RE: [TruthTalk] What is sin?

[Hughes Jonathan]

Hi Laura,   Let me rephrase some of this.  Torah can be compared to logos in the sense that logos means word (lowercase w meaning scripture).  Torah cannot be compared to Logos in the sense of John 1.1 where Logos means Word (uppercase w meaning a Person).  When you quote a verse from the NT it is the word, not the Word.  Christ does refer to the law and quotes the Torah.  He also came to fulfill it.  These points imply that Torah must be distinct from the Word.  When Christ refers to Torah He is not refering to himself.  When Christ quotes from the Torah He is not quoting Himself.  When Christ fulfills the Torah He is not fulfilling Himself.  The Torah must be kept distinct from the Person of Jesus Christ for this to make any type of logical sense.  Translators of scripture have almost universally translated logos in John 1.1 to mean the Person of Jesus Christ, which is why it is given a captial W (Word).  Their intent was to differentiate between logos and Logos (word and Word, thing and Person).  The apostle John took a word (logos) that was well known to his readers.  He then appropriated it to the Person of Jesus Christ.  This is not 'spiritualizing' words as Judy would have it (that would be gnosticism).  This is a very real earthy thing.  Using the vocabulary of his day John re-molds a word (pun intended) to mean something distinct from the original interpretation.  When things are submitted to Christ they change - even people.   Jonathan Hughes   From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of [EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Wednesday, October 20, 2004 10:15 AM To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] What is sin? In a message dated 10/20/2004 9:04:36 AM Central Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes: We could not rephrase John 1.1 as “In the beginning was Torah, and Torah was with God and Torah was God.”   jt: Why would we want to when scripture clearly says "Word" but as Jeff and Slade both claim Jesus is the Word of God and Torah is The Word of God, so what's the problem?   I don't see a problem with Jesus being the Word, the Torah being the Word or the scripture in it's entirety being the Word.  If I quote a verse from the NT it is also the Word.  After all, the Torah is the first 5 books of the Word or the law or whatever.  Christ referred to the law and quoted the Torah.  I have always called the Torah the law or the Pentateuch (sp?)   I don't discount the OT at all.  Christ came to fulfill the law - doesn't that mean the Pentateuch?  What am I missing here?  Laura This e-mail and any attachments contain confidential and privileged information. If you are not the intended recipient, please notify the sender immediately by return e-mail, delete this e-mail and destroy any copies. Any dissemination or use of this information by a person other than the intended recipient is unauthorized and may be illegal. Thank you for your cooperation in connection with the above. Ce courriel ainsi que tous les documents s’y rattachant contiennent de l’information confidentielle et privilégiée. Si vous n’êtes pas le destinataire visé, s.v.p. en informer immédiatement son expéditeur par retour de courriel, effacer le message et détruire toute copie (électronique ou autre). Toute diffusion ou utilisation de cette information par une personne autre que le destinataire visé est interdite et peut être illégale. Merci de votre coopération relativement au message susmentionné.