Am 27.09.2017 um 20:47 schrieb Marc Gemis:
>> Can anyone think of an example where two unrelated brands share the same
>> name and category of business in the same geographical area?
> Is "the same geographical area" relevant ? Why should a data consumer
> use a separate datebase to identify the brand of an item ?
>
> Suppose I want to find all "Wendy's". Why do I need to know that the
> one in The Netherlands does not  belong to the brand found in the US ?
> [1] Shouldn't this be part of the OSM data in some way ?
No?

Both this example and (particularly) the ones given by Mark Wagner,
simply show that there in no way we can expect a "normal" mapper to
choose the right wikidata tag in the first place. It is more correct to
simply record that there is an establishment doing X using brand Y,
because -that- statement of fact isn't wrong.

And yes that probably means that the person querying for "Wendy's" needs
to know that he has to exclude NL, who else?

Simon

PS: particularly brand:wikipedia is rather low use and mainly points to
McDonald's 
> regards
>
> m
>
> [1] 
> https://www.businessinsider.nl/een-zeeuw-noemde-zn-snackbar-wendys-naar-zn-dochter-en-weerstaat-de-gelijknamige-amerikaanse-fastfoodgigant/
>
> _______________________________________________
> talk mailing list
> talk@openstreetmap.org
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