> > Can anyone think of an example where two unrelated brands share the same > name and category of business in the same geographical area?
Is "the same geographical area" relevant ? Why should a data consumer use a separate datebase to identify the brand of an item ? Suppose I want to find all "Wendy's". Why do I need to know that the one in The Netherlands does not belong to the brand found in the US ? [1] Shouldn't this be part of the OSM data in some way ? regards m [1] https://www.businessinsider.nl/een-zeeuw-noemde-zn-snackbar-wendys-naar-zn-dochter-en-weerstaat-de-gelijknamige-amerikaanse-fastfoodgigant/ _______________________________________________ talk mailing list talk@openstreetmap.org https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk