"Adam C. Lipscomb" wrote:
> You and William are both arguing that the common and authoritative
> definition of a word is wrong. Near as I can tell, NOT ONE SINGLE
> AUTHORITATIVE SOURCE ON WORD USAGE OR ETYMOLOGY has agreed with your
> position. You are in the position of (metaphorcally) arguing that up
> is down.
Er, William posted something from what he called the "other" definitive
British dictionary that backed him up.
Quoting from a post Wednesday evening:
<quote>
>From Chambers 20th Century Dictionary (the /other/ main British
Dictionary)
"Anti-Semite a hater of Semites, esp. Jews, or of their influence. -
adj.
Anti-Semitic. - n.
Semite n. a member of any of the peoples said (Gen. X) to be descended
from
Shem or speaking a Semitic language.
Semitic languages : Assyrian, Aramaic, Hebrew, Phoenician, Arabic,
Ethiopic
etc."
</quote>
Now, all the American sources cited are specific in that it is only
applied to Jews, and the OED (which I consider to be the most
authoritative British dictionary, but I'm not living in Britain to have
any idea as to what the majority of Brits think) is similarly specific,
but there *is* one British dictionary that only *emphasizes* the Jews as
targets of anti-semitism, rather than applying it *exclusively* to them.
I'm guessing you missed this post.
Julia
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