Am 27.09.2017 um 20:47 schrieb Marc Gemis: >> Can anyone think of an example where two unrelated brands share the same >> name and category of business in the same geographical area? > Is "the same geographical area" relevant ? Why should a data consumer > use a separate datebase to identify the brand of an item ? > > Suppose I want to find all "Wendy's". Why do I need to know that the > one in The Netherlands does not belong to the brand found in the US ? > [1] Shouldn't this be part of the OSM data in some way ? No?
Both this example and (particularly) the ones given by Mark Wagner, simply show that there in no way we can expect a "normal" mapper to choose the right wikidata tag in the first place. It is more correct to simply record that there is an establishment doing X using brand Y, because -that- statement of fact isn't wrong. And yes that probably means that the person querying for "Wendy's" needs to know that he has to exclude NL, who else? Simon PS: particularly brand:wikipedia is rather low use and mainly points to McDonald's > regards > > m > > [1] > https://www.businessinsider.nl/een-zeeuw-noemde-zn-snackbar-wendys-naar-zn-dochter-en-weerstaat-de-gelijknamige-amerikaanse-fastfoodgigant/ > > _______________________________________________ > talk mailing list > talk@openstreetmap.org > https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk
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