As I've said earlier, I'm sympathetic to Richard's argument  inasmuch as 
confession is in fact part of a complex (required) sacramental process.  But 
the point is that (I think) that's relatively unusual, certainly not present, 
so far as I am aware, in Judaism, for example.  Am I correct in believing that 
the ingestion of peyote was in fact a sacramental aspect of the Native American 
church?

sandy

From: religionlaw-bounces+slevinson=law.utexas....@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-bounces+slevinson=law.utexas....@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf 
Of Richard Dougherty
Sent: Friday, December 06, 2013 6:09 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The clergy-penitent privilege and burdens on third parties

I will confess to not having read the state cases, or at least not most of 
them.  But isn't the question whether the privilege is constitutionally 
required?  (Perhaps the fact that it is referred to as a privilege muddies the 
waters.)  If free exercise of religion includes receiving a sacrament, then why 
is compelling violation of the privilege not a constitutional issue?  Indeed, I 
wonder why a recent discussion suggested stronger free speech claims than free 
exercise claims; does the First Amendment make that distinction?  I have no 
doubt courts have read it that way, but that's partly why we get distortions of 
free exercise claims masquerading as free speech claims.

Richard Dougherty
University of Dallas

On Fri, Dec 6, 2013 at 1:17 PM, <hamilto...@aol.com<mailto:hamilto...@aol.com>> 
wrote:
With all due respect to this entire thread, how many people have actually read 
the state cases involving the priest-penitent privilege?  There is a level of 
abstraction
to this discussion that indicates to me probably not.  As someone who has 
actively been involved in arguing the issue in court in the last year, I'd 
suggest that the law is
more reticulated and specific. state-by-state, than the speculation going on 
here.  It is state law, which means 50 states plus DC law, and it is a 
privilege that is not constitutionally required,
particularly when the issue is whether the religious confessor or confessee 
engaged in illegal behavior.


Marci A. Hamilton
Paul R. Verkuil Chair in Public Law
Benjamin N. Cardozo School of Law
Yeshiva University
55 Fifth Avenue
New York, NY 10003
(212) 790-0215
http://sol-reform.com<http://sol-reform.com/>
[http://sol-reform.com/fb.png]<https://www.facebook.com/professormarciahamilton?fref=ts>
   [http://www.sol-reform.com/tw.png] <https://twitter.com/marci_hamilton>
-----Original Message-----
From: Christopher Lund <l...@wayne.edu<mailto:l...@wayne.edu>>
To: 'Law & Religion issues for Law Academics' 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Sent: Fri, Dec 6, 2013 10:06 am
Subject: RE: The clergy-penitent privilege and burdens on third parties
Again, I'm late-sorry about that.  But honestly people, it's shocking how many 
posts are written between the hours of 9 p.m. and 7 a.m.  Who can keep up?

So this may backtrack, but I've been thinking about the earlier posts in this 
thread.  Say there are no secular analogies to the priest-penitent privilege.  
Does that, in itself, justify the conclusion that it is favoritism for religion?

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