>My childhood was spent devouring English books that were published from
>London, New York, Toronto, Sydney and Johannesburg and it took a while for
me
>to start wondering why Delhi did not feature on the list. Even more
puzzling
>was the realization that English speakers in India probably outnumbered
>Australia and Canada put together.

just curious. why weren't there any indian language books in this list?
reading this made me think of my childhood which was spent reading books in
both bengali and english. and quite a lot of popular bengali children's
magazine too.
i remember the first time i visited the calcutta book fair as a kid, the
sheer thrill of seeing and hearing your favourite author in person. and for
me and many of my friends it was nothing unusual to have books from "London
and New York" jostling for space with ones from Dev Sahitya Kutir. i also
remember having big fights with this friend of mine who used to insist that
Tintin reads better in the bengali translation and that "Kuttush" is any day
a more adorable name for a dog than Snowy!

abhishek




On Dec 13, 2007 7:29 PM, shiv sastry < [EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> On Wednesday 12 Dec 2007 9:25 pm, Deepa Mohan wrote:
> > Ironic that English has to be the link language and is yet a sharp
> > divider of the "haves" and "have-nots", whether it is a bank balance
> > or education or access to information that the "haves" have. But I
> > suppose that is true everywhere in the English-speaking world?
>
> Not having English may be a problem everywhere in the Anglosphere but I
> believe India counts as a special variant of "Anglosphere".
>
> My childhood was spent devouring English books that were published from
> London, New York, Toronto, Sydney and Johannesburg and it took a while for
> me
> to start wondering why Delhi did not feature on the list. Even more
> puzzling
> was the realization that English speakers in India probably outnumbered
> Australia and Canada put together.
>
> Even more perplexing to me was the realization that for all the numbers,
> English is spoken by perhaps 5% of Indians.
>
> The history of English in India seems to fit in with the frequently touted
> theory that it all started with Macaulay's minute. Macaulay's minute lays
> out
> the exact arguments for commencing English education in India with the
> idea
> being to create a class of Indian who had British tastes and culture but
> could serve as interpreters to the vast mass of Indians and thus help in
> governance, apart from other lofty ideals.
>
> Macaulay also asked for stopping the funding of education in "Sanscrit"
> and
> Arabic. I quote his exact words because I believe  they are relevant in an
> interesting way today:
>
> "What we spend on the Arabic and Sanscrit colleges is not merely a dead
> loss
> to the cause of truth; it is bounty-money paid to raise up champions of
> error. It goes to form a nest, not merely of helpless place-hunters, but
> of
> bigots prompted alike by passion and by interest to raise a cry against
> every
> useful scheme of education."
>
> I believe the British did succeed in creating an educated class of English
>
> speakers with values that the British wanted to see. Apart from speaking
> English, those values included an appreciation of British style rule of
> law
> and a "religion-neutral" Indian Penal Code was applied to replace the old
> laws (whatever they were)
>
> A lot has been said about what Macaulay allegedly did, but what interests
> me
> is what he did not do, or did not manage to do.
>
> If we assume that 5% of Indians speak English, then Macaulay's language
> did
> not reach 95%. The question is what percentage of this 95% of Indians now
> belong to Macaulay's characterization of people as forming a "nest, not
> merely of helpless place-hunters, but of bigots prompted alike by passion
> and
> by interest to raise a cry against every useful scheme of education"
>
> One can look at Macaulay's viewpoint in two ways:
>
> The less kind method is to see him as a racist ignoramus and that is how
> some
> people do see him.
>
> A kinder view of Macaulay would be to agree that from his viewpoint the
> Hindus
> and Muslims of India really were " bigots prompted alike by passion and by
> interest to raise a cry against every useful scheme of education"
>
> If we remove our love or hate of Macaulay and look at his views in
> dispassionate terms some questions arise. There MUST be a significant
> percentage of Indians who were not touched at all by Macaulay. If we
> search
> for these "untouched by Macaulay" people, can we *really* find among them
> a
> large proportion of Indians who are bigots and who have no real innate
> sense
> of rule of law as per the "imposed" Indian Penal Code and prefer rule
> according to whatever system they had traditionally followed?
>
> An empirical examination of this question suggests that the answer is
> "Yes" (to me)
>
> We know that Muslims of India in general did not like Macaulay's scheme
> and
> tended to stick to Madrassas. So let me declare all Muslims as people
> untouched by Macaulay who are "bigots prompted alike by passion and by
> interest to raise a cry against every useful scheme of education." But
> condemning all Muslims at 15% of the Indian population still does not
> explain
> the behavior and views of the remaining (95%-15%)=80% of Indians
> ostensibly
> untouched by Macaulay.
>
> If my extrapolation is even approximately right, it could also mean that
> the
> vast majority of Hindus in India also fall in the category of " bigots
> prompted alike by passion and by interest to raise a cry against every
> useful
> scheme of education"
>
> The conclusion is this entire goddam country is full of bigots who have no
>
> innate sense of rule of law other than the laws that they had before the
> British came - either sharia or whatever else they held sacred. This
> conclusion makes the minority anglophone Indians, whose apparently "model
> behavior" is assumed to represent the real Indian is merely a coat of
> varnish
> on a rickety termite ridden chair. Even that is if we assume that the coat
> of
> varnish has completely rid itself of the faults of the chair and I am not
> totally sure about that.
>
> There is nobody to study whether disquieting extrapolations such as mine
> are
> correct or not, but much of the behavior of Indians seems to suggest that
> there may be some truth to it. If true, it calls for action to move
> society
> toward rule of law and acceptance of that from all groups. Playing one
> group
> against the other is what I see happening in India, with no effort going
> into
> moving all groups towards the end goal of rule of law and respect for
> individual rights.
>
> But there has to be a widespread  self recognition that India is this way.
> Only sociological studies can prove or disprove a hypothesis such as mine
> and
> those studies do not exist AFAIK. Did someone say where's the research
> data?
>
> shiv
>
>
>
>


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