Nobody is even remotely suggesting that use OpenStreetMap data can be used without attribution (claims that that is the case lead me to believe that some haven't actually read the document in question).
The discussion is solely about the practicalities of where to put the attribution when multiple sources have been used in a map rendering and OSM is not the source of the majority of the data presented. Simon Am 08.09.2019 um 23:48 schrieb stevea: > I don't want to sound overly simplistic, but as a copyright holder, I believe > if ANY amount of my (or "our" in the sense of copyright shared among many > individuals, as are the rights in OSM's ODbL) data-under-license are included > in a derivative work, and I mean ANY non-zero amount, "attribution" (as ODbL > defines attribution) is legally required. > > I believe ODbL agrees with this (there is no mention of "percentages" there), > though I am not an attorney. Why is this so difficult? > > "Any non-zero amount of OSM data yields a legal requirement for proper > attribution." Do I miss something? > > SteveA > <remainder redacted for brevity> > _______________________________________________ > talk mailing list > talk@openstreetmap.org > https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/talk
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