> Debussy (in pieces like "Maid with the Flaxon Hair") uses a cadence > that would be F/G (F major in the right hand, G in the bass) to the > tonic in C Major. Is that plagal or authentic? Is the F/G chord a > V11? How would Schenkerian scholars view it? > > Hal
Hey, Hal, I'm not a Schenkerian, but I think, yes, it is a V11. To me, the reason that the IV/V - I cadence is so strong, and so ever-present in pop music of all varieties, is that it is BOTH. The bass (V - I) sounds authentic, which gives a feeling of "naturalness" and strength to the progression, and the harmony (IV - I) sounds plagal, giving that "Amen" of finality with a strong emotional appeal. The sound is lush, with a sort of neo-Romantic quality about it. The earliest instance of that sound (not precisely, but the same basic idea) in classical music that I can remember (other than mere passing tones) is in the Greig "Nocturne", where he goes about four entire measures on a G (bass) - D - F - A - C - E chord, in C major (V13). In fact, in that piece, it is the climactic moment of the whole piece. Eddy Wilson Landmark Church of God Statesville, NC _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale