated:
This decision sets an important precedent for the exercise of sincerely
held religious beliefs. The High Court has upheld B'nai Brith's argument
that State should not be the final arbiter of religious dogma. Rather,
this must be a private matter set by each individual.



Established in 1875, B'nai Brith is the Canadian Jewish community's
leading human rights agency.




Douglas Laycock
University of Texas Law School
727 E. Dean Keeton St.
Austin, TX  78705
 512-232-1341 (voice)
 512-471-6988 (fax)
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]

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http://www.tutissima.com
http://www.timesandseasons.org
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RE: Gay Activists Threaten Church Tax-Exempt Status

2004-06-04 Thread Nathan Oman
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-04 Thread Nathan Oman
Actually it gets even more fun.  Louisiana was a French territory when purchased, but 
for much of its history it was Spainish, so you would need to be able to look at 
Spainish law as well.  Furthermore, the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo contained a 
similar provision with regard to the territory ceded from Mexico under the treaty (CA, 
AZ, NM, NV, CO, UT).  So Spainish and Mexican law would become relevent for those 
states.  French law might then also be important as a source of persuasive authority, 
it being another civil law jurisdiction and all. 

Hence, it turns out that MOST of the geographical area of the United States has a 
submerged civil law substratum of one kind or another.

Nate Oman

-- Original Message --
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Date: Fri, 4 Jun 2004 12:26:49 EDT


In a message dated 6/4/04 7:57:29 AM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:


 (except, perhaps, in Louisiana) (since the treaty making final the purchase 
 of the territory guarantees to the residents of the territory all the rights 
 they enjoyed prior to the conveyance).
 

Jim-
You would have to say except, perhaps, in Louisiana and all or part of 
Missouri, Iowa, North Dakota, Texas, South Dakota, New Mexico, Nebraska, Kansas, 
Wyoming, Minnesota, Oklahoma, Colorado and Montana.
Art




--
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Re: Religion Clauses question

2004-06-03 Thread Nathan Oman
This discussion puts me in mind of Waldron's observation about the difficulty of 
rights based discourse: Rights purport to be fundamental commitments to which we can 
appeal to neutrally resolve basic disputes, but what counts as a right is precisely 
what people disagree about.

I suspect that those who oppose same sex marriage do so precisely because they don't 
regard same sex marriage as a right (in the Dworkin, rights as trumps meaning).  It 
seems to me that the language of equal rights only becomes useful once one has defined 
what counts as a right and what doesn't count as a right.  However, once one has those 
definitions most of the arguing has been done.

Nate Oman

-- Original Message --
From: Paul Finkelman [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 13:17:55 -0500

Richard: It seems to me that if you oppose rights  for people you can't 
say you support equal rights.  It is pretty clear to me that this is 
about fundamental rights.  I absolutely agree with Prof. Beckwith that 
there should be no need to endorse or agree with people being gay 
(although the science seems pretty clear that many if not all gay people 
are born the way they are, so it is sort of like endorsing or not 
endorsing people being male or female).  One can believe that being gay 
is immoral; just as one can dislike being around Jews or Moslems or 
Blacks, or Asians.  But, the issue for those of us interested in law is 
one of rights and equality.  I think if you deny a huge class of people 
the right to marry, to raise children, to share in the civil benefits of 
marriage (such as shared health insurance, right to inherit, right to 
make end of life decisions for your partner, right to even visit your 
loved one in the hospital) then you are in fact against equal rights for 
all people.

I personally would favor the government not marrying anyone -- that is 
for the clergy; the government should set up regulations for family 
units; civil unions, and the like. Then let the clergy marry people. 
But, as long as the government is the marriage business it should not 
be allowed to discriminate unless there is a strong compelling interest; 
no one on this list has ever offered a compelling interest (or even a 
rational basis) argument for opposing same sex unions.  The only 
arguments offer are that it violated God's law (which of course is 
disputed and truly irrelevant to our legal sysystem) and that it sets a 
bad example.  Well, we can all think of lots of things that set a bad 
example.  I think having more children than you can raise sets a bad 
example; The Catholic Church clearly does not think that is true, or at 
least does not think it is true enough to support birht control.  I 
think sixteen year olds set a bad example when they get married, but a 
number of states disagree.  I think parents who yell at little league 
umpires set a bad example for their kids; but there are not compelling 
interests or even a rational basis for banning these sorts of behavior.

Paul Finkelman

Richard Dougherty wrote:
Clearly, however, as you note, you are not advocating disrciminating 
against gay people, and so I welcome you to to fold of many people of 
faith who support equal rights for all Americans!

Paul Finkelman
 
 
 Respectfully, isn't this the kind of point that Prof. Beckwith is getting at?  
 Opponents of gay marriages or civil unions are not necessarily opponents of 
 equal rights for all Americans.
 
 Richard Dougherty
 
 
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Paul Finkelman
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University of Tulsa College of Law
3120 East 4th Place
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--
Nathan Oman

http://www.tutissima.com
http://www.timesandseasons.org
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Re: FYI An Interesting Case

2004-04-07 Thread Nathan Oman

Doug,

I was hoping that progressive here would be a neutral phrase.  Perhaps there is a 
better label, I am just not sure what it is.  I don't want to use the word liberal 
because I like to reserve that term for philosophical purposes -- e.g. liberal v. 
communitarian -- rather than succomb to its bastardized use in general political 
discussions.

BTW, it seems to me that having the state require an oath and having ATT require an 
oath are different sorts of things.  The state has more guns than ATT does.

NBO

-- Original Message --
From: Douglas Laycock [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Date: Wed, 07 Apr 2004 14:48:27 -0500

 It is progressive to require people not to discriminate or
harass.  It is not progressive to require people to swear loyalty oaths or
swear fealty to other people's values.  The Colorado case appears to be
about the difference.

 In the Pledge case, it is progressives who are opposing such
coerced oaths of allegiance.  But for too many people on both sides, it
will always be about whose ox is gored.

At 03:34 PM 4/7/2004 -0400, Nathan Oman wrote:

This is interesting to me because it is an example of the civil rights
laws being used as a weapon against progressive workplace
policies.  Richard Epstein and more recently David Bernstein have argued 
that civil rights laws present a threat to free exercise rights when they
unduly regulate religious employers.  This case seems like the flip side 
of this argument, in which the civil rights laws get used as a sword by
the religious against voluntary, progressive policies.

NBO


-- Original Message --
From: Rick Duncan [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Reply-To: [EMAIL PROTECTED],
Date: Wed, 7 Apr 2004 14:51:44 -0400

 Rick Duncan has sent you an article from The Washington Times.
 
 Rick Duncan's comments:
 ---
 WORKER OPPOSED TO GAYS WINS SUIT
 By Amy Fagan
 THE WASHINGTON TIMES
 ---
 An ATT Broadband employee who was fired after refusing to abide by
 company rules that he said violated his religious beliefs about
 homosexuality has won a federal court case.
 
 Judge Marcia S. Krieger of the U.S. District Court for the District
 of Colorado awarded Albert Buonanno of Denver $146,269 for lost salary, 
 loss of 401(k) matching contributions and compensation for emotional
 distress in a Friday ruling released this week.
 
 The judge found that although there was no direct religious
 discrimination against Mr. Buonanno, ATT Broadband failed to show it
 could not have accommodated Mr. Buonanno's beliefs without undue
 hardship to the company he had been with for nearly two years.
 
 Mr. Buonanno objected to language in a new employee handbook issued
 in January 2001 that said each person at ATT Broadband is charged with
 the responsibility to fully recognize, respect and value the differences
 among all of us, including sexual orientation. He was fired after
 refusing to sign a certificate of understanding acknowledging that he 
 agreed to the policy.
 
 The Civil Rights Act requires employers to reasonably accommodate
 the religious beliefs of employees unless the employer can show it will 
 create an undue hardship on the company to do so.
 
 Mr. Buonanno felt his Christian beliefs prevented him from valuing 
 or agreeing with homosexuality, which he views as a sin, but he pledged 
 not to discriminate against or harass anyone, said John W. Whitehead,
 president of the Rutherford Institute, the group that represented Mr. Buonanno.
 
 This issue is about more than an objection to homosexuality, Mr. 
 Whitehead said. It concerns the freedom of conscience — the right of 
 individuals to object to something they believe is wrong, especially when
 it contradicts their religious beliefs, whether it is war, abortion,
 homosexuality or a number of other issues.
 
 A spokesman for Comcast, which owns ATT Broadband, said, the
 company is disappointed in the court's ruling, which they said appears
 to ignore attempts by companies to foster diversity and
 nondiscrimination in the workplace.
 
 The spokesman, who asked not to be named, said the company is
 reviewing the case and might appeal the ruling. Mr. Buonanno did not ask
 the court to reinstate him as a quota specialist, instead seeking
 monetary compensation. He now works for Mental Health Corporation of
 Denver as a counselor.
 
 The ruling could embolden other Christians or religious people to
 challenge similar policies, said Mr. Whitehead, who expects court
 challenges to the sensitivity training companies sometimes require,
 which he said often aims at training workers to accept and value
 diversity, including homosexuality.
 
 I think Buonanno is just the tip of the iceberg, Mr. Whitehead said.
 
 Mr. Buonanno wasn't asking anything that would unduly burden

Re: Civil unions and marriage

2003-12-05 Thread Nathan Oman

Greetings,
I actually am sympathetic to Professor Laycock's solution. It seems
to me that the problems of marriage (at least in our legal tradition)
were created by Henry VIII, when the ecclesiastical courts were made into
an arm of the state. It makes sense to give marriage back to the
churches and the private sphere, and let the state create some separate
category. I am curious if anyone knows the history. How did
marriage operate when the ecclesiastical courts were separate. Did
the common law have some parallel notion of marriage with the
ecclesiastical courts to handle stuff like the decent of land, etc.
I remember reading someplace that in medieval law a marriage for purposes
of the common law courts could be formed by simple agreement, but that a
marriage for purposes of the ecclesiastical courts required the sacrament
of marriage celebrated by the church. The differing court systems
would then give differing remedies depending on what kind of marriage you
had. Does anyone with more background on this, know if this is
right?
Incidentally, I am still confused as to why civil unions present an
establishment clause issue. In what sense is religion advanced or
established merely because the government has a policy that makes some
religious citizens happier? If making a distinction between civil
unions and heterosexual marriage is an unconstitutional establishment,
then it seems that heterosexual marriage itself would be an
unconstitutional establishment.
Nate Oman
At 10:47 AM 12/5/2003 -0600, you wrote:
What
seems to me more plausibly unconstitutional is the state and churches
jointly administering marriage without distinguishing, either in
institution or in vocabulary, the religious relationship (and sacrament,
in some faiths) from the legal relationship. The better solution
may be civil unions for everybody as the only state recognized
relationship. Marriage would then be a wholly religious
relationship. 
And they
would be independent of each other. You could enter into marriage
without a civil union, or vice versa, or you could do both. And you
could terminate a civil union without terminating the marriage, or vice
versa, or you could do both. 

At 10:38 AM 12/5/2003 -0600, you wrote:
The previously ignorable
entanglement is becoming unpleasantly obvious as the move toward gay
marriage progresses, especially as opponents continually express
themselves in religious terms. (I note that Pres. Bush responded to the
recent Massachusetts case by saying, Marriage is a sacred institution
between a man and a woman. Today's decision of the Massachusetts Supreme
Judicial Court violates this important principle. I will work with
congressional leaders and others to do what is legally necessary to
defend the sanctity of marriage. ) 
Mark seems to be suggesting that it s not accommodation in the
constitutionally permissible sense, but just in the political wisdom
sense: better to proceed by steps, and allow some bit of solace to the
losing side. I think Dean made his unguarded statement because he assumed
the proponents of gay marriage ought to be happy enough, and meanwhile it
was appropriate to show some respect for the feelings of those who might
be quite angry with him for signing the law. I still can t see why it is
not unconstitutional.
Ann

Mark Graber [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

I think the accommodation problem is this. For better or (I
think) worse, marriage and marriage law have historically entangled
church and state in ways that are probably inconsistent with my notions
of establishment in the abstract. Part of what civil unions do is
attempt some disentangling. Still, given the very long history,
efforts at complete disentanglement seem unwise for the foreseeable
future. Hence, given people the choice of different forms of unions
seems the best choice given past practice. 
 
Mark A. Graber



 [EMAIL PROTECTED] 12/05/03 10:48AM  
Mark raises the question of accommodation of religion, which my
students also raised. My problem with that analysis is this: when have
the courts accepted accommodation when it meant leaving the people to be
accommodated in the position they were already in but burdening someone
else as a way of pleasing them? I don?t think it is like, say, Amos,
where you cut a swath around some traditional freedom as you create a new
right for a group. It seems more like adopting Title VII with a right
against discrimination but requiring different job titles for the people
in groups that had previously been discriminated against so that the
people who had the jobs before the law would not have to feel offended by
the newly entitled persons having the same job. Is there really precedent
for that approach to accommodation? 

(Sorry for the large font, which was apparently contagious. I hadn?t
meant to send it out in that form.)

Ann



Mark Graber [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

Why not treat this as an historical accommodation of religion.
We might imagine the state has three (four?) categories.