You are misunderstanding me.  I'm not saying saying that there ar e true 
religious objections and false religious objections.  I'm saying that, just as 
there is speech that is protected as free speech and there is speech that is 
not protected, there are religious objections that are (or once were) protected 
and there are religious objections that are not protected (think human 
sacrifice as an extreme example that I think we would all agree is not and 
never has been protected).  The Sherbert rule was useful in distinguishing 
between them.  After Employment Division v Smith dispensed with the Sherbert 
rule and any meaningful free exercise protection, we wind up in a situations 
such as where we have no idea what the Court will consider protected and what 
it will not.  Transforming a guarantee of free exercise into a mere 
anti-discrimination law undermines the very principle of religious freedom.  
Instead, any time anyone says that a certain law, neutral on its face, places a 
significant burden on their free exercise, it can (and often is) dismissed with 
"People supported slavery and opposed interracial marriage the same way."  
That's not free exercise under any definition that has any meaning.

 

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of James Oleske
Sent: Sunday, February 15, 2015 6:20 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The racist prostitute hypothetical

 

Sorry -- I hit "send" accidentally before finishing my message below. Here's 
the omitted paragraph:

What is clear from comparing the Court's free speech and free exercise 
doctrines is that government can regulate "false" speech (with limits); it 
cannot regulate "false" religious beliefs. As a result, Brad's effort to 
distinguish between what he believes to be a "true" religious objection to 
same-sex marriage and a "false" religious objection to interracial marriage is 
a non-starter under Supreme Court doctrine.

Does anyone other than Brad disagree with this?



On Sun, Feb 15, 2015 at 4:09 PM, James Oleske <jole...@lclark.edu> wrote:

Brad writes of free speech doctrine:

"[T]he court isn't determining if a person's words are mistaken . . . when they 
say that free speech doesn't cover slander or libel.

we have long held that actual malice requires material falsity

Air Wisconsin Airlines Corp. v. Hoeper, 134 S. Ct. 852, 861, 187 L. Ed. 2d 744 
reh'g denied, 134 S. Ct. 1575, 188 L. Ed. 2d 582 (2014)




 

 

On Sun, Feb 15, 2015 at 3:37 PM, Brad Pardee <bp51...@windstream.net> wrote:

It's not about the Court saying that beliefs are mistaken, insubstantial, 
plausible, logical, or comprehensible.  It's about the Court determining what 
is covered by the free exercise clause and what is not.  Again, to parallel the 
free speech guarantees, the court isn't determining if a person's words are 
mistaken, insubstantial, plausible, logical, or comprehensible when they say 
that free speech doesn't cover slander or libel.  

 

That was the value of the Sherbert test because it established a way to 
determine what exercise of religion is protected and what exercise of religion 
is not, without making a determination on the merits of of the religious 
beliefs that are the basis of the exercise in question.  In my opinion, the 
reason why I think Employment Division v Smith ranks right up with Dred Scott v 
Sandford among the worst decisions the Supreme Court has ever issued.

 

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of James Oleske
Sent: Saturday, February 14, 2015 10:25 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The racist prostitute hypothetical

 

Brad writes:

"[T]he fact that people have wrongly tried [to] make religious freedom claims 
doesn't mean we disregard all religious freedom claims.  We ought to be able to 
distinguish between the two."

 

Although Brad thinks the law "ought" to be able to distinguish between "wrong" 
and "correct" religious freedom claims, we can all agree that this view is 
flatly inconsistent with Supreme Court precedent, correct?


"[I]t is not for us to say that their religious beliefs are mistaken or 
insubstantial. Instead, our 'narrow function . . . in this context is to 
determine' whether the line drawn reflects 'an honest conviction.' 

"Repeatedly and in many different contexts, we have warned that courts must not 
presume to determine . . . the plausibility of a religious claim."

"[R]eligious beliefs need not be acceptable, logical, consistent, or 
comprehensible to others in order to merit First Amendment protection"

- Jim

On Sat, Feb 14, 2015 at 8:03 PM, Brad Pardee <bp51...@windstream.net> wrote:

I'ts not an all or nothing.  The fact that the freedom of speech does not 
protect slander and libel doesn't mean we disregard every other freedom of 
speech claim.  We are able to distinguish between the two.  Similarly, the fact 
that people have wrongly tried make religious freedom claims doesn't mean we 
disregard all religious freedom claims.  We ought to be able to distinguish 
between the two.  The difference between same sex relationships and interracial 
relationships seems like one of those distinctions.  The difference between 
people of different races is not the same between the difference between 
genders.  That's why, for instance, the Negro Leagues in baseball have gone by 
the wayside and yet nobody is saying that the players of the WNBA should just 
try to make the teams in the NBA.

 

From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Hillel Y. Levin
Sent: Saturday, February 14, 2015 8:48 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: The racist prostitute hypothetical

 

Brad:

 

The distinction you see between same-sex relationships and interracial 
relationships makes sense to you. It surely does not make sense to someone who 
opposes interracial marriages on religious grounds.

 


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