Dear All,

I am new in this list, so I think I should introduce myself. My name is
Francesco Bellucci, I am Assitant Professor at the University of Bologna in
Italy, and my principal research interest is in Peirce's logic.

Since some of the things which I wrote in my book (*Peirce's Speculative
Grammar*, 2017) have been mentioned in a couple of threads here on Peirce's
notion of immediate object, I would like to offer some further thoughts on
this matter, in the hope to make some progress in the discussion.

One of the bones of contention is whether or not all signs have immediate
objects. I think one argument in favour of the idea that not all signs have
immediate objects is the fact – which has drawn little attention – that in
the classification of signs of the period 1904–1906 (let's postpone
discussion of 1908 for the moment) signs are divided according to their
immediate object into vague, singular, and general. Now, the
vague/singular/general division is, as Peirce sometimes says (Kaina
Stoicheia) and as should be evident to those who know a little bit of the
history of logic, a division of propositions according to their quantity:
Peirce calls "vague" the proposition which traditionally is called
particular (some men is wise), and "general" the proposition which
traditionally is called universal (all men are wise). That the
vague/singular/general division is a propositional division should suggest
that in the phrase "signs divided according to their immediate object
into...", we should take "sign" to mean "proposition". I think there has
been some good posts in this list by Gary F. arguing that sometimes we
should take "sign" to mean "proposition", or "complete sign", or at least
that with "sign" we should sometimes mean what Peirce considered the
"principal variety of signs", i.e. propositions.

Now, if the vague/singular/general division is a propositional division,
then rhemes should not be capable of being divided according to their
immediate objects. If the vague/singular/general division were applicable
to rhemes, then I think we should conclude that "all men" is a rheme (a
"general" rheme). For what does it mean that a trichotomy is applicable to
a genus of signs, if not that that genus of signs has species corresponding
to the members of that trichotomy? Thus I think that the supporters of the
idea that all signs have immediate objects are forced to conclude that "all
men" is a rheme.

But here is an argument why "all men" cannot be a rheme. Peirce defines a
rheme as that which remains of a proposition after something replaceable by
a proper name has been removed from it, where "replacebale" means that when
the replacement has occurred, we have again a proposition. Thus, if "all
men" is a rheme, there must exist a proposition from which it has been
extracted by removing something replaceable by a proper name. Let us
imagine that "all men" has been extracted from the proposition "all men are
mortal" by removing "are mortal". If we replace the removed part with a
proper name, like "Hamlet", this does *not *yield again a proposition: "all
men Hamlet". From this I conclude that "all men" is not a rheme. And since
the only justification I can imagine for calling "all men" a rheme is that
this would allow us to extend the vague/singular/general distinction to
*all* signs, I conclude that this extension is unjustified.

Let me also ask a question about the following observation made by Jon:

"a Sign denotes its Dynamic Object (Matter/2ns), signifies some of that
Object's characters/qualities (Form/1ns)--which, taken together, constitute
its Immediate Object--and determines its Interpretants to represent the
unity of Matter and Form (Entelechy/3ns)"

If the Object's characters taken together constitute the Immediate Object
of the Sign, what does it mean that such Immediate Object can be vague,
singular, or general? Let's suppose the Sign mentioned here is the
proposition "Halmet is mad". According to Jon, the Sign denotes the Dynamic
Object (arguably, Hamlet), and signifies one of the Object's characters
(arguably, his madness). Is this character vague, general, or singular? Can
you provide examples of three propositions (which, arguably, are Signs) in
one of which the character/Immediate Object is vague, in another is
general, and in the third is singular? And can you provide an example of a
proposition in which the characters signified are, taken together, singular?

Best,
Francesco
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