At 08:10 05-10-2002 -0500, Adam Lipscomb wrote:

>When we are discussing meaning of words, it is imperative that we rely
>upon dictionaries, because they are THE sources that tell us HOW A
>WORD IS USED.  If I decide that "blue" ought to mean "green", I can
>with justification be called wrong on that, because the *commonly
>accepted definition* is that "blue" does not mean "green".
>
>You and William are both arguing that the common and authoritative
>definition of a word is wrong.

If you have been paying attention, you will have noticed a shift in my 
position in the course of this debate. For these last few days, I have not 
been arguing that your preferred definition is wrong, I have been arguing 
that my definition is also a valid one.

Are you willing to accept that a certain meaning of a word can be valid, 
even when it is not listed in the OED or the Mirriam-Webster?


>Near as I can tell, NOT ONE SINGLE AUTHORITATIVE SOURCE ON WORD
>USAGE OR ETYMOLOGY has agreed with your position.

According to William, the Chambers 20th Century Dictionary is "the /other/ 
main British dictionary", which implies that it *is* authoritative.

BTW, I noticed you snipped parts of my message that I had expected you to 
reply to. I will therefore repeat them:

The first one...

First you say that my explanation is "incorrect, inane and illogical", and 
then you go on to say that I refuse to give an explanation. How can an 
explanation be "incorrect, inane and illogical" if I never gave an explanation?

...and the second one...

Now, this might be a shocking new concept to some people, but have you ever 
considered the possibility that both interpretations might actually *both* 
be valid? As William pointed out, the fact that a meaning of a word is not 
in a dictionary does not mean that the meaning is not used.

I look forward to reading your answers to these two questions.


Jeroen "And now, back to studying" van Baardwijk

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