opaqueice;179151 Wrote: > That's just obviously false. The fact that there is a measurable > difference and that someone claims to hear something clearly does not > mean you are "done". The set of things that are measurable is not the > same as the set of things that are perceptible. Measuring instruments > are far more sensitive than human perception, at least in some ways. > If you want to establish that the difference is audible, which is > presumably what you care about, you have to do a controlled listening > test - there's no other way. > > I won't respond to the rest of your post until that is dealt with, as > it indicates a basic breakdown in logic.
If I can measure it objectively, it's real. End of story. Whether or not I can hear it is another question, so I do a test. Maybe blind, maybe not. Blinding is not all that interesting when the difference in stimuli can be measured. In fact, if an objectively measurable difference was audible in an unblinded test, and inaudible in a DBT, all it would prove at that point is that DBT is a relatively less sensitive design. -- hirsch ------------------------------------------------------------------------ hirsch's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=7288 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=32352 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
