Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:17 AM, Jason Resch  wrote:

>
>
> Do you think a computer can be conscious?
>
> If yes, then do you think the experience of the consciousness within the
> computer would be different if the computer existed in a block-time
> universes instead of a moving-present universe?  If so, how/what would
> cause the states of the evolving computer program to take a different
> course in the block universe vs. the moving present universe?  If you see
> no reason the computations should diverge, then you must agree the states
> reached by the computer program are the same, and since they are the same
> the conscious program could not behave any differently.  This includes any
> realization that it is in a block-time vs. a moving-present universe.
>
>

Edgar,

I am particularly curious to hear what you think of the above reasoning. It
seems that it applies to your theory which I believe at some level holds
that  the right computations can produce consciousness.

Thanks,

Jason

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
...or am I???

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 16:20, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 6:09 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 31 December 2013 07:44, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>   On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:
>>
>>  On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King > > wrote:
>>
>>>  Dear Bruno,
>>>
>>>Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of 
>>> computer/universal-numbers
>>> and physical realities? That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
>>>I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view
>>> that the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status
>>> and the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and
>>> its measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!
>>>
>>>  The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as
>> fundamental gets you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a
>> "shut up and calculate" (or shut up and pray) ontology.
>>
>>  With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it,
>> maybe there *is *just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended
>> life forms like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute
>> facts!
>>
>>
>>  But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory
>> that can explain anything fails to explain at all.
>>
>>  It can't explain *anything*. It just says that all outcomes of the laws
> of physics are instantiated. This requires less information than saying
> that a specific outcome of the LOP is instantiated, assuming the LOP allow
> more than one outcome.
>
>  But I feel that you must already know this. Are you just being Devil's
> Advocate, or do you honestly not see the usefulness of multiverse theories?
>
>
> Stephen isn't talking about a multiverse as implied by physics, he's
> talking about an immaterialist theory, a "timeless Platonic totality",
> which I can only suppose consists of everything not self-contradictory or
> some such.
>

Sorry. I was replying to this:

   I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view that
the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status

If I'm in the wrong discussion I will bow out.

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Re: Something everyone should see :-)

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
Thanks for that Liz, very beautiful.

Jason


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 9:54 PM, LizR  wrote:

> http://apod.nasa.gov/apod/ap131229.html
>
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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 7:44 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:

Dear Brent,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 10:20 PM, meekerdb > wrote:


On 12/30/2013 6:09 PM, LizR wrote:

On 31 December 2013 07:44, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:

On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King mailto:stephe...@provensecure.com>> wrote:

Dear Bruno,

Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category
ofcomputer/universal-numbers and physical realities? That way we 
can avoid
a lot of problems!
 I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view 
that
the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status 
and
the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change 
(and
its measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this 
presumption!

The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as 
fundamental gets
you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a "shut up and 
calculate"
(or shut up and pray) ontology.

With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it, 
maybe
there /is /just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended life 
forms
like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute facts!


But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory 
that can
explain anything fails to explain at all.

It can't explain /anything/. It just says that all outcomes of the laws of 
physics
are instantiated. This requires less information than saying that a specific
outcome of the LOP is instantiated, assuming the LOP allow more than one 
outcome.

But I feel that you must already know this. Are you just being Devil's 
Advocate, or
do you honestly not see the usefulness of multiverse theories?


Stephen isn't talking about a multiverse as implied by physics, he's 
talking about
an immaterialist theory, a "timeless Platonic totality", which I can only 
suppose
consists of everything not self-contradictory or some such.


Geee, it is that hard for you to parse what I right and make sense of it? How many times 
have I claimed that both materialism and immaterialism have severe problems and that I 
reject them. Sheesh, learn to read.


Sorry, my mistake.

Brent

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Brent,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 10:20 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 6:09 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 31 December 2013 07:44, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>   On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:
>>
>>  On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King > > wrote:
>>
>>>  Dear Bruno,
>>>
>>>Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of 
>>> computer/universal-numbers
>>> and physical realities? That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
>>>I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view
>>> that the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status
>>> and the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and
>>> its measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!
>>>
>>>  The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as
>> fundamental gets you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a
>> "shut up and calculate" (or shut up and pray) ontology.
>>
>>  With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it,
>> maybe there *is *just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended
>> life forms like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute
>> facts!
>>
>>
>>  But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory
>> that can explain anything fails to explain at all.
>>
>>  It can't explain *anything*. It just says that all outcomes of the laws
> of physics are instantiated. This requires less information than saying
> that a specific outcome of the LOP is instantiated, assuming the LOP allow
> more than one outcome.
>
>  But I feel that you must already know this. Are you just being Devil's
> Advocate, or do you honestly not see the usefulness of multiverse theories?
>
>
> Stephen isn't talking about a multiverse as implied by physics, he's
> talking about an immaterialist theory, a "timeless Platonic totality",
> which I can only suppose consists of everything not self-contradictory or
> some such.
>
>
Geee, it is that hard for you to parse what I right and make sense of it?
How many times have I claimed that both materialism and immaterialism have
severe problems and that I reject them. Sheesh, learn to read.



> Brent
>
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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 6:09 PM, LizR wrote:
On 31 December 2013 07:44, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> 
wrote:


On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:

On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King mailto:stephe...@provensecure.com>> wrote:

Dear Bruno,

  Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category
ofcomputer/universal-numbers and physical realities? That way we can 
avoid a
lot of problems!
   I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view 
that the
material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status and the
assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and its
measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!

The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as fundamental 
gets you
no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a "shut up and calculate" 
(or shut
up and pray) ontology.

With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it, 
maybe there
/is /just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended life forms like 
to look
for explanations even beneath the apparent brute facts!


But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory that 
can
explain anything fails to explain at all.

It can't explain /anything/. It just says that all outcomes of the laws of physics are 
instantiated. This requires less information than saying that a specific outcome of the 
LOP is instantiated, assuming the LOP allow more than one outcome.


But I feel that you must already know this. Are you just being Devil's Advocate, or do 
you honestly not see the usefulness of multiverse theories?


Stephen isn't talking about a multiverse as implied by physics, he's talking about an 
immaterialist theory, a "timeless Platonic totality", which I can only suppose consists of 
everything not self-contradictory or some such.


Brent

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RE: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Chris de Morsella
 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of LizR
Sent: Monday, December 30, 2013 6:19 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

 

On 31 December 2013 09:43, Stephen Paul King 
wrote:

Dear LizR and Brent,

 

  I will try to go at this from a different direction. What exactly does
"fundamental level" mean? Does there have to be "something fundamental"?
Consider Leibniz' monadology: strip it of the anthropocentrism and
religiosity and one obtains a nice "any one thing is made from combinations
of other things" concept that has no need for something fundamental. 

 

>> Obviously there doesn't HAVE to be "something fundamental"*. Lots of
religions, for example, posit two almost-fundamental things - Yin and Yang,
God and the Devil, the dark and light sides of the Force, and so on.
However, physical theories have been extremely successful at using
reductionism, which tends to lead one, ultimately, towards there being
something fundamental. All the unifications - electricity and magnetism,
mass and energy, space and time, the four forces merging into one - all
indicate an explanatory arrow in which two or more things turning out to be
aspects of one simpler thing. Continue this long enough, and you should
eventually hit the last turtle.

 

True, but often these dualities, are presented as aspects of something more
fundamental, which is made manifest for example in one of the examples you
provided "the dark and light sides of the Force", yin/yang are also
inextricably linked. Yin or yang can make no sense unless understood in
terms of and in relation to the other. Duality crops up over and over in
many traditions; however often if you look, even in those traditions you
cited they also allude to a deeper whole (different myths/stories of course
- the Abrahamic god for example said to have cast the devil out from heaven
- whatever works I guess, but in any case even in the Abrahamic case the
dualism is underlain by a more fundamental singularity.. i.e. the omniscient
all creating God - again in the monotheist tradition -- (who when seen in
this light is the ultimate source of all that is evil in the universe. as I
love pointing out to unlucky evangelicals who come knocking on my door to
give me the good news and to save my sinning soul)

 

* (By the way, I'd feel happier replying if you'd miss out all the
unnecessary quote marks. It looks like you're trying to hedge against being
pinned down into actually taking a viewpoint when everything under
discussion has to be "quoted" for no obvious reason...)

 

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Hi LizR,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 9:53 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 15:37, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>>
>> Why is this necessary? Sure, physics has come a long way since Democritus
>> and his Atoms in a void. But we have reached a point where that way of
>> thinking fails. Look at Superstrings, no empirical evidence of anything
>> measurable there... Time for a new vision?
>>
>
> Well, perhaps. No one is saying you have to have something fundamental,
> but if you don't you need a good explanation of why not!
>

The reason is: It is not necessary! That simple. We do not need to assume
monotonicity of compositions, we just need some form of associativity and
unity for closure under compositions.



>
>>> * (By the way, I'd feel happier replying if you'd miss out all the
>>> unnecessary quote marks. It looks like you're trying to hedge against being
>>> pinned down into actually taking a viewpoint when everything under
>>> discussion has to be "quoted" for no obvious reason...)
>>>
>>
>> No, I don't mind being pinned down. I just often have to use words in a
>> metaphorical and not literal way.
>>
>
> Right, but when you say "fundamental level", if you don't actually mean it
> literally then we're talking about different things. It isn't a metaphor,
> as far as I know it has a rigorous definition - the thing(s) that have to
> be assumed in a theory.
>

Ontology. Grundlagen. "what it is all made out of", etc. Not a metaphor!

>
>
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Something everyone should see :-)

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
http://apod.nasa.gov/apod/ap131229.html

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 15:37, Stephen Paul King wrote:

>
> Why is this necessary? Sure, physics has come a long way since Democritus
> and his Atoms in a void. But we have reached a point where that way of
> thinking fails. Look at Superstrings, no empirical evidence of anything
> measurable there... Time for a new vision?
>

Well, perhaps. No one is saying you have to have something fundamental, but
if you don't you need a good explanation of why not!

>
>> * (By the way, I'd feel happier replying if you'd miss out all the
>> unnecessary quote marks. It looks like you're trying to hedge against being
>> pinned down into actually taking a viewpoint when everything under
>> discussion has to be "quoted" for no obvious reason...)
>>
>
> No, I don't mind being pinned down. I just often have to use words in a
> metaphorical and not literal way.
>

Right, but when you say "fundamental level", if you don't actually mean it
literally then we're talking about different things. It isn't a metaphor,
as far as I know it has a rigorous definition - the thing(s) that have to
be assumed in a theory.

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Hi LizR,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 9:19 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 09:43, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>> Dear LizR and Brent,
>>
>>   I will try to go at this from a different direction. What exactly does
>> "fundamental level" mean? Does there have to be "something fundamental"?
>> Consider Leibniz' monadology: strip it of the anthropocentrism and
>> religiosity and one obtains a nice "any one thing is made from combinations
>> of other things" concept that has no need for something fundamental.
>>
>
> Obviously there doesn't HAVE to be "something fundamental"*. Lots of
> religions, for example, posit two almost-fundamental things - Yin and Yang,
> God and the Devil, the dark and light sides of the Force, and so on.
> However, physical theories have been extremely successful at using
> reductionism, which tends to lead one, ultimately, towards there being
> something fundamental. All the unifications - electricity and magnetism,
> mass and energy, space and time, the four forces merging into one - all
> indicate an explanatory arrow in which two or more things turning out to be
> aspects of one simpler thing. Continue this long enough, and you should
> eventually hit the last turtle.
>

Why is this necessary? Sure, physics has come a long way since Democritus
and his Atoms in a void. But we have reached a point where that way of
thinking fails. Look at Superstrings, no empirical evidence of anything
measurable there... Time for a new vision?



>
> * (By the way, I'd feel happier replying if you'd miss out all the
> unnecessary quote marks. It looks like you're trying to hedge against being
> pinned down into actually taking a viewpoint when everything under
> discussion has to be "quoted" for no obvious reason...)
>

No, I don't mind being pinned down. I just often have to use words in a
metaphorical and not literal way.



>
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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 09:43, Stephen Paul King wrote:

> Dear LizR and Brent,
>
>   I will try to go at this from a different direction. What exactly does
> "fundamental level" mean? Does there have to be "something fundamental"?
> Consider Leibniz' monadology: strip it of the anthropocentrism and
> religiosity and one obtains a nice "any one thing is made from combinations
> of other things" concept that has no need for something fundamental.
>

Obviously there doesn't HAVE to be "something fundamental"*. Lots of
religions, for example, posit two almost-fundamental things - Yin and Yang,
God and the Devil, the dark and light sides of the Force, and so on.
However, physical theories have been extremely successful at using
reductionism, which tends to lead one, ultimately, towards there being
something fundamental. All the unifications - electricity and magnetism,
mass and energy, space and time, the four forces merging into one - all
indicate an explanatory arrow in which two or more things turning out to be
aspects of one simpler thing. Continue this long enough, and you should
eventually hit the last turtle.

* (By the way, I'd feel happier replying if you'd miss out all the
unnecessary quote marks. It looks like you're trying to hedge against being
pinned down into actually taking a viewpoint when everything under
discussion has to be "quoted" for no obvious reason...)

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 07:44, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>>  Dear Bruno,
>>
>>Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of 
>> computer/universal-numbers
>> and physical realities? That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
>>I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view
>> that the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status
>> and the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and
>> its measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!
>>
>>  The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as
> fundamental gets you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a
> "shut up and calculate" (or shut up and pray) ontology.
>
>  With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it,
> maybe there *is *just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended
> life forms like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute
> facts!
>
>
> But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory
> that can explain anything fails to explain at all.
>
> It can't explain *anything*. It just says that all outcomes of the laws
of physics are instantiated. This requires less information than saying
that a specific outcome of the LOP is instantiated, assuming the LOP allow
more than one outcome.

But I feel that you must already know this. Are you just being Devil's
Advocate, or do you honestly not see the usefulness of multiverse theories?

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Pierz


On Tuesday, December 31, 2013 7:40:02 AM UTC+11, Liz R wrote:
>
> On 31 December 2013 00:00, Pierz > wrote:
>
>> I have to admit I'm starting to derive a weird kind of enjoyment from 
>> this debate. Liz and frequentflyer: you guys are my heroes. Though 
>> "anodyne" means "pain-relieving", which is not how I would describe Roger's 
>> theories. I would choose the word "jejune" instead. 
>>
>
> Thank you :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)  
>
> (Although like any good writer, I only come here to avoid having to work 
> on my novel... :-(
>

Me too Liz!
 

>
>> Edgar, ole buddy ole pal. You're wrong mate. Has some tiny skerrick of 
>> the possibility of this osmosed through the blood-brain barrier yet? Take 
>> your long "proof" of the common present moment. Once again the flaw is 
>> clear to everyone but you. You describe a graph with lines describing the 
>> two separated travellers. Now you draw a vertical line from one to the 
>> other and thus "prove" they share the same moment at all times. The problem 
>> is your privileging of the vertical line - ie the one orthogonal to 
>> traveller 'a'. There are many lines that could be used to connect the two 
>> travellers' moments from other frames of reference. There is no single 
>> "vertical" line that can be privileged above others. 
>>
>> Sure, when two people shake hands they share a common moment so to speak, 
>> because the event is a single point in space time. The problem is proving 
>> simultaneity while the observers are apart.
>>
>> I'm going to give you a challenge here. Take two spatially separated 
>> events. How do you know if these two events occur at the same time (ie, in 
>> the same common present moment)? I presume you think they either shared a 
>> CPM or didn't, that the universal line of time either passed through the 
>> two events together or in sequence. Please show how you will prove one or 
>> the other. If you can suggest an experiment to prove this, I'll give you 
>> $100. If your experiment involves clocks, however, well we know that 
>> simultaneity will be relative to inertial frame of reference, so that won't 
>> do.
>>
>> Brent, you seem to be both highly knowledgeable on physics and relativity 
>> and impartial on the subject of Edgar, so you can decide if he has met the 
>> challenge. i.e., if you say cough up, I cough up. Hope you don't mind the 
>> burden of responsibility!
>>
>> BUT, if I don't have to cough up, then I submit that it is established 
>> that we only share a unique common present moment at exact points of 
>> coincidence in space-time, e.g., the handshake, and that your theory is 
>> worthless for all practical purposes (and therefore wrong).
>>
>
> I will throw in a bottle of wine if my other half hasn't polished off the 
> 16 I got him for Xmas before then (OK, technically it was a present from 
> work, but he's the main wine drinker, so it saved a lot of thought 
> about socks!)
>
>>  
>>
>  
>

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jesse Mazer
Even if this connection between entanglement and wormholes holds up, I
don't think it automatically means quantum physics is nonlocal and we must
discard the many-worlds claim to preserve locality. Keep in mind that in
general relativity nothing can actually pass from one end of an
Einstein-Rosen bridge to the other, everything that falls in is annihilated
in the central singularity, though things falling in from either side can
meet in the interior region before they hit the singularity (to get a
"traversable" wormhole that actually can be crossed, you need exotic matter
to hold it open). But apparently the authors of the paper you cite are
suggesting a connection between entanglement and the idea known as "black
hole complementarity" which says that two seemingly contradictory claims
about what happens to information falling into the black hole (one which
says that anything approaching the horizon is destroyed by intense heat and
converted to thermal radiation, and another which says it passes smoothly
into the interior region) can both be correct from the perspectives of
different observers inside and outside the horizon who can never
communicate (see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hole_complementarity). There's a
discussion of the connection at
http://quantumfrontiers.com/2013/06/07/entanglement-wormholes/ which I
don't understand very well, but it does say both "That wormholes are not
traversable is important for the consistency of ER = EPR: just as Alice
cannot use their shared entanglement to send a message to Bob
instantaneously, so she is unable to send Bob a message through their
shared wormhole" and also "The ER = EPR conjecture seems to allow us to
view the early radiation with which the black hole is entangled as a
complementary description of the black hole interior."

Jesse


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 7:10 PM, Richard Ruquist  wrote:

>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:34 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:
>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:00 PM, John Clark  wrote:
>>
>>> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:52 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>>
>>>  >> That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know
> for a fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from
> experiment that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that 
> locality
> or realism or both MUST be wrong.
>

 > Or measurements are multi-valued.  MWI has both locality and realism.

>>>
>>> If the many World's Theory was local AND realistic we'd know with
>>> certainty that it's wrong because any theory that is consistent with
>>> experimental results can NOT be both.
>>>
>>
>> There are at least two possible answers to the bell inequalities:
>> 1. Nonlocal influences
>> 2. Mutliple outcomes for each measurement
>>
>
> It appears that string theory (quantum gravity) is chosing 1. The claim of
> Maldacens and Susskind is that EPR
> happens because of tunneling or Einstein Rosen ER bridges resulting in the
> (bumper sticker or T shirt) ER=EPR.
> Ref: http://arxiv.org/pdf/1306.0533v2.pdf
>
>>
>> If you choose 2, then you don't need 1. You can have multiple outcomes
>> for a measurement and realism. You just can't have only one definite real
>> value, without FTL influences.
>>
>>
>>>  But MWI could be true because although it is realistic it is not local.
>>>
>>
>> It is local, all QM effects under MW propagate at c or slower.  See the
>> "many worlds FAQ" or the wikipedia table comparing various interpretations.
>>
>>
>>> A entire parallel universe as big as our own that you can never go to or
>>> even see is about as far from being local as you can get.
>>>
>>
>> Locality has a specific definition in physics, that things are only
>> affected by other things (fields or particles) in direct proximity to each
>> other. It says nothing about the existence of places we can or can't go to.
>>
>> Jason
>>
>>
>>>
>>>   John K Clark
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> --
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>>> Groups "Everything List" group.
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>>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
...yrtemmys emit rO

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:34 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:

>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:00 PM, John Clark  wrote:
>
>> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:52 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>
>> >> That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for
 a fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
 that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
 or both MUST be wrong.

>>>
>>> > Or measurements are multi-valued.  MWI has both locality and realism.
>>>
>>
>> If the many World's Theory was local AND realistic we'd know with
>> certainty that it's wrong because any theory that is consistent with
>> experimental results can NOT be both.
>>
>
> There are at least two possible answers to the bell inequalities:
> 1. Nonlocal influences
> 2. Mutliple outcomes for each measurement
>

It appears that string theory (quantum gravity) is chosing 1. The claim of
Maldacens and Susskind is that EPR
happens because of tunneling or Einstein Rosen ER bridges resulting in the
(bumper sticker or T shirt) ER=EPR.
Ref: http://arxiv.org/pdf/1306.0533v2.pdf

>
> If you choose 2, then you don't need 1. You can have multiple outcomes for
> a measurement and realism. You just can't have only one definite real
> value, without FTL influences.
>
>
>>  But MWI could be true because although it is realistic it is not local.
>>
>
> It is local, all QM effects under MW propagate at c or slower.  See the
> "many worlds FAQ" or the wikipedia table comparing various interpretations.
>
>
>> A entire parallel universe as big as our own that you can never go to or
>> even see is about as far from being local as you can get.
>>
>
> Locality has a specific definition in physics, that things are only
> affected by other things (fields or particles) in direct proximity to each
> other. It says nothing about the existence of places we can or can't go to.
>
> Jason
>
>
>>
>>   John K Clark
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> --
>> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
>> "Everything List" group.
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>> email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 00:24, Bruno Marchal  wrote:

>
>
> For immaterial Newtonian-like point. If not we can't hardly breath. Our
> bodies do have volume. OK?
>
> This reminds me of one of the stories in Italo Calvino's "Cosmicomics" -
it starts in the Big Bang. "There were 27 of us living in the singularity.
It was quite crowded..."

OK that isn't verbatim it's a long time since I read it!

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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread Telmo Menezes
Hi John,

> as a former ed-in-chief of a science magazine (Ion Exchange and Membranes) I
> know the difficulties one can run into if trying to get peer-review approval
> on "NEW" ideas that do not fit into the conventional scientific fabric of
> college courses. I was a risk-taker and provided space for several new ideas
> that made sens - to me. ('Let the readership decide and debate').

It's interesting to read this. I agree that the current model of
peer-review leads to too much conservatism, and "me-too" papers are
much more likely to get approved than the ones with novel ideas. On
the other hand, there's only so much time to keep up with the
literature, so some amount of filtering is required.

Maybe the internet will eventually allow for better models, but then I
fear that it will turn into another form of a popularity contest.
Collective moderation tends to reward sensationalism and form over
substance

> Sometimes new ideas (versions?) do not fit into the 'reductionistic'
> conventional stuff of the Rosenesque MODEL content, limited to the already
> known inventory of science etc.

I love to read the negative reviews that famous computer science
papers received:
http://www.fang.ece.ufl.edu/reject.html

Since we've been talking about Turing:
"On Computable Numbers, with an Application to the Entscheidungs
Problem." This is a bizarre paper. It begins by defining a computing
device absolutely unlike anything I have seen, then proceeds to show—I
haven't quite followed the needlessly complicated formalism—that there
are numbers that it can't compute. As I see it, there are two
alternatives that apply to any machine that will ever be built: Either
these numbers are too big to be represented in the machine, in which
case the conclusion is obvious, or they are not; in that case, a
machine that can't compute them is simply broken!
Any tabulating machine worth its rent can compute all the values in
the range it represents, and any number computable by a function—that
is, by applying the four operations a number of times—can be computed
by any modern tabulating machine since these machines—unlike the one
proposed here with its bizarre mechanism——have the four operations
hardwired. It seems that the "improvement" proposed by Turing is not
an improvement over current technology at all, and I strongly suspect
the machine is too simple to be of any use.
If the article is accepted, Turing should remember that the language
of this journal is English and change the title accordingly."

I'm sure there are equivalents in every field.

> While it does not support the 'new' ideas, it does not prove them wrong by
> itself, either.
>
> I submitted a paper once with some 'mild' novelty (J. of Consciousness Sci)
> and an irate (conservative) reviewer called me a
> "homespun fireside philosopher" - an ornamental epitheton I value highly
> ever since.

Would you share that paper with us?

Cheers
Telmo.

> John Mikes
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:35 PM, LizR  wrote:
>>
>> Edgar,
>>
>> Have you written any peer-reviewed papers on your ideas? Most scientific
>> popularisations are written to explain a theory that has been worked out
>> mathematically (like David Deutsch's "Fabric Of Reality") or which are the
>> product of long (and intense) discussions amongst scientists and
>> philosophers working in the relevant fields(s), which have often involved
>> substantial modification to the original ideas (like, I imagine, Russell
>> Standish's "Theory Of Nothing"). Or most likely both, in a lot of cases.
>>
>> Only fictional works tend to be written entirely from the author's
>> imagination, without much in the way of feedback (I say "much" because
>> having done this myself I know that it's very hard not to solicit feedback,
>> and not to act on it to some extent. But I always try to bear in mind this
>> advice from Neil Gaiman: "Remember: when people tell you something's wrong
>> or doesn't work for them, they are almost always right. When they tell you
>> exactly what they think is wrong and how to fix it, they are almost always
>> wrong.").
>>
>> I hesitate to guess which of the above categories your magnum opus might
>> fall into.
>>
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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 11:19, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:

> Liz,
>
> You claim my theory of time is Newtonian but that just demonstrates your
> complete lack of understanding of the theory...
>

It's just the simplest way to describe it. A common present moment is
exactly how Newton envsiaged time.

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The Simplest Complete Model of Everything

2013-12-30 Thread Craig Weinberg


Law (-∞) :: Presence +∞
Logic (-3)  :: Imagination +3
Matter (-2) :: Mind +2
Energy (-1) :: Impulse +1
Information (-0) :: Entropy +0


(More complicated version: 
http://multisenserealism.com/thesis/8-matter-energy/schemas-and-frames/colorball-diagram-explained/)

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 5:32 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 2:20 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:45 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>  On 12/30/2013 1:29 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:57 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>>
>>>   On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>>>
  On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>  But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
> quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N
> qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only
> retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it
> doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.
>
>
>
>  OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
> depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
> results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
> computations have to occur in *some* sense.
>
>
>  But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot
> exist in whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and
> therefore there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number 
> of
> bits.  What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those
> interference terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs
> to N bit outputs.
>

  Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the
 real question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least
 many minds).


  Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies
 that a classical computer can support consciousness.

>>>
>>>  Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the
>>> computations that support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious
>>> states, and first person views.
>>>
>>>
>>>  Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.
>>>
>>>
>>  No, I am trying to show that given computationalism, there is nothing
>> "fictional" about these computations. They would have very bit the same
>> power to yield consciousness as the computations of a classical computer.
>>  Do you disagree with this?
>>
>>
>>  I'm not sure what you mean by "power";
>>
>
>  "ability"
>
>
>>  whether it means effectively or potentially?  I don't think
>> consciousness (at least like ours) can occur except in the context of a
>> quasi-classical world.
>>
>
>  Each of the myriad of computations executed in the quantum computer can
> be seen as separate classical computations. I agree classical computation
> is what is behind consciousness, so if quantum computation is the
> superposition of many classical computations,
>
>
> But that's a very questionable assumption.  If it were literally true then
> N qubits could do as much a 2^N classical computers, but they can't.
>

It's not questionable, because it is explained by many-worlds.  When you
measure any of the particles, you get entangled and see only one of its
states (not all the states the particle really carries).


>   The "quantum computations" are not just classical computations being
> done in parallel because they have to interfere to produce an answer.
>

Yes, but I am starting to think you believe quantum computations are more
than mere "fictions", since you keep avoiding the question of whether or
not multiple conscious states might be supported by a quantum computation.

Jason


>
> Brent
>
>
>   and if these classical computations instantiate minds, then the
> emulation of a mind on a quantum computer gives you many different
> conscious states existing at once.
>
>  Our own classical world, is based on the quantum, so really, we don't
> even need to run a brain simulation in a quantum computer (that is already
> what is happening to us today, right now).
>
>
>>  So it depends on whether the computations are sufficient to instantiate
>> such a world.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>
>>>   That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is
>>> irrelevant, as all the conscious states exist in the intermediate states,
>>>
>>>
>>>  That's your story and you're sticking to it.
>>>
>>
>>
>>  Do you disagree?
>>
>>
>>  It is certainly relevant that we can only access N-bits of an N-qubit
>> computer.  But what it shows is not certain.
>>
>> Brent
>>   --
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 2:20 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:45 PM, meekerdb > wrote:


On 12/30/2013 1:29 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:57 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

But that's essentially everything, since everything is 
(presumably)
quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it 
has
N qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT 
you
can only retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's
theorem).  So it doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N 
bits
depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom 
on all
results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 
2^N
computations have to occur in *some* sense.


But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot 
exist
in whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and
therefore there must be other worlds which contain these 
enormous
number of bits.  What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can 
regard
all those interference terms as mere calculation fictions in 
going
from N bit inputs to N bit outputs.


Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the 
real
question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at 
least
many minds).


Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies 
that a
classical computer can support consciousness.


Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the 
computations
that support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious states, 
and first
person views.


Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.


No, I am trying to show that given computationalism, there is nothing 
"fictional"
about these computations. They would have very bit the same power to yield
consciousness as the computations of a classical computer.  Do you disagree 
with this?


I'm not sure what you mean by "power";


"ability"

whether it means effectively or potentially?  I don't think consciousness 
(at least
like ours) can occur except in the context of a quasi-classical world.


Each of the myriad of computations executed in the quantum computer can be seen as 
separate classical computations. I agree classical computation is what is behind 
consciousness, so if quantum computation is the superposition of many classical 
computations,


But that's a very questionable assumption.  If it were literally true then N qubits could 
do as much a 2^N classical computers, but they can't.  The "quantum computations" are not 
just classical computations being done in parallel because they have to interfere to 
produce an answer.


Brent

and if these classical computations instantiate minds, then the emulation of a mind on a 
quantum computer gives you many different conscious states existing at once.


Our own classical world, is based on the quantum, so really, we don't even need to run a 
brain simulation in a quantum computer (that is already what is happening to us today, 
right now).


So it depends on whether the computations are sufficient to instantiate 
such a world.





That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is 
irrelevant, as
all the conscious states exist in the intermediate states,


That's your story and you're sticking to it.



Do you disagree?


It is certainly relevant that we can only access N-bits of an N-qubit 
computer.  But
what it shows is not certain.

Brent
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 5:19 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 2:08 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 31 December 2013 10:33, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>
>>   But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
>> happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
>> somethings happen at random and they led to here.
>>
>>  Yeah, it's the WAP.
>
>  Seems quite reasonable to me.
>
>  It's superior to the random one because that makes more assumptions
> about the nature of reality.
>
>
> How so?  They seem of similar magnitude to me.  Remember I'm asking for an
> explanation of *this*.  Not just an explanation of why there is *some
> world* with people.
>

Because observers do something, they Observe. That is an action. Don't
separate observers from their observations. Simple rule linking observers
to observations. X can only experience worlds (collections of observations)
whose existence is consistent with the observer's existence.

Let me drill down a bit more into this.

  We can take for granted that when we observe some X, we are also
observing ourselves in the act of observing X. It is a Lob theorem kinda
thing. Prof. Standish was right about ants! There is no consciousness
without self-awareness! Also, disallowing ghost prohibits the possibility
of observing a world "from the outside".

Is this helping?



>
> Brent
>
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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread John Mikes
Dear Edgar: allow me not to copy your post the 8th time, just marking the
#s of your par-s into my short remarks.

#1
As long as we don't "know" ALL of the (external?) complexity-stuff we
cannot claim 'knowledge' of any 'reality', only quote the so far received
part and that, too, as adjusted into our contemporary mental ways.
Compare such stuff of today with a similar 'analysis' 3000 years ago...
Is 'today' different in the continuing course of past to future? (cf: #5)

#2
I would not mix the (final?) *theoretical* conclusion with our
*practical*ways of today. We live and so did our forefathers '3000
years ago' (or
whenever).

#3
I would not mix the 'final (theoretical?) conclusion' about the entire
world into a contemporary human-mind product (our logic).

#4
You (I?) cannot compare the today available portion - and that transformed
into human belief - with the entirety of the infinite complexity so I would
not mention "truth". Again: compare your contemporary 'truth' concepts with
a similar stance - say - of 3000 years ago. Did Ishtarians have the same
'truth'?

#5
Right you are. What was 'true' for UGGH the caveman is different from what
you described as 'true' for today. Do you think that 5000 years into the
future - if humanity survives that long - our descendants will find the
SAME truth as we may identify today?

And one more thing: (last par) I would not be so firm that 'our' internal
model of reality is representing the 'external' reality at all. We just
don't know about that 'external' stuff and our present internal ideas about
it are our human fabrications. I do not believe it is time to think of a
"Final" Theory.

John Mikes


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 6:39 AM, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:

> All,
>
> In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory" I'm
> starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important and
> separate issue from previous discussions.
>
>
> 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality, we
> know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own
> minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external reality
> which is provably very very different than actual external reality.
>
> 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
> reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
> within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external reality
> we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very
> existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of
> it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
> than the physical world we believe it to be.)
>
> 3. External reality is a consistent logical structure. It is computed, and
> for it to be computed it must follow consistent logical rules.
>
> 4. Therefore the only real test of truth is its internal logical
> consistency over the entire scope of knowledge. We can not directly compare
> our knowledge to the external world because it is filtered through the
> structures of our own senses and minds, but we do know that our knowledge
> is truth to the extent it is internally self-consistent over maximum scope.
>
> 5. In fact this is the actual working basis of scientific method,
> forensics, our successful functioning in daily life and in all human
> endeavors that seek truth. Namely is the body of knowledge in question
> internally consistent. If it is not then something is UNtrue.
>
> This is the Consistency Theory of Knowledge. Consistency over maximum
> scope IS truth, the only truth possible to know.
>
> There is and can be no direct knowledge of truth, there is only
> consistency.
>
> This applies to all types of truth, from the logical structures in daily
> life moment to moment, as well as to knowledge of a "Final Theory".
>
>
> There is however one important exception. Our mental model of reality is
> part of the actual external reality, and we do have direct knowledge of
> that. The truth of that is the thing itself. But its truth is an internal
> mental model of external reality, not the external reality it pretends to
> be.
>
> Edgar
>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 5:08 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 10:33, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>
>> But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
>> happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
>> somethings happen at random and they led to here.
>>
>> Yeah, it's the WAP.
>
> Seems quite reasonable to me.
>
> It's superior to the random one because that makes more assumptions about
> the nature of reality.
>

Yeah, we start with what we know to be true: I am experiencing something.
That leads, via Descartes skeptical analysis for example, to: I think
therefore I am. We correct this to: "I think therefore I was" as the
"state" that one "is" is the one that was computed by the look back. It is
not sitting there like a husk waiting to be possessed momentarily by a
disembodied mind...

  In this way of thinking there can be no zombies and no ghosts. If there
is no possibility of a body, there cannot be a mind either and vice versa.



>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 5:07 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 10:30, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>> Dear LizR,
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:23 PM, LizR  wrote:
>>
>>> On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb  wrote:
>>>
  On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King <
 stephe...@provensecure.com> wrote:

>  Hi LizR,
>
 Sorta... I like the Theory of Nothing. It is a neutral monism that I
>> can buy, but I assume that Becoming is "fundamental": change exists at all
>> levels - this can happen when we reject a global timing scheme! The neat
>> thing is that a change is not a "thing", at best it is a transition between
>> a pair of things...
>>
>
> That is exactly why it fits into a block universe. You can have two states
> and the transition between them looks (to the states) like a change.
>

No, that doesn't work as it ignores the "cause" of the transition. I
understand the confusion on this concept. We are used to thinking that
state transitions is a one to one map. A ->B. But think for a second: What
if I have multiple and different possible next states?

A -> B or A-> B' or A->B''

What then?

Vaughan Pratt figured out a way to do this! One allows for all possible
future states, given some current state A, then looks at each of those Bs
and asks: Which of these preserves the "truths" of A and yet is a different
state. If B' is the most logical consequence of A, given A's "facts, then
B' obtains and not B or B''. It is a local selection mechanism. We repeat
this over and over and obtain the appearance of a "dimension of time": a
sequence of events that can be mapped to the integers. We notice that this
time as a constructive process generates worlds that have a difference
between their past and future, in the sense that "I can remember by past,
but I cannot recall my future". Why? Because it wasn't computed yet.

Logic looks backwards from the future, physics moves forward from the past.



>
> However, you *do *assume that becoming is fundamental - clearly, and with
> no need for quote marks. If you are going to always assume this then
> obviously you will never accept any idea that tries to derive it from
> anything simpler.
>

Yes! There is no need for anything simpler! It does the job. 



>
>>   I have a very bad cold so my thinking/writing skills are degraded...
>>
>
> Hope you get well soon!
>

Thank you!  I really enjoy these back and forths...

>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:45 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 1:29 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:57 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>   On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>>
>>>  On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>>>
  On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
 quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N
 qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only
 retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it
 doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.



  OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
 depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
 results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
 computations have to occur in *some* sense.


  But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist
 in whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore
 there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits.
 What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference
 terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit
 outputs.

>>>
>>>  Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real
>>> question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many
>>> minds).
>>>
>>>
>>>  Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that
>>> a classical computer can support consciousness.
>>>
>>
>>  Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the
>> computations that support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious
>> states, and first person views.
>>
>>
>>  Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.
>>
>>
>  No, I am trying to show that given computationalism, there is nothing
> "fictional" about these computations. They would have very bit the same
> power to yield consciousness as the computations of a classical computer.
>  Do you disagree with this?
>
>
> I'm not sure what you mean by "power";
>

"ability"


> whether it means effectively or potentially?  I don't think consciousness
> (at least like ours) can occur except in the context of a quasi-classical
> world.
>

Each of the myriad of computations executed in the quantum computer can be
seen as separate classical computations. I agree classical computation is
what is behind consciousness, so if quantum computation is the
superposition of many classical computations, and if these classical
computations instantiate minds, then the emulation of a mind on a quantum
computer gives you many different conscious states existing at once.

Our own classical world, is based on the quantum, so really, we don't even
need to run a brain simulation in a quantum computer (that is already what
is happening to us today, right now).


> So it depends on whether the computations are sufficient to instantiate
> such a world.
>
>
>
>
>>
>>   That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is
>> irrelevant, as all the conscious states exist in the intermediate states,
>>
>>
>>  That's your story and you're sticking to it.
>>
>
>
>  Do you disagree?
>
>
> It is certainly relevant that we can only access N-bits of an N-qubit
> computer.  But what it shows is not certain.
>
> Brent
>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 2:08 PM, LizR wrote:
On 31 December 2013 10:33, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> 
wrote:



But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we 
happen to
exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that somethings 
happen at
random and they led to here.

Yeah, it's the WAP.

Seems quite reasonable to me.

It's superior to the random one because that makes more assumptions about the nature of 
reality.


How so?  They seem of similar magnitude to me.  Remember I'm asking for an explanation of 
*this*.  Not just an explanation of why there is *some world* with people.


Brent

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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz,

You claim my theory of time is Newtonian but that just demonstrates your 
complete lack of understanding of the theory...

Edgar

On Monday, December 30, 2013 5:02:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
>
> On 31 December 2013 10:38, John Mikes >wrote:
>
>> Dear Liz,
>> as a former ed-in-chief of a science magazine (Ion Exchange and 
>> Membranes) I know the difficulties one can run into if trying to get 
>> peer-review approval on "NEW" ideas that do not fit into the conventional 
>> scientific fabric of college courses. I was a risk-taker and provided space 
>> for several new ideas that made sens - to me. ('Let the readership decide 
>> and debate').
>>
>
> There are two things being presented here. One is an idea which is fine in 
> itself - reality is computed. It isn't obviously self-contradictory, and 
> has I think been suggested quite a few times in various flavours (I'm sure 
> Conway must have come up with this, as have Russell Standish, I think, and 
> Bruno of course, plus probably some other people). It's a fairly obvious 
> idea for the age - "it steam-engines when it comes steam engine time" or 
> whatever.
>
> The other is a Newtonian theory of time. This contradicts special 
> relativity, and hence is an "extraordinary claim". This claim has not yet 
> had any support that shows its author understands what the problems with it 
> are. Hence it not only "doesn't fit into the scientific fabric of college 
> courses", it flatly contradicts everything we've learned about reality 
> since 1905 - all the experimental confirmation of SR, the whole lot. That 
> should require extraordinary evidence before it is worth considering.
>
>>
>> Sometimes new ideas (versions?) do not fit into the 'reductionistic' 
>> conventional stuff of the Rosenesque MODEL content, limited to the already 
>> known inventory of science etc. While it does not support the 'new' ideas, 
>> it does not prove them wrong by itself, either. 
>>
>
> There is no contradiction between Edgar's theory and reductionism, it is a 
> reductionist theory. What proves (or comes very close to proving) Edgar's 
> theory of time wrong is that it contradicts most of 20th century physics, 
> both theoretical and experimental. His theory of computational reality 
> isn't itself rendered wrong by the "known inventory of science" of course. 
> (By the way, your use of these buzz phrases does rather suggest that you 
> are pushing an agenda here. Science is far more than you are trying to make 
> out - it isn't all conventional, blinkered fuddy-duddies dismissing 
> crackpot ideas, but has room for plenty of outrageous speculation - as long 
> as it is properly grounded, doesn't flat-out contradict a century of 
> experimentation, etc.)
>
>>
>> I submitted a paper once with some 'mild' novelty (J. of Consciousness 
>> Sci) and an irate (conservative) reviewer called me a 
>> "homespun fireside philosopher" - an ornamental epitheton I value highly 
>> ever since. 
>>
>> Always easiest to think your opponents have dismissed your ideas because 
> they are "conservative" (or "bourgeois", or "heretics" or whatever 
> epitheton you wish to apply) -- rather than because just maybe they knew 
> more about the subject, and could see where your ideas were wrong.
>
> PS "epitheton" is itself an "ornamental epitheton", I'd say. I do hope it 
> wasn't just a typo!
>

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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John, and Liz,

Yes John is correct here. Without a current academic affiliation it's well 
nigh impossible to be accepted for publication in a peer reviewed journal...

Sad but true...

Edgar



On Monday, December 30, 2013 4:38:40 PM UTC-5, JohnM wrote:
>
> Dear Liz,
> as a former ed-in-chief of a science magazine (Ion Exchange and Membranes) 
> I know the difficulties one can run into if trying to get peer-review 
> approval on "NEW" ideas that do not fit into the conventional scientific 
> fabric of college courses. I was a risk-taker and provided space for 
> several new ideas that made sens - to me. ('Let the readership decide and 
> debate').
>
> Sometimes new ideas (versions?) do not fit into the 'reductionistic' 
> conventional stuff of the Rosenesque MODEL content, limited to the already 
> known inventory of science etc. 
> While it does not support the 'new' ideas, it does not prove them wrong by 
> itself, either. 
>
> I submitted a paper once with some 'mild' novelty (J. of Consciousness 
> Sci) and an irate (conservative) reviewer called me a 
> "homespun fireside philosopher" - an ornamental epitheton I value highly 
> ever since. 
> John Mikes
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:35 PM, LizR >wrote:
>
>> Edgar,
>>
>> Have you written any peer-reviewed papers on your ideas? Most scientific 
>> popularisations are written to explain a theory that has been worked out 
>> mathematically (like David Deutsch's "Fabric Of Reality") or which are the 
>> product of long (and intense) discussions amongst scientists and 
>> philosophers working in the relevant fields(s), which have often involved 
>> substantial modification to the original ideas (like, I imagine, Russell 
>> Standish's "Theory Of Nothing"). Or most likely both, in a lot of cases.
>>
>> Only fictional works tend to be written entirely from the author's 
>> imagination, without much in the way of feedback (I say "much" because 
>> having done this myself I know that it's very hard *not* to solicit 
>> feedback, and *not* to act on it to some extent. But I always try to 
>> bear in mind this advice from Neil Gaiman: "Remember: when people tell you 
>> something's wrong or doesn't work for them, they are almost always right. 
>> When they tell you exactly what they think is wrong and how to fix it, they 
>> are almost always wrong.").
>>
>> I hesitate to guess which of the above categories your magnum opus might 
>> fall into.
>>  
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:49 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 1:44 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>
>  Hi Brent,
>
>  "But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
> happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
> somethings happen at random and they led to here."
>
>  No, the "one we happen to find ourselves in" may be arbitrary, but not
> "random" per se. The universe we find ourselves in must be consistent with
> our individual existence in it and consistent with all of us
> (communicating/interacting observers).
>
>
> Sure, and the one we find ourselves in via evolution with randomness must
> be one suitable for our existence too.
>
> Brent
>


But we don't need to assume "randomness" in the acausal sense. As I see
things, the "reality" in which we find ourselves is one that evolved, but
the "one" was selected as being the one at least compatible with our
experience in it.
  I reject pre-ordained harmonies as unnecessary! We don't have to "impose"
order and consistency. All we need are local rules that allow consistency
and then notice that we only experience ourselves in those worlds that are
consistent with us "in them".

>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 10:33, meekerdb  wrote:

>
> But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
> happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
> somethings happen at random and they led to here.
>
> Yeah, it's the WAP.

Seems quite reasonable to me.

It's superior to the random one because that makes more assumptions about
the nature of reality.

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 10:30, Stephen Paul King wrote:

> Dear LizR,
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:23 PM, LizR  wrote:
>
>> On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb  wrote:
>>
>>>  On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
>>>
>>>  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King <
>>> stephe...@provensecure.com> wrote:
>>>
  Hi LizR,

>>> Sorta... I like the Theory of Nothing. It is a neutral monism that I can
> buy, but I assume that Becoming is "fundamental": change exists at all
> levels - this can happen when we reject a global timing scheme! The neat
> thing is that a change is not a "thing", at best it is a transition between
> a pair of things...
>

That is exactly why it fits into a block universe. You can have two states
and the transition between them looks (to the states) like a change.

However, you *do *assume that becoming is fundamental - clearly, and with
no need for quote marks. If you are going to always assume this then
obviously you will never accept any idea that tries to derive it from
anything simpler.

>
>   I have a very bad cold so my thinking/writing skills are degraded...
>

Hope you get well soon!

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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 10:38, John Mikes  wrote:

> Dear Liz,
> as a former ed-in-chief of a science magazine (Ion Exchange and Membranes)
> I know the difficulties one can run into if trying to get peer-review
> approval on "NEW" ideas that do not fit into the conventional scientific
> fabric of college courses. I was a risk-taker and provided space for
> several new ideas that made sens - to me. ('Let the readership decide and
> debate').
>

There are two things being presented here. One is an idea which is fine in
itself - reality is computed. It isn't obviously self-contradictory, and
has I think been suggested quite a few times in various flavours (I'm sure
Conway must have come up with this, as have Russell Standish, I think, and
Bruno of course, plus probably some other people). It's a fairly obvious
idea for the age - "it steam-engines when it comes steam engine time" or
whatever.

The other is a Newtonian theory of time. This contradicts special
relativity, and hence is an "extraordinary claim". This claim has not yet
had any support that shows its author understands what the problems with it
are. Hence it not only "doesn't fit into the scientific fabric of college
courses", it flatly contradicts everything we've learned about reality
since 1905 - all the experimental confirmation of SR, the whole lot. That
should require extraordinary evidence before it is worth considering.

>
> Sometimes new ideas (versions?) do not fit into the 'reductionistic'
> conventional stuff of the Rosenesque MODEL content, limited to the already
> known inventory of science etc. While it does not support the 'new' ideas,
> it does not prove them wrong by itself, either.
>

There is no contradiction between Edgar's theory and reductionism, it is a
reductionist theory. What proves (or comes very close to proving) Edgar's
theory of time wrong is that it contradicts most of 20th century physics,
both theoretical and experimental. His theory of computational reality
isn't itself rendered wrong by the "known inventory of science" of course.
(By the way, your use of these buzz phrases does rather suggest that you
are pushing an agenda here. Science is far more than you are trying to make
out - it isn't all conventional, blinkered fuddy-duddies dismissing
crackpot ideas, but has room for plenty of outrageous speculation - as long
as it is properly grounded, doesn't flat-out contradict a century of
experimentation, etc.)

>
> I submitted a paper once with some 'mild' novelty (J. of Consciousness
> Sci) and an irate (conservative) reviewer called me a
> "homespun fireside philosopher" - an ornamental epitheton I value highly
> ever since.
>
> Always easiest to think your opponents have dismissed your ideas because
they are "conservative" (or "bourgeois", or "heretics" or whatever
epitheton you wish to apply) -- rather than because just maybe they knew
more about the subject, and could see where your ideas were wrong.

PS "epitheton" is itself an "ornamental epitheton", I'd say. I do hope it
wasn't just a typo!

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 9:21 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 08:20, Platonist Guitar Cowboy <
> multiplecit...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 8:02 PM, Alberto G. Corona 
>> wrote:
>>
>>> To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
>>> knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.
>>>
>>> But i the realm of reality,
>>>
>>
>> And where may one find this realm of realms?
>>
>>
>>>   i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.
>>>
>>
>> The only truth Edgar is unearthing for me is:
>>
>> You can enlist entire mailing lists as free reviewers for any book
>> project you may have, without paying them one cent for doing so. Vanity and
>> altruism make good bedfellows. PGC
>>
>> I doubt if Edgar was expecting his ideas to be taken apart quite so
> thoroughly. The only sensible response to what he's been told would be to
> completely rewrite it in light of the misunderstandings that have been
> pointed out in his basic assumptions!
>
> I can't see that happening though.
>

We'll see. It's not as if one of the more seasoned posters was testing
something they had read, picked up, or developed somehow. He just swooped
in and took everybody's nuggets home, while calling them fairytale people.
Anyways, happy New Years everybody! PGC


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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
:-) Those realms can be avoided, especially if one is flexible with where
one... but off-topic. PGC


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 10:21 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

>
>
>
> 2013/12/30 Platonist Guitar Cowboy 
>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 8:02 PM, Alberto G. Corona 
>> wrote:
>>
>>> To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
>>> knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.
>>>
>>> But i the realm of reality,
>>>
>>
>> And where may one find this realm of realms?
>>
>
> Is the realm where you pay taxes.
>
>>
>>
>>>   i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.
>>>
>>
>> The only truth Edgar is unearthing for me is:
>>
>> You can enlist entire mailing lists as free reviewers for any book
>> project you may have, without paying them one cent for doing so. Vanity and
>> altruism make good bedfellows. PGC
>>
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>>>

 On 30 Dec 2013, at 15:25, Alberto G. Corona wrote:




 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 

>
> On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>
>  All,
>>
>> In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory"
>> I'm starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an 
>> important
>> and separate issue from previous discussions.
>>
>>
>> 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental
>> reality, we know external reality only filtered through the structures of
>> our own minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of 
>> external
>> reality which is provably very very different than actual external 
>> reality.
>>
>> 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
>> reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
>> within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external 
>> reality
>> we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our 
>> very
>> existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge 
>> of
>> it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
>> than the physical world we believe it to be.)
>>
>
> That are belief, not knowledge.
>
> Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical deductions
 based on the belief on + and succ ?



 That one is still on the type belief (a consequence of Gödel's
 incompleteness).

 To know that 1+ 1 = 2, you need to

 1) believe that 1 + 1 = 2, but you need also that

 2) it is the case that 1 + 1 = 2   (in your "reality")

 If you put arithmetical realism on the table, anyone believing that 1 +
 1 = 2, knows that 1 + 1 = 2. This needs some "reality" satisfying the fact
 that 1+1=2, and we do suspect its existence indeed, as the structure (N, 0,
 s, +, *) taught in high school.

 Usually "rational belief" in a large sense is axiomatized by the modal
 axiom K

 B(x -> y) ->(Bx -> By),

 with or without the necessitation rule (inferring Bx from x), but
 (almost) always with the modus ponens (inferring B from A -> B and A).

 Then a form of self-awareness is captured by the possible axioms Bx ->
 BBx.

 Gödel provability obeys that. That are the K4 reasoners. 4 is the name
 (sic) of the formula Bx -> BBx, as it was the main axiom of the fourth
 system by Lewis (S4).

 S4 is the knowledge theory. It is K4 together with the axiom Bx -> x.
  By definition of knowledge, if you know x, x is true. If p were not true,
 i.e; if it was not the case that p, you would just be believing wrongly.

 Gödel's provability obeys K4 (indeed K4 + B(Bx->x)->Bx), but does not
 obeys Bx -> x, at least from the machine 3p points' of view on itself.

 But the conjunction of Bx & x does obeys S4 (indeed S4 +
 B(B(x->Bx)->x)->x, the Grzegorczyk formula).

 Set theoretically, knowledge is the intersection of your beliefs and
 truth.

 It can be explained that some machine, like PA and ZF, already
 understand (prove, or prove from some Dt conditional, or more) that their
 *personal* knowledge escape all possible 3p definitions.  They can't
 believe they are any machine. They still can bet on it, like "nature"
 apparently already did.

 Bruno



  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 1:44 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:

Hi Brent,

"But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we happen to exist 
in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that somethings happen at random and 
they led to here."


No, the "one we happen to find ourselves in" may be arbitrary, but not "random" per se. 
The universe we find ourselves in must be consistent with our individual existence in it 
and consistent with all of us (communicating/interacting observers).


Sure, and the one we find ourselves in via evolution with randomness must be one suitable 
for our existence too.


Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 1:29 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:57 PM, meekerdb > wrote:


On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has 
N
qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you 
can
only retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's 
theorem).  So
it doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
computations have to occur in *some* sense.


But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot 
exist in
whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and 
therefore
there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits. 
What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference

terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N 
bit
outputs.


Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real
question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least 
many minds).


Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that 
a
classical computer can support consciousness.


Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the computations 
that
support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious states, and first 
person
views.


Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.


No, I am trying to show that given computationalism, there is nothing "fictional" about 
these computations. They would have very bit the same power to yield consciousness as 
the computations of a classical computer.  Do you disagree with this?


I'm not sure what you mean by "power"; whether it means effectively or potentially?  I 
don't think consciousness (at least like ours) can occur except in the context of a 
quasi-classical world.  So it depends on whether the computations are sufficient to 
instantiate such a world.





That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is irrelevant, 
as all
the conscious states exist in the intermediate states,


That's your story and you're sticking to it.



Do you disagree?


It is certainly relevant that we can only access N-bits of an N-qubit computer.  But what 
it shows is not certain.


Brent

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Hi Brent,

"But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
somethings happen at random and they led to here."

No, the "one we happen to find ourselves in" may be arbitrary, but not
"random" per se. The universe we find ourselves in must be consistent with
our individual existence in it and consistent with all of us
(communicating/interacting observers).


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:33 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 1:23 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>   On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
>>
>>  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King > > wrote:
>>
>>>  Hi LizR,
>>>
>>>   Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants
>>> are connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth
>>> change between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about
>>> every book and paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this
>>> point. None offer any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the
>>> first place. If we point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states,
>>> whatever) we still need to explain how that particular sequence is the one
>>> that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".
>>>
>>
>>  A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie
>> stacked on top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not
>> attempting to "explain time away" - they are attempting to explain how time
>> arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are
>> betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so I may
>> be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)
>>
>>  You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the
>> laws of physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the
>> laws of physics are - equations which describe how things change over time.
>> They describe a block universe.
>>
>>  Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has
>> to be an external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or
>> otherwise occurs. In "classical" relativity this question is answered by
>> saying that the block universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of
>> physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type
>> answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a broader answer by
>> allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to occur.
>> A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events,
>> because all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.
>>
>>
>>  But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in
>> which all possible (logically non-contradictory) initial conditions obtain?
>>
>>
>
>  That is the logical conclusion if one starts from some sort of "theory
> of nothing" - to specify all possible starting conditions requires less
> information than any specific ones. Max Tegmark suggests that the universe
> is ONLY the relevant "mathematical structure" and doesn't require any extra
> information, which implies all possible starting conditions and their
> outcomes are latent in the equations (somehow A visit from Smaug
> may be required, but I suspect not.)
>
>  Well, that's my take on it, at least. Does that sound (at all)
> reasonable?
>
>
> But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we
> happen to exist in.  I don't see that as any better than saying that
> somethings happen at random and they led to here.
>
> Brent
>
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Re: The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread John Mikes
Dear Liz,
as a former ed-in-chief of a science magazine (Ion Exchange and Membranes)
I know the difficulties one can run into if trying to get peer-review
approval on "NEW" ideas that do not fit into the conventional scientific
fabric of college courses. I was a risk-taker and provided space for
several new ideas that made sens - to me. ('Let the readership decide and
debate').

Sometimes new ideas (versions?) do not fit into the 'reductionistic'
conventional stuff of the Rosenesque MODEL content, limited to the already
known inventory of science etc.
While it does not support the 'new' ideas, it does not prove them wrong by
itself, either.

I submitted a paper once with some 'mild' novelty (J. of Consciousness Sci)
and an irate (conservative) reviewer called me a
"homespun fireside philosopher" - an ornamental epitheton I value highly
ever since.
John Mikes


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:35 PM, LizR  wrote:

> Edgar,
>
> Have you written any peer-reviewed papers on your ideas? Most scientific
> popularisations are written to explain a theory that has been worked out
> mathematically (like David Deutsch's "Fabric Of Reality") or which are the
> product of long (and intense) discussions amongst scientists and
> philosophers working in the relevant fields(s), which have often involved
> substantial modification to the original ideas (like, I imagine, Russell
> Standish's "Theory Of Nothing"). Or most likely both, in a lot of cases.
>
> Only fictional works tend to be written entirely from the author's
> imagination, without much in the way of feedback (I say "much" because
> having done this myself I know that it's very hard *not* to solicit
> feedback, and *not* to act on it to some extent. But I always try to bear
> in mind this advice from Neil Gaiman: "Remember: when people tell you
> something's wrong or doesn't work for them, they are almost always right.
> When they tell you exactly what they think is wrong and how to fix it, they
> are almost always wrong.").
>
> I hesitate to guess which of the above categories your magnum opus might
> fall into.
>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:00 PM, John Clark  wrote:

> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:52 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:
>
> >> That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a
>>> fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
>>> that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
>>> or both MUST be wrong.
>>>
>>
>> > Or measurements are multi-valued.  MWI has both locality and realism.
>>
>
> If the many World's Theory was local AND realistic we'd know with
> certainty that it's wrong because any theory that is consistent with
> experimental results can NOT be both.
>

There are at least two possible answers to the bell inequalities:
1. Nonlocal influences
2. Mutliple outcomes for each measurement

If you choose 2, then you don't need 1. You can have multiple outcomes for
a measurement and realism. You just can't have only one definite real
value, without FTL influences.


> But MWI could be true because although it is realistic it is not local.
>

It is local, all QM effects under MW propagate at c or slower.  See the
"many worlds FAQ" or the wikipedia table comparing various interpretations.


> A entire parallel universe as big as our own that you can never go to or
> even see is about as far from being local as you can get.
>

Locality has a specific definition in physics, that things are only
affected by other things (fields or particles) in direct proximity to each
other. It says nothing about the existence of places we can or can't go to.

Jason


>
>   John K Clark
>
>
>
>
>
>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 1:23 PM, LizR wrote:
On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> 
wrote:


On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:

On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King mailto:stephe...@provensecure.com>> wrote:

Hi LizR,

 Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants are
connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth 
change
between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about every 
book and
paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this point. None 
offer
any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the first place. 
If we
point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states, whatever) we still 
need to
explain how that particular sequence is the one that just "happened". 
No, it
could not "Happen".


A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie 
stacked on
top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not attempting to 
"explain
time away" - they are attempting to explain how time arises from the 
relevant
equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are betraying a personal bias 
against the
idea by using that phrase, so I may be wasting my typing fingers here! But 
anyway...)

You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the laws of
physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the laws of 
physics
are - equations which describe how things change over time. They describe a 
block
universe.

Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has to 
be an
external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or otherwise 
occurs.
In "classical" relativity this question is answered by saying that the block
universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of physics, assumed to be
deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type answer. Quantum theory, in 
the
form of the MWI gives a broader answer by allowing all events allowed by the
probabalistic laws of physics to occur. A block multiverse has no need to 
evolve or
select a sequence of events, because all sequences compatible with the laws 
of
physics occur.


But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in 
which all
possible (logically non-contradictory) initial conditions obtain?


That is the logical conclusion if one starts from some sort of "theory of nothing" - to 
specify all possible starting conditions requires less information than any specific 
ones. Max Tegmark suggests that the universe is ONLY the relevant "mathematical 
structure" and doesn't require any extra information, which implies all possible 
starting conditions and their outcomes are latent in the equations (somehow A 
visit from Smaug may be required, but I suspect not.)


Well, that's my take on it, at least. Does that sound (at all) reasonable?


But then the explanation for *this* is that it's just a random one we happen to exist in.  
I don't see that as any better than saying that somethings happen at random and they led 
to here.


Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 3:57 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>  On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>>
>>>  On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>
>>>  But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
>>> quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N
>>> qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only
>>> retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it
>>> doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>  OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
>>> depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
>>> results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
>>> computations have to occur in *some* sense.
>>>
>>>
>>>  But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist
>>> in whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore
>>> there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits.
>>> What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference
>>> terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit
>>> outputs.
>>>
>>
>>  Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real
>> question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many
>> minds).
>>
>>
>>  Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that
>> a classical computer can support consciousness.
>>
>
>  Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the
> computations that support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious
> states, and first person views.
>
>
> Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.
>
>
No, I am trying to show that given computationalism, there is nothing
"fictional" about these computations. They would have very bit the same
power to yield consciousness as the computations of a classical computer.
 Do you disagree with this?


>
>   That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is
> irrelevant, as all the conscious states exist in the intermediate states,
>
>
> That's your story and you're sticking to it.
>


Do you disagree?

Jason


>
> Brent
>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 4:23 PM, LizR  wrote:

> On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>  On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
>>
>>  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King > > wrote:
>>
>>>  Hi LizR,
>>>
>>>   Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants
>>> are connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth
>>> change between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about
>>> every book and paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this
>>> point. None offer any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the
>>> first place. If we point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states,
>>> whatever) we still need to explain how that particular sequence is the one
>>> that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".
>>>
>>
>>  A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie
>> stacked on top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not
>> attempting to "explain time away" - they are attempting to explain how time
>> arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are
>> betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so I may
>> be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)
>>
>>  You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the
>> laws of physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the
>> laws of physics are - equations which describe how things change over time.
>> They describe a block universe.
>>
>>  Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has
>> to be an external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or
>> otherwise occurs. In "classical" relativity this question is answered by
>> saying that the block universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of
>> physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type
>> answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a broader answer by
>> allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to occur.
>> A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events,
>> because all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.
>>
>>
>> But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in
>> which all possible (logically non-contradictory) initial conditions obtain?
>>
>>
>
> That is the logical conclusion if one starts from some sort of "theory of
> nothing" - to specify all possible starting conditions requires less
> information than any specific ones. Max Tegmark suggests that the universe
> is ONLY the relevant "mathematical structure" and doesn't require any extra
> information, which implies all possible starting conditions and their
> outcomes are latent in the equations (somehow A visit from Smaug
> may be required, but I suspect not.)
>
> Well, that's my take on it, at least. Does that sound (at all) reasonable?
>

Sorta... I like the Theory of Nothing. It is a neutral monism that I can
buy, but I assume that Becoming is "fundamental": change exists at all
levels - this can happen when we reject a global timing scheme! The neat
thing is that a change is not a "thing", at best it is a transition between
a pair of things...

  I have a very bad cold so my thinking/writing skills are degraded...


>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Brent,


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 1:40 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>>  Hi LizR,
>>
>>   Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants
>> are connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth
>> change between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about
>> every book and paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this
>> point. None offer any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the
>> first place. If we point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states,
>> whatever) we still need to explain how that particular sequence is the one
>> that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".
>>
>
>  A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie
> stacked on top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not
> attempting to "explain time away" - they are attempting to explain how time
> arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are
> betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so I may
> be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)
>
>  You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the laws
> of physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the laws
> of physics are - equations which describe how things change over time. They
> describe a block universe.
>
>  Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has
> to be an external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or
> otherwise occurs. In "classical" relativity this question is answered by
> saying that the block universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of
> physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type
> answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a broader answer by
> allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to occur.
> A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events,
> because all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.
>
>
> But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in
> which all possible (logically non-contradictory) initial conditions
> obtain?
>

Yes, QM -as standardly used- has a state transition model to do
calculations with it. There are other ways of doing computations. My
favorite is Hewitt's Actor Model:
 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7erJ1DV_Tlo

Observers come with self-consistent universes -which are their
observations. Interactions between these must be, at some level, logically
non-contradictory (incontrovertible).



>
> Brent
>
>
>  That answers the question of how this particular sequence "just happens"
> for both GR *and *QM!
>
>  :-)
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 07:40, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>>  Hi LizR,
>>
>>   Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants
>> are connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth
>> change between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about
>> every book and paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this
>> point. None offer any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the
>> first place. If we point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states,
>> whatever) we still need to explain how that particular sequence is the one
>> that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".
>>
>
>  A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie
> stacked on top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not
> attempting to "explain time away" - they are attempting to explain how time
> arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are
> betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so I may
> be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)
>
>  You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the laws
> of physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the laws
> of physics are - equations which describe how things change over time. They
> describe a block universe.
>
>  Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has
> to be an external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or
> otherwise occurs. In "classical" relativity this question is answered by
> saying that the block universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of
> physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type
> answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a broader answer by
> allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to occur.
> A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events,
> because all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.
>
>
> But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in
> which all possible (logically non-contradictory) initial conditions obtain?
>
>

That is the logical conclusion if one starts from some sort of "theory of
nothing" - to specify all possible starting conditions requires less
information than any specific ones. Max Tegmark suggests that the universe
is ONLY the relevant "mathematical structure" and doesn't require any extra
information, which implies all possible starting conditions and their
outcomes are latent in the equations (somehow A visit from Smaug
may be required, but I suspect not.)

Well, that's my take on it, at least. Does that sound (at all) reasonable?

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Alberto G. Corona
2013/12/30 Platonist Guitar Cowboy 

>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 8:02 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>
>> To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
>> knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.
>>
>> But i the realm of reality,
>>
>
> And where may one find this realm of realms?
>

Is the realm where you pay taxes.

>
>
>>   i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.
>>
>
> The only truth Edgar is unearthing for me is:
>
> You can enlist entire mailing lists as free reviewers for any book project
> you may have, without paying them one cent for doing so. Vanity and
> altruism make good bedfellows. PGC
>
>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>>
>>>
>>> On 30 Dec 2013, at 15:25, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>>>

 On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

  All,
>
> In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory"
> I'm starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important
> and separate issue from previous discussions.
>
>
> 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality,
> we know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own
> minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external 
> reality
> which is provably very very different than actual external reality.
>
> 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
> reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
> within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external 
> reality
> we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very
> existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of
> it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
> than the physical world we believe it to be.)
>

 That are belief, not knowledge.

 Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical deductions
>>> based on the belief on + and succ ?
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> That one is still on the type belief (a consequence of Gödel's
>>> incompleteness).
>>>
>>> To know that 1+ 1 = 2, you need to
>>>
>>> 1) believe that 1 + 1 = 2, but you need also that
>>>
>>> 2) it is the case that 1 + 1 = 2   (in your "reality")
>>>
>>> If you put arithmetical realism on the table, anyone believing that 1 +
>>> 1 = 2, knows that 1 + 1 = 2. This needs some "reality" satisfying the fact
>>> that 1+1=2, and we do suspect its existence indeed, as the structure (N, 0,
>>> s, +, *) taught in high school.
>>>
>>> Usually "rational belief" in a large sense is axiomatized by the modal
>>> axiom K
>>>
>>> B(x -> y) ->(Bx -> By),
>>>
>>> with or without the necessitation rule (inferring Bx from x), but
>>> (almost) always with the modus ponens (inferring B from A -> B and A).
>>>
>>> Then a form of self-awareness is captured by the possible axioms Bx ->
>>> BBx.
>>>
>>> Gödel provability obeys that. That are the K4 reasoners. 4 is the name
>>> (sic) of the formula Bx -> BBx, as it was the main axiom of the fourth
>>> system by Lewis (S4).
>>>
>>> S4 is the knowledge theory. It is K4 together with the axiom Bx -> x.
>>>  By definition of knowledge, if you know x, x is true. If p were not true,
>>> i.e; if it was not the case that p, you would just be believing wrongly.
>>>
>>> Gödel's provability obeys K4 (indeed K4 + B(Bx->x)->Bx), but does not
>>> obeys Bx -> x, at least from the machine 3p points' of view on itself.
>>>
>>> But the conjunction of Bx & x does obeys S4 (indeed S4 +
>>> B(B(x->Bx)->x)->x, the Grzegorczyk formula).
>>>
>>> Set theoretically, knowledge is the intersection of your beliefs and
>>> truth.
>>>
>>> It can be explained that some machine, like PA and ZF, already
>>> understand (prove, or prove from some Dt conditional, or more) that their
>>> *personal* knowledge escape all possible 3p definitions.  They can't
>>> believe they are any machine. They still can bet on it, like "nature"
>>> apparently already did.
>>>
>>> Bruno
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>
>>>
>>>
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>>
>>
>>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:52 PM, Jason Resch  wrote:

>> That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a
>> fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
>> that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
>> or both MUST be wrong.
>>
>
> > Or measurements are multi-valued.  MWI has both locality and realism.
>

If the many World's Theory was local AND realistic we'd know with certainty
that it's wrong because any theory that is consistent with experimental
results can NOT be both.  But MWI could be true because although it is
realistic it is not local. A entire parallel universe as big as our own
that you can never go to or even see is about as far from being local as
you can get.

  John K Clark

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 12:04 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb > wrote:


On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>> wrote:

On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably) quantum. 
But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N qubits it takes

2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only retrieve N 
bits of
information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it doesn't really act 
like
2^N parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits 
depending
on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all results 
obtained in
"parallel universes". This means that the 2^N computations have to 
occur in
*some* sense.


But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist 
in whole
universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore there 
must be
other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits.  What Holevo's
theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference terms as mere
calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit outputs.


Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real 
question.
 If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many minds).


Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that a 
classical
computer can support consciousness.


Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the computations that support 
a mind, there would be many resulting conscious states, and first person views.


Of course that is assuming the very proposition you're arguing.

That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one world is irrelevant, as all the 
conscious states exist in the intermediate states,


That's your story and you're sticking to it.

Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:09 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

> If an influence can go backward in time as well as forward then it can
> effectively have FTL influence,
>

We already know for a fact that faster than light influences exist, and
this has nothing to do with any theory, it was found experimentally. Of
course this does not mean you can sent a message faster than light, matter
and energy and information are still limited by the speed of light, but
influences can certainly go astronomically faster, probably infinitely
faster.

  John K Clark

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR and Brent,

  I will try to go at this from a different direction. What exactly does
"fundamental level" mean? Does there have to be "something fundamental"?
Consider Leibniz' monadology: strip it of the anthropocentrism and
religiosity and one obtains a nice "any one thing is made from combinations
of other things" concept that has no need for something fundamental.
   I have a question: what would be the most simple Boolean algebra?


On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 1:44 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King 
> wrote:
>
>>  Dear Bruno,
>>
>>Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of 
>> computer/universal-numbers
>> and physical realities? That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
>>I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view
>> that the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status
>> and the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and
>> its measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!
>>
>>  The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as
> fundamental gets you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a
> "shut up and calculate" (or shut up and pray) ontology.
>
>  With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it,
> maybe there *is *just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended
> life forms like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute
> facts!
>
>
> But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory
> that can explain anything fails to explain at all.
>
> Brent
>
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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 00:00, Pierz  wrote:

> I have to admit I'm starting to derive a weird kind of enjoyment from this
> debate. Liz and frequentflyer: you guys are my heroes. Though "anodyne"
> means "pain-relieving", which is not how I would describe Roger's theories.
> I would choose the word "jejune" instead.
>

Thank you :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)  :-)

(Although like any good writer, I only come here to avoid having to work on
my novel... :-(

>
> Edgar, ole buddy ole pal. You're wrong mate. Has some tiny skerrick of the
> possibility of this osmosed through the blood-brain barrier yet? Take your
> long "proof" of the common present moment. Once again the flaw is clear to
> everyone but you. You describe a graph with lines describing the two
> separated travellers. Now you draw a vertical line from one to the other
> and thus "prove" they share the same moment at all times. The problem is
> your privileging of the vertical line - ie the one orthogonal to traveller
> 'a'. There are many lines that could be used to connect the two travellers'
> moments from other frames of reference. There is no single "vertical" line
> that can be privileged above others.
>
> Sure, when two people shake hands they share a common moment so to speak,
> because the event is a single point in space time. The problem is proving
> simultaneity while the observers are apart.
>
> I'm going to give you a challenge here. Take two spatially separated
> events. How do you know if these two events occur at the same time (ie, in
> the same common present moment)? I presume you think they either shared a
> CPM or didn't, that the universal line of time either passed through the
> two events together or in sequence. Please show how you will prove one or
> the other. If you can suggest an experiment to prove this, I'll give you
> $100. If your experiment involves clocks, however, well we know that
> simultaneity will be relative to inertial frame of reference, so that won't
> do.
>
> Brent, you seem to be both highly knowledgeable on physics and relativity
> and impartial on the subject of Edgar, so you can decide if he has met the
> challenge. i.e., if you say cough up, I cough up. Hope you don't mind the
> burden of responsibility!
>
> BUT, if I don't have to cough up, then I submit that it is established
> that we only share a unique common present moment at exact points of
> coincidence in space-time, e.g., the handshake, and that your theory is
> worthless for all practical purposes (and therefore wrong).
>

I will throw in a bottle of wine if my other half hasn't polished off the
16 I got him for Xmas before then (OK, technically it was a present from
work, but he's the main wine drinker, so it saved a lot of thought
about socks!)

>
>

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The background to Edgar's book

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
Edgar,

Have you written any peer-reviewed papers on your ideas? Most scientific
popularisations are written to explain a theory that has been worked out
mathematically (like David Deutsch's "Fabric Of Reality") or which are the
product of long (and intense) discussions amongst scientists and
philosophers working in the relevant fields(s), which have often involved
substantial modification to the original ideas (like, I imagine, Russell
Standish's "Theory Of Nothing"). Or most likely both, in a lot of cases.

Only fictional works tend to be written entirely from the author's
imagination, without much in the way of feedback (I say "much" because
having done this myself I know that it's very hard *not* to solicit
feedback, and *not* to act on it to some extent. But I always try to bear
in mind this advice from Neil Gaiman: "Remember: when people tell you
something's wrong or doesn't work for them, they are almost always right.
When they tell you exactly what they think is wrong and how to fix it, they
are almost always wrong.").

I hesitate to guess which of the above categories your magnum opus might
fall into.

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 31 December 2013 08:20, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  wrote:

> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 8:02 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>
>> To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
>> knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.
>>
>> But i the realm of reality,
>>
>
> And where may one find this realm of realms?
>
>
>>   i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.
>>
>
> The only truth Edgar is unearthing for me is:
>
> You can enlist entire mailing lists as free reviewers for any book project
> you may have, without paying them one cent for doing so. Vanity and
> altruism make good bedfellows. PGC
>
> I doubt if Edgar was expecting his ideas to be taken apart quite so
thoroughly. The only sensible response to what he's been told would be to
completely rewrite it in light of the misunderstandings that have been
pointed out in his basic assumptions!

I can't see that happening though.

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:41 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb  wrote:
>
>>  On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>
>>  But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
>> quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N
>> qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only
>> retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it
>> doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.
>>
>>
>>
>>  OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
>> depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
>> results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
>> computations have to occur in *some* sense.
>>
>>
>>  But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist
>> in whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore
>> there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits.
>> What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference
>> terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit
>> outputs.
>>
>
>  Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real
> question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many
> minds).
>
>
> Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that a
> classical computer can support consciousness.
>

Because with computationalism, if a quantum computer runs the computations
that support a mind, there would be many resulting conscious states, and
first person views.  That we can only access N-bits of a mind from any one
world is irrelevant, as all the conscious states exist in the intermediate
states, which you call "calculation fictions".

Jason

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 11:17 AM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb > wrote:


On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably) 
quantum.  But
notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N qubits it takes 2^N
complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only retrieve N bits of
information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it doesn't really act like 
2^N
parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits 
depending on
the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all results obtained in
"parallel universes". This means that the 2^N computations have to occur in 
*some*
sense.


But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist in 
whole
universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore there 
must be
other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits. What Holevo's 
theorem
shows is the one can regard all those interference terms as mere calculation
fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit outputs.


Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real question.  If 
they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many minds).


Why is that "the real question"?  Saying yes to the doctor implies that a classical 
computer can support consciousness.


Brent

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 3:39 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

All,

In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory" I'm starting a new 
topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important and separate issue from previous 
discussions.



1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality, we know external 
reality only filtered through the structures of our own minds. What we really know is 
only our own mental model of external reality which is provably very very different than 
actual external reality.


I'm not sure this is right.  If our mental model includes our best and most fundamental 
scientific theories, then we don't *know* they are very different from reality.  And we 
only say we know this about our naive, inbuilt model of the world (which is more 
Newtonian) because we compare it with the scientific models; yet the latter is derived 
from the former. "Science is just common sense writ large."




2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental reality to an extent 
sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively within it. If we didn't have some 
actual true knowledge of external reality we could not even function within it and thus 
could not exist. So our very existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some 
true knowledge of it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure 
rather than the physical world we believe it to be.)


3. External reality is a consistent logical structure. It is computed, and for it to be 
computed it must follow consistent logical rules.


4. Therefore the only real test of truth is its internal logical consistency over the 
entire scope of knowledge. We can not directly compare our knowledge to the external 
world because it is filtered through the structures of our own senses and minds, but we 
do know that our knowledge is truth to the extent it is internally self-consistent over 
maximum scope.


5. In fact this is the actual working basis of scientific method, forensics, our 
successful functioning in daily life and in all human endeavors that seek truth. Namely 
is the body of knowledge in question internally consistent. If it is not then something 
is UNtrue.


This is the Consistency Theory of Knowledge. Consistency over maximum scope IS truth, 
the only truth possible to know.


There is and can be no direct knowledge of truth, there is only consistency.

This applies to all types of truth, from the logical structures in daily life moment to 
moment, as well as to knowledge of a "Final Theory".



There is however one important exception. Our mental model of reality is part of the 
actual external reality, and we do have direct knowledge of that. The truth of that is 
the thing itself. But its truth is an internal mental model of external reality, not the 
external reality it pretends to be.


OK, except I think your terminology is confusing because you use "truth" as a noun, and 
write thins like "truth of our mental model is the thing itself".  If you would stick to 
"true" as an adjective applying to sentences the above could be a lot cleaner.


Brent

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 8:02 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

> To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
> knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.
>
> But i the realm of reality,
>

And where may one find this realm of realms?


>  i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.
>

The only truth Edgar is unearthing for me is:

You can enlist entire mailing lists as free reviewers for any book project
you may have, without paying them one cent for doing so. Vanity and
altruism make good bedfellows. PGC


>
>
>
>
> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>
>>
>> On 30 Dec 2013, at 15:25, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>>
>>>
>>> On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>>>
>>>  All,

 In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory"
 I'm starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important
 and separate issue from previous discussions.


 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality,
 we know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own
 minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external reality
 which is provably very very different than actual external reality.

 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
 reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
 within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external reality
 we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very
 existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of
 it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
 than the physical world we believe it to be.)

>>>
>>> That are belief, not knowledge.
>>>
>>> Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical deductions
>> based on the belief on + and succ ?
>>
>>
>>
>> That one is still on the type belief (a consequence of Gödel's
>> incompleteness).
>>
>> To know that 1+ 1 = 2, you need to
>>
>> 1) believe that 1 + 1 = 2, but you need also that
>>
>> 2) it is the case that 1 + 1 = 2   (in your "reality")
>>
>> If you put arithmetical realism on the table, anyone believing that 1 + 1
>> = 2, knows that 1 + 1 = 2. This needs some "reality" satisfying the fact
>> that 1+1=2, and we do suspect its existence indeed, as the structure (N, 0,
>> s, +, *) taught in high school.
>>
>> Usually "rational belief" in a large sense is axiomatized by the modal
>> axiom K
>>
>> B(x -> y) ->(Bx -> By),
>>
>> with or without the necessitation rule (inferring Bx from x), but
>> (almost) always with the modus ponens (inferring B from A -> B and A).
>>
>> Then a form of self-awareness is captured by the possible axioms Bx ->
>> BBx.
>>
>> Gödel provability obeys that. That are the K4 reasoners. 4 is the name
>> (sic) of the formula Bx -> BBx, as it was the main axiom of the fourth
>> system by Lewis (S4).
>>
>> S4 is the knowledge theory. It is K4 together with the axiom Bx -> x.  By
>> definition of knowledge, if you know x, x is true. If p were not true, i.e;
>> if it was not the case that p, you would just be believing wrongly.
>>
>> Gödel's provability obeys K4 (indeed K4 + B(Bx->x)->Bx), but does not
>> obeys Bx -> x, at least from the machine 3p points' of view on itself.
>>
>> But the conjunction of Bx & x does obeys S4 (indeed S4 +
>> B(B(x->Bx)->x)->x, the Grzegorczyk formula).
>>
>> Set theoretically, knowledge is the intersection of your beliefs and
>> truth.
>>
>> It can be explained that some machine, like PA and ZF, already understand
>> (prove, or prove from some Dt conditional, or more) that their *personal*
>> knowledge escape all possible 3p definitions.  They can't believe they are
>> any machine. They still can bet on it, like "nature" apparently already did.
>>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>>
>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>
>>
>>
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>
>
>
> --
> Alberto.
>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:00 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

>  On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>  But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)
> quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N
> qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only
> retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it
> doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.
>
>
>
>  OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits
> depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all
> results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N
> computations have to occur in *some* sense.
>
>
> But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist in
> whole universe, much less in that little quantum computer and therefore
> there must be other worlds which contain these enormous number of bits.
> What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard all those interference
> terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N bit
> outputs.
>

Can such "calculation fictions" support conciousness?  That's the real
question.  If they can, then you can't avoid many-worlds (or at least many
minds).

Jason



> It is conceptually no different than doing a calculation in ordinary
> probability theory: I start with some initial conditions and I introduce a
> probability distribution and compute a probability for some event.  In that
> intermediate step I introduced a continuous probability distribution which
> implies an *infinite* number of bits.  Nobody thinks this requires an
> infinite number of worlds.
>
> Brent
>
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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 3:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Dec 2013, at 09:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 11:58 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Dec 2013, at 20:35, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 6:10 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Liz,

No, it is clear that your here is not the same as mine because you are not here. 
However it is quite clear that you absolutely must be doing something in the exact 
same present moment that I write this sentence. That is the present moment that we 
share.


No, that's not clear at all.  Since you and Liz are not in the same place and the 
speed of light is the same in all inertial frames, there exist a whole range of Liz's 
moments which may correspond to your moment depending on which moving frame is 
arbitrarily chosen to determine simultaneity.


Yes. Presentism does not make sense with special relativity. "present" is an 
indexical. No need and in fact no means, to reify the "present".








Do you somehow imagine that there is some gap in your time line that takes you out 
of existence as I write this sentence? If there isn't then you must agree we do 
share a common present moment...


But it is not uniquely defined.


A long time ago, in my childhood, I saw a movie with a friend. My friend found the 
movie boring, and he felt like if it never ends: time was going slowly, for him.  But 
I loved that movie, and time was going very quickly for me. We discussed that after, 
and I was troubled. Was we still at the same moment?

Well, with computationalism, that question just does not make any sense.


Being at the same event, same point of spacetime, should still make sense.



For immaterial Newtonian-like point. If not we can't hardly breath. Our bodies do have 
volume. OK?


Do they have volume in comp (which is all immaterial)?  Is volume definable in 
comp?

Brent

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Alberto G. Corona
To summarize, there is no possible pure knowledge, only rules to extract
knowledge from assumed beliefs. Thanks. But I already knew so.

But i the realm of reality,  i.e. sensible experience, Edgar is right here.




2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 

>
> On 30 Dec 2013, at 15:25, Alberto G. Corona wrote:
>
>
>
>
> 2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 
>
>>
>> On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>>
>>  All,
>>>
>>> In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory" I'm
>>> starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important and
>>> separate issue from previous discussions.
>>>
>>>
>>> 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality,
>>> we know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own
>>> minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external reality
>>> which is provably very very different than actual external reality.
>>>
>>> 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
>>> reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
>>> within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external reality
>>> we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very
>>> existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of
>>> it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
>>> than the physical world we believe it to be.)
>>>
>>
>> That are belief, not knowledge.
>>
>> Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical deductions
> based on the belief on + and succ ?
>
>
>
> That one is still on the type belief (a consequence of Gödel's
> incompleteness).
>
> To know that 1+ 1 = 2, you need to
>
> 1) believe that 1 + 1 = 2, but you need also that
>
> 2) it is the case that 1 + 1 = 2   (in your "reality")
>
> If you put arithmetical realism on the table, anyone believing that 1 + 1
> = 2, knows that 1 + 1 = 2. This needs some "reality" satisfying the fact
> that 1+1=2, and we do suspect its existence indeed, as the structure (N, 0,
> s, +, *) taught in high school.
>
> Usually "rational belief" in a large sense is axiomatized by the modal
> axiom K
>
> B(x -> y) ->(Bx -> By),
>
> with or without the necessitation rule (inferring Bx from x), but (almost)
> always with the modus ponens (inferring B from A -> B and A).
>
> Then a form of self-awareness is captured by the possible axioms Bx -> BBx.
>
> Gödel provability obeys that. That are the K4 reasoners. 4 is the name
> (sic) of the formula Bx -> BBx, as it was the main axiom of the fourth
> system by Lewis (S4).
>
> S4 is the knowledge theory. It is K4 together with the axiom Bx -> x.  By
> definition of knowledge, if you know x, x is true. If p were not true, i.e;
> if it was not the case that p, you would just be believing wrongly.
>
> Gödel's provability obeys K4 (indeed K4 + B(Bx->x)->Bx), but does not
> obeys Bx -> x, at least from the machine 3p points' of view on itself.
>
> But the conjunction of Bx & x does obeys S4 (indeed S4 +
> B(B(x->Bx)->x)->x, the Grzegorczyk formula).
>
> Set theoretically, knowledge is the intersection of your beliefs and truth.
>
> It can be explained that some machine, like PA and ZF, already understand
> (prove, or prove from some Dt conditional, or more) that their *personal*
> knowledge escape all possible 3p definitions.  They can't believe they are
> any machine. They still can bet on it, like "nature" apparently already did.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 3:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably) quantum.  But 
notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has N qubits it takes 2^N complex 
numbers to specify its state, BUT you can only retrieve N bits of information from it 
(c.f. Holevo's theorem).  So it doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits depending on the 
2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all results obtained in "parallel 
universes". This means that the 2^N computations have to occur in *some* sense.


But they pretend that the number 2^N is so large that it cannot exist in whole universe, 
much less in that little quantum computer and therefore there must be other worlds which 
contain these enormous number of bits.  What Holevo's theorem shows is the one can regard 
all those interference terms as mere calculation fictions in going from N bit inputs to N 
bit outputs.  It is conceptually no different than doing a calculation in ordinary 
probability theory: I start with some initial conditions and I introduce a probability 
distribution and compute a probability for some event.  In that intermediate step I 
introduced a continuous probability distribution which implies an *infinite* number of 
bits.  Nobody thinks this requires an infinite number of worlds.


Brent

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 2:07 AM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King > wrote:


Dear Bruno,

  Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category
ofcomputer/universal-numbers and physical realities? That way we can avoid 
a lot of
problems!
   I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view that 
the
material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status and the 
assumption
that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and its measures) is 
illusory.
I would like to be wrong in this presumption!

The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as fundamental gets you no 
further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a "shut up and calculate" (or shut up and 
pray) ontology.


With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it, maybe there /is 
/just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended life forms like to look for 
explanations even beneath the apparent brute facts!


But "Everything happens" is just as useless as "God did it".  A theory that can explain 
anything fails to explain at all.


Brent

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 1:56 AM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King > wrote:


Hi LizR,

 Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants are 
connected
to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth change between 
them."
does not explain anything. I have read just about every book and paper that 
attempts
to explain time away. All fail on this point. None offer any reason for the 
illusion
of change to be there in the first place. If we point to a sequence (of 
numbers,
events, states, whatever) we still need to explain how that particular 
sequence is
the one that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".


A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie stacked on top of 
each other. The books, papers etc you read are not attempting to "explain time away" - 
they are attempting to explain how time arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I 
suspect that you are betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so 
I may be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)


You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the laws of physics. In 
the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the laws of physics are - equations 
which describe how things change over time. They describe a block universe.


Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has to be an 
external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or otherwise occurs. In 
"classical" relativity this question is answered by saying that the block universe is 
the only possible outcome of the laws of physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we 
have a Laplace's demon type answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a 
broader answer by allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to 
occur. A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events, because 
all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.


But QM requires initial conditions too.  Do you propose a multiverse in which all possible 
(logically non-contradictory) initial conditions obtain?


Brent



That answers the question of how this particular sequence "just happens" for both GR 
/and /QM!


:-)
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread meekerdb

On 12/30/2013 1:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:59, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 4:41 PM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen > wrote:


Liz,

Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the universal
processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the computations 
compute
dimensional space and CLOCK time.

So an external time dimension is required.

So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less 
computations...I'll try.


This shouldn't be any harder than imagining Bruno's Turing machine computing 
everything...including space and time.


Space, time and physical things are not computed. They emerge in the view of 
"self-aware" Löbian machine, which exist in arithmetic.


But not all of arithmetic is computed by the UD, so how can you be sure that this Lobian 
machine emerges?  How does it emerge?  And if there is one, aren't there indefinitely many 
emerging?


Brent

The universal machine does not compute everything---only the sigma_1 truth. With comp 
"everything" is the whole arithmetical truth, not just all computations.  It is also the 
truth about those computations, and 99,999 % of those truth are not computed by any 
machine. Goldbach conjecture is true of false, but not computed. It may be be proved by 
this or that machine, but that is independent of its truth or falsity.


To understand comp, you need only to conceive that some can have the faith of surviving 
with a digital brain. The TOE itself asks you just to believe in addition and 
multiplication.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 15:25, Alberto G. Corona wrote:





2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 

On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

All,

In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory"  
I'm starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an  
important and separate issue from previous discussions.



1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental  
reality, we know external reality only filtered through the  
structures of our own minds. What we really know is only our own  
mental model of external reality which is provably very very  
different than actual external reality.


2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental  
reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably  
effectively within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge  
of external reality we could not even function within it and thus  
could not exist. So our very existence in actual reality  
demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of it. (This true  
knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather than the  
physical world we believe it to be.)


That are belief, not knowledge.

Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical  
deductions based on the belief on + and succ ?



That one is still on the type belief (a consequence of Gödel's  
incompleteness).


To know that 1+ 1 = 2, you need to

1) believe that 1 + 1 = 2, but you need also that

2) it is the case that 1 + 1 = 2   (in your "reality")

If you put arithmetical realism on the table, anyone believing that 1  
+ 1 = 2, knows that 1 + 1 = 2. This needs some "reality" satisfying  
the fact that 1+1=2, and we do suspect its existence indeed, as the  
structure (N, 0, s, +, *) taught in high school.


Usually "rational belief" in a large sense is axiomatized by the modal  
axiom K


B(x -> y) ->(Bx -> By),

with or without the necessitation rule (inferring Bx from x), but  
(almost) always with the modus ponens (inferring B from A -> B and A).


Then a form of self-awareness is captured by the possible axioms Bx ->  
BBx.


Gödel provability obeys that. That are the K4 reasoners. 4 is the name  
(sic) of the formula Bx -> BBx, as it was the main axiom of the fourth  
system by Lewis (S4).


S4 is the knowledge theory. It is K4 together with the axiom Bx -> x.   
By definition of knowledge, if you know x, x is true. If p were not  
true, i.e; if it was not the case that p, you would just be believing  
wrongly.


Gödel's provability obeys K4 (indeed K4 + B(Bx->x)->Bx), but does not  
obeys Bx -> x, at least from the machine 3p points' of view on itself.


But the conjunction of Bx & x does obeys S4 (indeed S4 + B(B(x->Bx)- 
>x)->x, the Grzegorczyk formula).


Set theoretically, knowledge is the intersection of your beliefs and  
truth.


It can be explained that some machine, like PA and ZF, already  
understand (prove, or prove from some Dt conditional, or more) that  
their *personal* knowledge escape all possible 3p definitions.  They  
can't believe they are any machine. They still can bet on it, like  
"nature" apparently already did.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Alberto G. Corona
2013/12/30 Bruno Marchal 

>
> On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>
>  All,
>>
>> In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory" I'm
>> starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important and
>> separate issue from previous discussions.
>>
>>
>> 1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality, we
>> know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own
>> minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external reality
>> which is provably very very different than actual external reality.
>>
>> 2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental
>> reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively
>> within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external reality
>> we could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very
>> existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of
>> it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather
>> than the physical world we believe it to be.)
>>
>
> That are belief, not knowledge.
>
> Then, what is knowledge? the one derived from mathematical deductions
based on the belief on + and succ ?


> Standard theories of knowledge accepts the axiom Know(p) -> p.  (If I know
> p, then it is the case that p).
>
>
>
>
>
>> 3. External reality is a consistent logical structure.
>>
>
> What do you mean by reality and external reality. You make a strong
> assumption here.
>
>
>
>
>  It is computed,
>>
>
> That is so strong that it is inconsistent.
>
>
>
>
>  and for it to be computed it must follow consistent logical rules.
>>
>> 4. Therefore the only real test of truth is its internal logical
>> consistency over the entire scope of knowledge. We can not directly compare
>> our knowledge to the external world because it is filtered through the
>> structures of our own senses and minds, but we do know that our knowledge
>> is truth to the extent it is internally self-consistent over maximum scope.
>>
>
> Knowledge needs correctness ([]p -> p), but consistency is much weaker
> ([]f -> f). Correct implies consistent, but consistent does not imply
> correct.
>
>
>
>
>
>> 5. In fact this is the actual working basis of scientific method,
>> forensics, our successful functioning in daily life and in all human
>> endeavors that seek truth. Namely is the body of knowledge in question
>> internally consistent. If it is not then something is UNtrue.
>>
>> This is the Consistency Theory of Knowledge. Consistency over maximum
>> scope IS truth, the only truth possible to know.
>>
>
> You are not using those terms with the usual meaning. I guess you mean
> "belief" when you say "knowledge".
> Machine's knowledge is not definable by machine.
> Machine's consistency is definable by machine, but not provable by
> consistent machine.
>
>
>
>
>
>> There is and can be no direct knowledge of truth, there is only
>> consistency.
>>
>> This applies to all types of truth, from the logical structures in daily
>> life moment to moment, as well as to knowledge of a "Final Theory".
>>
>>
>> There is however one important exception. Our mental model of reality is
>> part of the actual external reality, and we do have direct knowledge of
>> that. The truth of that is the thing itself. But its truth is an internal
>> mental model of external reality, not the external reality it pretends to
>> be.
>>
>
> The truth of that is consciousness, which is undoubtable and incorrigible,
> but that does not say much on the nature of the "external reality", if that
> exists.
>
> Bruno
>
>
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
>
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Re: The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 12:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


All,

In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory"  
I'm starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an  
important and separate issue from previous discussions.



1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental  
reality, we know external reality only filtered through the  
structures of our own minds. What we really know is only our own  
mental model of external reality which is provably very very  
different than actual external reality.


2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental  
reality to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably  
effectively within it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge  
of external reality we could not even function within it and thus  
could not exist. So our very existence in actual reality  
demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of it. (This true  
knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather than the  
physical world we believe it to be.)


That are belief, not knowledge.

Standard theories of knowledge accepts the axiom Know(p) -> p.  (If I  
know p, then it is the case that p).






3. External reality is a consistent logical structure.


What do you mean by reality and external reality. You make a strong  
assumption here.






It is computed,


That is so strong that it is inconsistent.




and for it to be computed it must follow consistent logical rules.

4. Therefore the only real test of truth is its internal logical  
consistency over the entire scope of knowledge. We can not directly  
compare our knowledge to the external world because it is filtered  
through the structures of our own senses and minds, but we do know  
that our knowledge is truth to the extent it is internally self- 
consistent over maximum scope.


Knowledge needs correctness ([]p -> p), but consistency is much weaker  
([]f -> f). Correct implies consistent, but consistent does not imply  
correct.






5. In fact this is the actual working basis of scientific method,  
forensics, our successful functioning in daily life and in all human  
endeavors that seek truth. Namely is the body of knowledge in  
question internally consistent. If it is not then something is UNtrue.


This is the Consistency Theory of Knowledge. Consistency over  
maximum scope IS truth, the only truth possible to know.


You are not using those terms with the usual meaning. I guess you mean  
"belief" when you say "knowledge".

Machine's knowledge is not definable by machine.
Machine's consistency is definable by machine, but not provable by  
consistent machine.






There is and can be no direct knowledge of truth, there is only  
consistency.


This applies to all types of truth, from the logical structures in  
daily life moment to moment, as well as to knowledge of a "Final  
Theory".



There is however one important exception. Our mental model of  
reality is part of the actual external reality, and we do have  
direct knowledge of that. The truth of that is the thing itself. But  
its truth is an internal mental model of external reality, not the  
external reality it pretends to be.


The truth of that is consciousness, which is undoubtable and  
incorrigible, but that does not say much on the nature of the  
"external reality", if that exists.


Bruno


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The Nature of Truth

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

In response to the discussion of the possibility of a "Final Theory" I'm 
starting a new topic on the Nature of Truth since this is an important and 
separate issue from previous discussions.


1, it is impossible to directly know the external fundamental reality, we 
know external reality only filtered through the structures of our own 
minds. What we really know is only our own mental model of external reality 
which is provably very very different than actual external reality.

2, However we can easily prove that we do know external fundamental reality 
to an extent sufficient for us to function reasonably effectively within 
it. If we didn't have some actual true knowledge of external reality we 
could not even function within it and thus could not exist. So our very 
existence in actual reality demonstrates we do have some true knowledge of 
it. (This true knowledge consists of snippets of logical structure rather 
than the physical world we believe it to be.)

3. External reality is a consistent logical structure. It is computed, and 
for it to be computed it must follow consistent logical rules.

4. Therefore the only real test of truth is its internal logical 
consistency over the entire scope of knowledge. We can not directly compare 
our knowledge to the external world because it is filtered through the 
structures of our own senses and minds, but we do know that our knowledge 
is truth to the extent it is internally self-consistent over maximum scope.

5. In fact this is the actual working basis of scientific method, 
forensics, our successful functioning in daily life and in all human 
endeavors that seek truth. Namely is the body of knowledge in question 
internally consistent. If it is not then something is UNtrue.

This is the Consistency Theory of Knowledge. Consistency over maximum scope 
IS truth, the only truth possible to know.

There is and can be no direct knowledge of truth, there is only consistency.

This applies to all types of truth, from the logical structures in daily 
life moment to moment, as well as to knowledge of a "Final Theory".


There is however one important exception. Our mental model of reality is 
part of the actual external reality, and we do have direct knowledge of 
that. The truth of that is the thing itself. But its truth is an internal 
mental model of external reality, not the external reality it pretends to 
be.

Edgar

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 10:30, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Stephen, Jason, Liz,

The answer is very simple when one understands there are two kinds  
of time. Present moment P-time is the processor cycle of the  
computations, and the computations compute clock time.


The computations MUST take place in time of some sort to compute  
anything. The fact that there is a logical sequence that isn't  
moving gives us nothing.


You are right: you don't get anything with only

0, s(0), s(s(0)), ...

But you get the subjective time and possible relatively objective 3p  
time from the sequence above, once you agree with the laws of numbers:  
explicitly:



x + 0 = x
x + s(y) = s(x + y)

 x *0 = 0
 x*s(y) = x*y + x

Arithmetic contains all diophantine approximation of all ... soccer  
cups, and things like that, like the collison between the Milky Way  
and Andromeda. But the 1p (consciousness) emerges "really" only in the  
limiting glue of the diophantine solutions, and those might not be  
solution of any particular diophantine equation.


Bruno



All comps, including Bruno's, must face this problem which Liz  
properly raises


OK, I'm ducking, but nevertheless it's the only reasonable  
explanation!

:-)

Edgar

On Monday, December 30, 2013 12:43:34 AM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King  
wrote:

Dear Jason,

  You seem to be ignoring the role of the transitory that is  
involved in the discussion here. The fact is that we are asking  
questions about things we are trying to understand. Merely stating  
that this is that ignores the point. Where doth change emerge if it  
does not exist at all?
  This is my problem with Platonia, it has no explanation for the  
appearance of change. We can point at this or that (figuratively  
speaking) as an explanation, but the finger that points does not  
vanish upon alighting on the answer.



On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:36 AM, Jason Resch   
wrote:




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:20 AM, Stephen Paul King  
 wrote:

Hi Jason,

  So what is turning the "knob" on the values of y (or x)?

Nothing, the whole graph exists at once, but y varies as x varies.   
Why does x=1,y=9 have to be destroyed to make room for x=2,y=11?   
What does destroying the previous state add to x=2,y=11 that wasn't  
there before?


Now consider we aren't dealing with a simple line, but an equation  
tracing the interactions of all the particle interactions in your  
brain.  If x=1 corresponds to your consciousness in time 1, and x=2  
corresponds to your consciousness in time 2, then how would  
destroying the x=1 state change your conscious state for x=2?


Jason



On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 10:40 PM, Jason Resch   
wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 9:40 PM, Stephen Paul King  
 wrote:

Dear Brent,

   I have a persisting question. How is is that we can get away with  
using verbs (implying actions) when we are describing timeless  
entities?



In the same way we can say that y increases as x increases, in the  
graph of y = 2x + 7


Jason


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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal

Edgar,

On 30 Dec 2013, at 10:45, LizR wrote:


On 30 December 2013 22:40, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:
Bruno,

Give me a link to the FOAR list and I'll check it out... I can't  
find it on Google groups


http://groups.google.com/group/foar.

it stands for "Fabric of Alternative Reality" - (the title comes  
from the book by David Deutsch I recommended you to read to help you  
better understand the MWI.)



Thanks (for Edgar). The guy deriving space from time is Allen Francom.  
You might google on "FOAR time space Allen Francom", perhaps. I guess  
he discusses this on other lists too. He wrote papers on that subject.


Bruno

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Pierz


On Monday, December 30, 2013 10:18:59 AM UTC+11, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>
> Pierz,
>
> If block time is actual and something actually exists in past times then 
> the energy must actually exist there and be real also. Thus a new universe 
> of energy is being created at every new moment of time. Energy is not being 
> converted from one form to another but stored in each moment of past time. 
> Block time does violate conservation of energy. I know there are ways 
> people try to weasel out of this but they are not convincing.
>
> Block time is simply not possible, and as I've pointed out before SR and 
> the associated STc Principle conclusively falsify it. Not only that no one 
> who accepts the block time nonsense has been able to come up with any 
> convincing physics based reason why we exist in a present moment, or even 
> seem to exist in a present moment, since you don't believe there actually 
> is one.
>

I believe there is one, sure! At least from the point of view of any 
embedded observer. It's true that the phenomenon of the present moment is a 
curious one, but it really boils down to the problem of consciousness or 
the first-person perspective. Objective (3-p, in the terminology of this 
list) descriptions of the world can (and must) disregard it entirely. As 
for SR falsifying the block universe/block time, that is a complete 
inversion of the truth. See this, for instance: 
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/freedom/special_relativity.html. 

But even if the present moment is somehow grounded in physics as opposed to 
consciousness, that does not show that this present moment encompasses the 
whole universe as you insist it must.


> Best,
> Edgar
>
>
>
>
> On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:
>>
>> Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
>> conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
>> comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
>> early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
>> ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
>> logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
>> universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
>> but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
>> self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
>> questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
>> brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
>> revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
>> rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
>> visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.
>
>

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 09:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 11:58 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Dec 2013, at 20:35, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 6:10 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Liz,

No, it is clear that your here is not the same as mine because  
you are not here. However it is quite clear that you absolutely  
must be doing something in the exact same present moment that I  
write this sentence. That is the present moment that we share.


No, that's not clear at all.  Since you and Liz are not in the  
same place and the speed of light is the same in all inertial  
frames, there exist a whole range of Liz's moments which may  
correspond to your moment depending on which moving frame is  
arbitrarily chosen to determine simultaneity.


Yes. Presentism does not make sense with special relativity.  
"present" is an indexical. No need and in fact no means, to reify  
the "present".








Do you somehow imagine that there is some gap in your time line  
that takes you out of existence as I write this sentence? If  
there isn't then you must agree we do share a common present  
moment...


But it is not uniquely defined.


A long time ago, in my childhood, I saw a movie with a friend. My  
friend found the movie boring, and he felt like if it never ends:  
time was going slowly, for him.  But I loved that movie, and time  
was going very quickly for me. We discussed that after, and I was  
troubled. Was we still at the same moment?
Well, with computationalism, that question just does not make any  
sense.


Being at the same event, same point of spacetime, should still make  
sense.



For immaterial Newtonian-like point. If not we can't hardly breath.  
Our bodies do have volume. OK?


Bruno



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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 09:02, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,

  Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of  
computer/universal-numbers and physical realities?



Gibve me the axioms. I know the dominical categories (of Turing  
morphism), but just to get the definition needs a 15h course in  
actegory theory, which is more complex than anything we talk about here.


Just gives me the axioms (not a link, please).




That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
   I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic  
view that the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in  
ontological status


But that is a consequence of computationalism. Not an assumption.




and the assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of  
change (and its measures) is illusory.



It is not an illusion, from inside. It is only an illusion from God's  
view, which we have to ignore (when living on this terrestrial plane  
at least).


What you do is putting your feet in God's shoes, look at the reality,  
see that it is static, and then asking yourself where change can come  
from. The answer is only, look closely to what the entities appearing  
"inside" are saying, and you can see how and why they are "deluded" in  
believing in time.





I would like to be wrong in this presumption!


Eventually it is also a sort of confusion between 1p (with time and  
consciousness) and 3p, without time, and without consciousness.
Your argument against time is isomorphic to the argument that  
consciousness does not exist as you can look everywhere, in all brain,  
and you will not see it. You will see only 3p interaction. 1p-Time  
(and with comp 3p-time) are similar. They are relative internal  
realities.


Bruno




On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 2:49 AM, Bruno Marchal   
wrote:


On 29 Dec 2013, at 20:30, meekerdb wrote:

On 12/29/2013 5:59 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
Liz,

Reality doesn't seem to have any difficulty computing the results of  
random choices.



If reality computes, then reality is a computer/universal-number. If  
reality is physical reality, then this is the digital physics  
thesis, which is self-contradictory (due to the UDA).
Also, computing and obtaining a random result is contradictory by  
itself, as computing is determinated. It can make sense with a  
quantum computer, or with self-duplication, (or both like in  
Everett), so you might clarify here. Are you (Edgar, Brent) assuming  
a quantum computer? With comp this is a sort of treachery, as far as  
we are concerned with the fundamental reality.


Bruno


That's how practically all computations occur. If we assume, or  
define, reality as computational then reality is computing random  
results by definition. It's obviously something that reality math  
does quite well.


It's not Church-Turing, but it might be the way the world works.

Brent

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 09:01, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 11:42 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Dec 2013, at 20:25, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want  
generate only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm  
generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ...  
generates all random finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in  
base 6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter  
combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short  
sequences which indeed will depend of the language used (here  
combinators).


Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by  
adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.


It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base,  
are random in that sense.


Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some  
base, but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the  
base with the number in the message. If you fix the base, then  
indeed 10 will be a compression of that particular number base,  
for that language, and it is part of incompressibility theory  
that no definition exist working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory  
only holds in the limit.


The definition will work for all numbers reasonably bigger than the  
code of the universal machine used. That is what determine the  
constant. Not all numbers are small relatively to the size of the  
universal number/machine used to compress information.


Maybe you can clarify this point which seemed to arise in my  
discussion with JR.  Are you talking about numbers or about strings  
of digits that name numbers?


I am talking about string of digits (naming or not numbers). Sometimes  
I call them number, as all strings on a fixed alphabet can be seen as  
a number written in the base defined by that alphabet. But compression  
is a notion concerning strings of symbols.


Bruno




Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 08:49, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 9:05 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 11:43 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 6:59 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
That is the only way to make progress.  Propose theories, and  
falsify them.  Ockham says between theories that make equal  
predictions, simpler ones are better, and it for theories of equal  
simplicity, ones that can explain more are also better.  Anti- 
realist interpretations of QM have no adequate explanation for  
quantum computers.


There's nothing "anti-realist" about relational or Bayesian  
subjective interpretations, they just don't reify the wave function  
as you would like them to.  Bohm used to make the same complaint  
that other theories weren't "realistic".  Fuchs et al have as good  
an explanation of quantum computers as any dynamic quantum system,  
there's nothing special about computers - it's just not one that  
appeals to you.


Computers in particular, while not special, are good examples  
because they illustrate that nothing known in our universe (aside  
from the superposition) has the necessarily complexity to produce  
answers to certain complex problems.


But that's essentially everything, since everything is (presumably)  
quantum.  But notice the limitation of quantum computers, if it has  
N qubits it takes 2^N complex numbers to specify its state, BUT you  
can only retrieve N bits of information from it (c.f. Holevo's  
theorem).  So it doesn't really act like 2^N parallel computers.



OK, but nobody pretended the contrary.  You can still extract N bits  
depending on the 2^N results, by doing some Fourier transfrom on all  
results obtained in "parallel universes". This means that the 2^N  
computations have to occur in *some* sense.










They say "don't ask" on fundamental questions, which is never a  
good attitude to have in science.


That's your straw man attribution.  You've apparently stopped  
asking and decided you have the answer.


I would rather choose a speculative interpretation that turns out  
to be wrong then say QM needs no interpretation, nor should we look  
for one, as the paper you recently cited suggested.



Brent
The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even try to   
interpret, they mainly make models. By a model is meant a   
mathematical construct which, with the addition of certain verbal   
interpretations, describes observed phenomena. The justification  
of  such a mathematical construct is solely and precisely that it  
is  expected to work.

--—John von Neumann

If Fuchs et al operated according to this quote, they would see  
that a model is not the same thing as the description/predictions  
of observed phenomena that it makes.


But it could be.  You only know the observations - you don't know  
the reality in itself.




If we identify reality only with observed phenomena, what is to  
prevent us from falling into solipsism or idealism?


Solipism doesn't seem to work well.  When I kick people they kick  
back.  :-)


Hmm... I already told you about the (lucid) dream of an Indian master,  
who enjoyed feeling superior to his dreamed disciples.
But one day (well one night), one of the dreamed people in the  
audience stood up, and told him "well, if you believe that we are not  
existing because you dream us, explain me who is waking you up right  
now, and he stroke him with some wood until ... he woke up!" Kicking  
back is not an absolute criteria for reality.


But I agree with you, solipsism, perhaps even in dream, does not work  
too well. Note, though, that the first person is factually solipsist,  
even if not doctrinally so, as she can *bet* on others and 3p things,  
fortunately.


Bruno






Brent
"I'm a Solipist, and I must say I'm surprised there aren't more of  
us."

  -- letter to Bertrand Russell

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Pierz
I have to admit I'm starting to derive a weird kind of enjoyment from this 
debate. Liz and frequentflyer: you guys are my heroes. Though "anodyne" 
means "pain-relieving", which is not how I would describe Roger's theories. 
I would choose the word "jejune" instead. 

Edgar, ole buddy ole pal. You're wrong mate. Has some tiny skerrick of the 
possibility of this osmosed through the blood-brain barrier yet? Take your 
long "proof" of the common present moment. Once again the flaw is clear to 
everyone but you. You describe a graph with lines describing the two 
separated travellers. Now you draw a vertical line from one to the other 
and thus "prove" they share the same moment at all times. The problem is 
your privileging of the vertical line - ie the one orthogonal to traveller 
'a'. There are many lines that could be used to connect the two travellers' 
moments from other frames of reference. There is no single "vertical" line 
that can be privileged above others. 

Sure, when two people shake hands they share a common moment so to speak, 
because the event is a single point in space time. The problem is proving 
simultaneity while the observers are apart.

I'm going to give you a challenge here. Take two spatially separated 
events. How do you know if these two events occur at the same time (ie, in 
the same common present moment)? I presume you think they either shared a 
CPM or didn't, that the universal line of time either passed through the 
two events together or in sequence. Please show how you will prove one or 
the other. If you can suggest an experiment to prove this, I'll give you 
$100. If your experiment involves clocks, however, well we know that 
simultaneity will be relative to inertial frame of reference, so that won't 
do.

Brent, you seem to be both highly knowledgeable on physics and relativity 
and impartial on the subject of Edgar, so you can decide if he has met the 
challenge. i.e., if you say cough up, I cough up. Hope you don't mind the 
burden of responsibility!

BUT, if I don't have to cough up, then I submit that it is established that 
we only share a unique common present moment at exact points of coincidence 
in space-time, e.g., the handshake, and that your theory is worthless for 
all practical purposes (and therefore wrong).


On Saturday, December 28, 2013 10:57:18 AM UTC+11, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
>
> All,
>
> I haven't made any progress getting the idea of a common universal present 
> moment across so here's another approach with a thought experiment
>
> To start consider two observers standing next to each other. Do they share 
> the same common present moment? Yes, of course. Any disagreement?
>
> Now consider those two observers, one in New York, one in San Francisco. 
> Do they share the same common present moment? In other words is the one in 
> San Fran doing something (doesn't matter what) at the exact same time the 
> one in New is doing something? Yes, of course they do share the same 
> present moment. Any disagreement?
>
> Now consider an observer on earth and an observer in some far away galaxy. 
> But with the condition that they share the exact same relativistic frame in 
> the sense that there is zero relative motion and the gravities of their 
> planets are exactly the same so that clock time is passing at the exact 
> same rate on both their clocks.
>
> Now are these two observers sharing the exact same present moment as well? 
> Note that we just extended the exact same relativistic circumstances of the 
> previous two examples so there can be no relativistic considerations. Do 
> these two observers also share the exact same present moment as well? Yes, 
> of course they do. Not only do they share the exact same present moment but 
> they also share the exact same clock time t value. Any disagreement?
>
> OK, if you agree then you have to take a partial step towards accepting my 
> thesis of a common universal present moment. You now must agree that there 
> is at least a common universal present moment across the universe for all 
> observers in the same relativistic frame.
>
> Agreed?
>
> Edgar
>

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 08:25, LizR wrote:

I admit I have difficulty understanding how Bruno's UD "runs" inside  
arithmetic




Don't push me too much as I really want to explain this to you :)

It is not completely obvious, especially if we want be 100% rigorous.

There are not so much textbook which do that entirely correctly. But  
here are three best one:


Boolos and Jeffrey (and Burgess for late edition).
http://www.amazon.com/Computability-Logic-George-S-Boolos/dp/0521701465

Epstein and Carnielli   (out of stock!)
http://www.amazon.com/Computability-Computable-Functions-Foundations-Mathematics/dp/0534103561/ref=sr_1_2?s=books&ie=UTF8&qid=1388400218&sr=1-2&keywords=epstein+and+carnielli

Matiyasevitch
http://www.amazon.com/Hilberts-10th-Problem-Foundations-Computing/dp/0262132958/ref=sr_1_1?s=books&ie=UTF8&qid=1388400285&sr=1-1&keywords=matiyasevich

Matiyasevitch shows explicitly how to emulate any Turing machine with  
diophantine polynomials.


Oh, well, there is also the old good Stephen Kleene 1952 book, and  
many by Smullyan (although like Gödel they do that in PA or  
equivalent, and not in RA, which ask for more verification.  
Matiyasevitc shows that for diophantine equation, which means that it  
makes the RA universal quantifier not needed, and so gives the  
stronger result.


The main deep idea is already in Gödel 1931.

May be the shortest path is to explain the phi_i and use Kleene  
predicate to explain that equalities involving the phi_i are made  
arithmetical by the use of Kleene's predicate, but this needs the  
Gödel coding, which is long to describe, and even longer to prove that  
it does correctly the job.


I am thinking how to explain this without going in the technical  
details.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 06:28, Jason Resch wrote:

In the space of all possible movies, the ones that are watchable or  
meaningful to human viewers would all be highly compressible. The  
ones that are random snow, despite containing more information,  
would not make interesting movies.  So maybe there is something to  
your idea that interesting is related to short descriptions. We did  
evolve to find entirely predictable and entirely unpredictable  
things boring, there may be some ideal blend of predictability and  
unpredicability that we find most engaging.



Yes, it is the redundancy of the information related to the notion of  
universal machine. It is contained in Post numbers, which is a sort of  
UD by itself (when seen in some way): 0,  
00110001011000100101001001110 ... with nth digit = 0 or 1  
according to the fact that the nth programs (with 0 input) stop or  
not. (It is an halting oracle, and of course is not computable, but it  
is compressible).


The non computable maximal compression of Post number gives Chaitin  
Omega number, which delete all redundancies in the UD, and thus the  
whole physics!


Anything interesting and beautiful is highly redundant, like the  
Mandelbrot set for example.


In recursion theory, it is the difference between two  
complementarities: the simple/immune complementarity discovered by  
Post (and rediscovered by Chaitin in term of algorithmic compression)  
on one par, and the creative/productive complementarity, also  
discovered by Post, where "creative" has been shown later to be  
equivalent with Turing universality (or sigma_1 completeness) by John  
Myhill, (using Kleene second recursion theorem).


Bruno







http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 05:54, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 7:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 6:58 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 3:49 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:42 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we  
want generate only that numbers. but a simple counting  
algorithm generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,   
6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite  
incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668  
in base 6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the  
shorter combinators to generate it is as lengthy  
as  the  
string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short  
sequences which indeed will depend of the language used (here  
combinators).


Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal  
by adding some constant, which will depend of the universal  
language.


It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any  
base, are random in that sense.


Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some  
base, but if you allow change of base, you will need to send  
the base with the number in the message. If you fix the base,  
then indeed 10 will be a compression of that particular number  
base, for that language, and it is part of incompressibility  
theory that no definition exist working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the  
theory only holds in the limit.


Brent


Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are  
more 2 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit  
numbers than 2 digit numbers, and so on.  For any string you can  
represent using a shorter string,  
another   
"shorter string" must necessarily be displaced.  You can't keep  
replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't  
enough of them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy  
must represent some strings by larger ones.  In fact, the  
average size of all possible compressed messages (with some  
upper-bound length n) can never be smaller than the average size  
of all uncompressed messages.


The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because  
they are tailored to represent some class of messages with  
shorter strings, while making (the vast majority of) other  
messages slightly larger.


A good explanation.

Thanks.

But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size  
doesn't imply that any particular number is incompressible.


That is true if you consider the size of the compression program  
to be of no relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a  
number of very small strings map directly to very large ones.


  So isn't it the case that every finite number string is  
compressible in some algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying  
6999500235148668 is random, but 11 is not, except  
relative to some given compression algorithm.


Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If  
you consider the size of the minimum string and algorithm  
together, necessary to represent some number, you will find there  
are some patterns of data that are  
more  compressible  
than others.  In your previous example with base  
6999500235148668, you would need to include  
both  that base, and  
the string "10" in order to encode 6999500235148669.


But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the  
base used to write it down? Did I have to write down "And this is  
in base 10" to show that 6999500235148668 is random?  There seems  
to be an equivocation here on "computing a number" and "computing  
a representation of a number".




A number containing regular patterns in some base, will also  
contain regular patterns in some other base (even if they are not  
obvious to us), compression algorithms are good at recognizing them.


The text of this sentence may not seem very redundant, but english  
text can generally be compressed somewhere between 20% - 30% of  
its original size.  If you convert a number like "555" to  
base 2, its patterns should be more evident in the pattern of bits.


 For the majority of numbers, you will find the Kolmogorov  
complexity of the number to almost always be on the order of the 

Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 21:02, Stephen Paul King wrote:

> Dear Bruno,
>
>   Why do you not consider an isomorphism between the Category of 
> computer/universal-numbers
> and physical realities? That way we can avoid a lot of problems!
>I think that it is because of your insistence of the Platonic view that
> the material/physical realm is somehow lesser in ontological status and the
> assumption that a timeless totality = the appearance of change (and its
> measures) is illusory. I would like to be wrong in this presumption!
>
> The problem is that assuming the material / physical realm as fundamental
gets you no further than assuming that "God did it!" It's a "shut up and
calculate" (or shut up and pray) ontology.

With materialism you just have a "brute fact" - well, maybe that's it,
maybe there *is *just a brute, unexplained fact. But us ape descended life
forms like to look for explanations even beneath the apparent brute facts!

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 03:59, Jason Resch wrote:





On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 6:52 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 3:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:





Everett's idea is more properly a theory. It explains the phenomenon  
of collapse without supposing it is the other ideas of QM that try  
to interpret what is seen (without offering any explanation for them).


As Deutsch says, we wouldn't call dinosaurs an interpretation of  
fossils when they are the very thing that explains the appearance of  
the fossils. So it is with Everett and collapse.



I agree. if people read Everett they will see that he does not talk  
about a new interpretation of QM, but on a new formulation of QM,  
which is simply the SWE.


I consider that "MW interpretation" is already a misleading statement.  
Everett proposed a new theory, which is exactly Copenhagen minus the  
collapse.


Then Everett explains in that theory where the beliefs in collapse  
comes from.


Comp does the same, and explains, constructively, where the belief in  
the universal wave (or matrix or path) come from.


The conceptual progresses are the following

1)
- SWE
- Collapse
- Dualist theory of mind (unintelligible as such)

2)
- SWE
- Comp

3)
- Comp.



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 22:30, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:

> Stephen, Jason, Liz,
>
> The answer is very simple when one understands there are two kinds of
> time. Present moment P-time is the processor cycle of the computations, and
> the computations compute clock time.
>
> The computations MUST take place in time of some sort to compute anything.
>

This is, of course, a circular argument.

>
The fact that there is a logical sequence that isn't moving gives us
> nothing. All comps, including Bruno's, must face this problem which Liz
> properly raises
>

This is, of course, only true if one has failed to grasp the block universe
view.


> OK, I'm ducking, but nevertheless it's the only reasonable explanation!
> :-)
>

Hmm, looks like a smidgeon of progress here.


>
> Edgar
>
>
> On Monday, December 30, 2013 12:43:34 AM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>
>> Dear Jason,
>>
>>   You seem to be ignoring the role of the transitory that is involved in
>> the discussion here. The fact is that we are asking questions about things
>> we are trying to understand. Merely stating that this is that ignores the
>> point. Where doth change emerge if it does not exist at all?
>>   This is my problem with Platonia, it has no explanation for the
>> appearance of change. We can point at this or that (figuratively speaking)
>> as an explanation, but the finger that points does not vanish upon
>> alighting on the answer.
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:36 AM, Jason Resch  wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:20 AM, Stephen Paul King <
>>> step...@provensecure.com> wrote:
>>>
 Hi Jason,

   So what is turning the "knob" on the values of y (or x)?

>>>
>>> Nothing, the whole graph exists at once, but y varies as x varies.  Why
>>> does x=1,y=9 have to be destroyed to make room for x=2,y=11?  What does
>>> destroying the previous state add to x=2,y=11 that wasn't there before?
>>>
>>> Now consider we aren't dealing with a simple line, but an equation
>>> tracing the interactions of all the particle interactions in your brain.
>>>  If x=1 corresponds to your consciousness in time 1, and x=2 corresponds to
>>> your consciousness in time 2, then how would destroying the x=1 state
>>> change your conscious state for x=2?
>>>
>>> Jason
>>>
>>>


 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 10:40 PM, Jason Resch wrote:


>
>
> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 9:40 PM, Stephen Paul King <
> step...@provensecure.com> wrote:
>
>> Dear Brent,
>>
>>I have a persisting question. How is is that we can get away with
>> using verbs (implying actions) when we are describing timeless entities?
>>
>>
>  In the same way we can say that y increases as x increases, in the
> graph of y = 2x + 7
>
> Jason
>
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>>
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>>
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>>
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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 20:53, Stephen Paul King wrote:

> Hi LizR,
>
>  Round and round we go... This sentence "It emerges because instants are
> connected to each other in a way that makes there appear to be smooth
> change between them." does not explain anything. I have read just about
> every book and paper that attempts to explain time away. All fail on this
> point. None offer any reason for the illusion of change to be there in the
> first place. If we point to a sequence (of numbers, events, states,
> whatever) we still need to explain how that particular sequence is the one
> that just "happened". No, it could not "Happen".
>

A good way to visualise a block universe is like the frames of a movie
stacked on top of each other. The books, papers etc you read are not
attempting to "explain time away" - they are attempting to explain how time
arises from the relevant equations. (Actually, I suspect that you are
betraying a personal bias against the idea by using that phrase, so I may
be wasting my typing fingers here! But anyway...)

You are asking what connects the frames together. The answer is the laws of
physics. In the Newtonian and Relativistic views this is what the laws of
physics are - equations which describe how things change over time. They
describe a block universe.

Asking why one sequence of events "just happened" is assuming there has to
be an external time in which one sequence is selected, or evolves, or
otherwise occurs. In "classical" relativity this question is answered by
saying that the block universe is the only possible outcome of the laws of
physics, assumed to be deterministic. So we have a Laplace's demon type
answer. Quantum theory, in the form of the MWI gives a broader answer by
allowing all events allowed by the probabalistic laws of physics to occur.
A block multiverse has no need to evolve or select a sequence of events,
because all sequences compatible with the laws of physics occur.

That answers the question of how this particular sequence "just happens"
for both GR *and *QM!

:-)

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Re: Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal

Dear John,

On 30 Dec 2013, at 03:11, John Mikes wrote:

We 'use' practical conclusions - yet should not draw final and  
universal ones on a totality we don't know. Call it Scientific  
humility.


I partially agree/disagree here.

We cannot draw "final conclusion".
I do agree with this, as we never know as such, and should doubt all  
our theories.


But we can, in the frame of some theory, draw locally "final" and  
universal conclusions. We must just keep in mind that they rely on the  
choice of a theory, and keep in mind that a theory is really "a  
question", and we must be willing to test and change the theory.


If not, your statement becomes a quite strong impossibility statements  
of fundamental theories. But science (agnosticism) should not be  
bounded purposefully, as this will just impose the last (often  
unconscious) fundamental theory on everybody. or worst it leads to  
instrumentalism, and to techniques without conscience (and human shit  
happens, in those case).


That leads also to cutting the budget for fundamental research, which  
is already not big ...


Bruno





http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 22:40, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:

> Bruno,
>
> Give me a link to the FOAR list and I'll check it out... I can't find it
> on Google groups
>

http://groups.google.com/group/foar.

it stands for "Fabric of Alternative Reality" - (the title comes from the
book by David Deutsch I recommended you to read to help you better
understand the MWI.)

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:59, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 4:41 PM, LizR wrote:

On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:
Liz,

Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the  
universal processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the  
computations compute dimensional space and CLOCK time.


So an external time dimension is required.

So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less  
computations...I'll try.


This shouldn't be any harder than imagining Bruno's Turing machine  
computing everything...including space and time.


Space, time and physical things are not computed. They emerge in the  
view of "self-aware" Löbian machine, which exist in arithmetic.
The universal machine does not compute everything---only the sigma_1  
truth. With comp "everything" is the whole arithmetical truth, not  
just all computations.  It is also the truth about those computations,  
and 99,999 % of those truth are not computed by any machine. Goldbach  
conjecture is true of false, but not computed. It may be be proved by  
this or that machine, but that is independent of its truth or falsity.


To understand comp, you need only to conceive that some can have the  
faith of surviving with a digital brain. The TOE itself asks you just  
to believe in addition and multiplication.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

Give me a link to the FOAR list and I'll check it out... I can't find it on 
Google groups

Thanks,
Edgar



On Monday, December 30, 2013 4:30:23 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>
> On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:36, meekerdb wrote:
>
>  On 12/29/2013 4:37 PM, LizR wrote:
>  
>  On 30 December 2013 13:02, Edgar L. Owen  >wrote:
>
>> Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer, 
>>
>>  Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious 
>> dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake! 
>> Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're just theories!
>>
>>   Pot, kettle... !
>   
>
> I've found Edgar's responses to be courteous and impersonal - even if 
> wrongheaded on the question of time.  But something like his idea of 
> deriving space from quantum events may be fruitful.  It's been considered 
> before, but never really worked out.  I don't think he can do it because 
> done properly it would also derive time from event relations, but I'd like 
> to know how he proposes to get space (aka "dimensional relations") from 
> events.
>
>
> May be he should discuss this with Allen Francom on the FOAR list, who 
> tries also to derive space from time and time delays.
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>
> Brent
>
>   
>  
>  
>  The last refuge of the forum poster who can't convince everyone that 
> he's* right is to start attacking the motives of his opponents and to 
> accuse them of lacking a sense of humour. Carry on in this direction much 
> further and you will be in contravention of Godwin's Law, and no one will 
> take you seriously ever again.
>
>  *PS sorry guys buy it does seem to usually be a "he", at least in my 
> experience.
>
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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:36, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 4:37 PM, LizR wrote:

On 30 December 2013 13:02, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:
Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred  
religious dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to  
burned at the stake! Lighten up guys and take a deep breath,  
they're just theories!


Pot, kettle... !


I've found Edgar's responses to be courteous and impersonal - even  
if wrongheaded on the question of time.  But something like his idea  
of deriving space from quantum events may be fruitful.  It's been  
considered before, but never really worked out.  I don't think he  
can do it because done properly it would also derive time from event  
relations, but I'd like to know how he proposes to get space (aka  
"dimensional relations") from events.


May be he should discuss this with Allen Francom on the FOAR list, who  
tries also to derive space from time and time delays.


Bruno





Brent





The last refuge of the forum poster who can't convince everyone  
that he's* right is to start attacking the motives of his opponents  
and to accuse them of lacking a sense of humour. Carry on in this  
direction much further and you will be in contravention of Godwin's  
Law, and no one will take you seriously ever again.


*PS sorry guys buy it does seem to usually be a "he", at least in  
my experience.


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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Stephen, Jason, Liz,

The answer is very simple when one understands there are two kinds of time. 
Present moment P-time is the processor cycle of the computations, and the 
computations compute clock time.

The computations MUST take place in time of some sort to compute anything. 
The fact that there is a logical sequence that isn't moving gives us 
nothing. All comps, including Bruno's, must face this problem which Liz 
properly raises

OK, I'm ducking, but nevertheless it's the only reasonable explanation!
:-)

Edgar

On Monday, December 30, 2013 12:43:34 AM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>
> Dear Jason,
>
>   You seem to be ignoring the role of the transitory that is involved in 
> the discussion here. The fact is that we are asking questions about things 
> we are trying to understand. Merely stating that this is that ignores the 
> point. Where doth change emerge if it does not exist at all? 
>   This is my problem with Platonia, it has no explanation for the 
> appearance of change. We can point at this or that (figuratively speaking) 
> as an explanation, but the finger that points does not vanish upon 
> alighting on the answer.
>
>
> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:36 AM, Jason Resch 
> > wrote:
>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Mon, Dec 30, 2013 at 12:20 AM, Stephen Paul King <
>> step...@provensecure.com > wrote:
>>
>>> Hi Jason,
>>>
>>>   So what is turning the "knob" on the values of y (or x)?
>>>
>>
>> Nothing, the whole graph exists at once, but y varies as x varies.  Why 
>> does x=1,y=9 have to be destroyed to make room for x=2,y=11?  What does 
>> destroying the previous state add to x=2,y=11 that wasn't there before?
>>
>> Now consider we aren't dealing with a simple line, but an equation 
>> tracing the interactions of all the particle interactions in your brain. 
>>  If x=1 corresponds to your consciousness in time 1, and x=2 corresponds to 
>> your consciousness in time 2, then how would destroying the x=1 state 
>> change your conscious state for x=2?
>>  
>> Jason
>>  
>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 10:40 PM, Jason Resch 
>>> 
>>> > wrote:
>>>



 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 9:40 PM, Stephen Paul King <
 step...@provensecure.com > wrote:

> Dear Brent,
>
>I have a persisting question. How is is that we can get away with 
> using verbs (implying actions) when we are describing timeless entities?
>
>
  In the same way we can say that y increases as x increases, in the 
 graph of y = 2x + 7

 Jason 

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:33, freqflyer07281972 wrote:

Far from it, really;-) I assure you, I wish you no burning at any  
stakes, whether literal or figurative. You are perfectly entitled to  
be as incorrect as you wish, especially in an area as solidly  
established as relativistic physics.


It's just that (a ma parte, at least), I feel a bit bad for you,  
because you seem really deluded and you are kind of embarrassing  
yourself with your (wrong) insistence that "no one gets you". I  
think we all get what you are saying (i.e. understand the ideas that  
words you use are trying to convey). All of the sentence strings you  
use are well-formed. It's just that the picture they create in  
logical space doesn't correspond with the physical reality we happen  
to inhabit. That's all. It's not a matter of being persecuted  
because of dogma. It's just that, if you bothered to review the  
relevant literature, you'd see that you were wrong.


But as I said before, and as you are showing again, I don't think  
there is any hope for you because you refuse to see things as they  
are.


One thing to be said in your favor: at least what you say is  
refutable, unlike Roger Clough, whose ideas are so vacuous and  
anodyne that they can't even be dignified by calling them "wrong".


I disagree. Roger Clough makes many statements. Some are theorem  
(necessary) in the comp theory, others are just consistent and open  
problem in comp, and still others are refuted by the comp theory.
Nevertheless,  his general view is more compatible with comp than the  
(often implicit) aristotelian view of most scientists.
(Yes, he is a bit awkward in the way he send some posts, but that does  
not really change their contents).


Bruno





Cheers!

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 7:02:05 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred  
religious dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to  
burned at the stake! Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're  
just theories!

:-)

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:
Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it  
violates conservation of energy) and sundry other statements  
exhibiting poor comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be  
exactly what you suspected early on: a crackpot. The question he put  
to you in which he asked if you ceased to exist at one point on his  
timeline reveals his basic error of logic. Everything must exist  
simultaneously with me, therefore there is a universal common  
present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow but Mr  
Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - self- 
published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously  
questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius:  
have a brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have  
a wrong revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against  
reason that every rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you  
are a misunderstood visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.


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Re: "humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are machines,"

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 02:04, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:42:20 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 Dec 2013, at 15:40, Craig Weinberg wrote:

"humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are  
machines,"


Who wrote this?

*any* ideally correct machines is unable to recognize the fact that  
they are machines.


Just someone on a Facebook thread, I forget who.

Anyone who says yes to the doctor then cannot be an ideally correct  
machine.


Almost correct. Anyone saying "yes for scientifically justifiable  
reason" to the doctor cannot be an ideally correct machine.
You *can* stay ideally correct if you are aware of the leap of faith,  
and "prey" a little bit.
That is why I insist on the "theological" aspect, (cf the needed  
faith) and why the ethic of comp is the right to say "no" to the doctor.


Bruno



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jason,

That's a totally off the wall answer. When the two shake hands it's not 
just photons that are interacting, it's the electrons, protons and neutrons 
of the matter of their hands which don't travel at the speed of light.

Goodness gracious!

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 10:24:34 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 8:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen 
> > wrote:
>
>> All,
>>
>> All,
>>
>> Once we accept the obvious observable fact that we share a common present 
>> moment when we are together we need to take the next step and establish 
>> that we also share a common present moment when we are separated in space. 
>> Only if we can prove that can we establish that the present moment is 
>> universal, that the same present moment is shared across the universe.
>>
>> Obviously we cannot establish this by direct observation due to the 
>> finite speed of light, but it is easy to prove with the following argument.
>>
>> Step 1: Two observers stand together with the same clock times on their 
>> watches and shake hands. By direct observation they confirm they share both 
>> the same actual present moment time, and the same clock time. 
>>
>> Step 2: One observer makes a 1 year space flight at relativistic 
>> acceleration while the other remains where he was. During this period both 
>> observers continuously exist in their own actual present moment, and their 
>> clocks appear to progress at a constant proper time rate.
>>
>> Step 3. The traveling observer returns and shakes hands with the observer 
>> who remained behind. Again, by direct observation they both confirm they 
>> both share the exact same actual present moment time but their clock times 
>> are no longer the same. Their actual present moment times are the same, but 
>> their clock times are not simultaneous.
>>
>
> They can interact, despite being in different times, because the time 
> dimension is length-contracted to be zero-length (as they are travelling 
> through the proper time dimension at the speed of light).
>
> Any photon's "now" is forever, so photons emitted by the electrons of 
> someone in a different time, still interact with the electrons of the 
> person whose hand they are shaking even though they're in a later time.
>  
> Jason
>
>
>> At this point it is obvious that actual present time and clock time are 
>> two different things. Both observers confirm this by direct observation.
>>
>> Now the question is can we confirm that both observers also shared the 
>> exact same actual present times during their separation in space? Yes we 
>> can and the argument is simple. Both observer's actual present times and 
>> their clock times were continuous during the 1 year they were separated. 
>> There was always both some actual present moment and some actual clock 
>> time. During the separation period each observer was always continuously 
>> extant in time as both actual present time and clock time progressed.
>>
>> Now since both observers started at the same present moment of time and 
>> ended at the same actual present moment of time and since each observer 
>> always had some present moment during the separation it is obvious that at 
>> every point in each observer's actual present time there must have been a 
>> corresponding point in the other observer's actual present time. In every 
>> point in each observer's actual present moment the other observer must have 
>> been doing something at the same actual present moment time. This is 
>> because there was never a gap in either observer's present moment, a moment 
>> when they didn't exist in their present moment, thus there must be a one to 
>> one mapping of actual present moments even when the observers were 
>> separated.
>>
>> Think of two points on a sheet of graph paper, one vertically above the 
>> other. Join the points by one straight vertical line and one curved line 
>> which will be of greater length. The vertical grids will correspond to the 
>> passage of present moment P-time while the different lengths along the 
>> lines will correspond to their clock times. Note that while clock time 
>> passes at different rates on the two lines, P-time, the vertical distance 
>> between the grids, passes at the same rate across both lines. And there is 
>> ALWAYS a corresponding point on both lines that represents the same present 
>> moment time where the lines are intersected by the same grid line.
>>
>> Thus there is always a common present moment no matter how observers may 
>> be separated in space.
>>
>> This is also confirmed by the fact that the observers left from the same 
>> actual present moment and returned to the same actual present moment. The 
>> observer who traveled has a clock that reads less than a year passed while 
>> the observer who stayed behind has a clock that tells him a year has passed 
>> BUT their actual present moments are simultaneous (because they can 
>> observably confirm that by shaking hands both before and af

Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 01:02, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred  
religious dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to  
burned at the stake! Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're  
just theories!

:-)



I would suggest you to try to formalize your theory in first order  
logic language, or to represent it in some well known first order  
theory (like arithmetic or set theory). That would help us, and  
everybody. We would "see" where is the theory.


Bruno






Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:
Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it  
violates conservation of energy) and sundry other statements  
exhibiting poor comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be  
exactly what you suspected early on: a crackpot. The question he put  
to you in which he asked if you ceased to exist at one point on his  
timeline reveals his basic error of logic. Everything must exist  
simultaneously with me, therefore there is a universal common  
present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow but Mr  
Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - self- 
published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously  
questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius:  
have a brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have  
a wrong revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against  
reason that every rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you  
are a misunderstood visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.


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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 00:52, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 3:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:29 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
To that I would add the purely epistemic "non-intepretation" of  
Peres and Fuchs.


"No interpretation needed" -- I can interpret this in two ways,  
one way is to just take the math and equations literally (this  
leads to Everett), the other is "shut up and calculate", which  
leads no where really.







2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either dead  
or alive. It's just a matter of  
someone 
   
making a measurement to find out.


So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is  
neither alive nor dead, both alive and dead,  
or   
definitely alive or definitely dead?  If you, (and I think you  
are), saying that the cat is always definitely alive or  
definitely dead, then about about the radioactive atom? Is it  
ever in a state of being decayed  
and   
not decayed? If you say no, it sounds like you are denying the  
reality of the superposition, which some interpretations do,  
but then this leads to difficulties explaining how quantum  
computers work (which require the superposition to exist).


Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in  
one basis is a superposition in another.



Can you provide a concrete example where some system can  
simultaneously be considered to be both in  
a   
superposition and not?  Is this like the superposition having  
collapsed for Wigner's friend while remaining  
for   
Wigner before he enters the room?




?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a  
complete set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.



So then when is the system not in a superposition?


When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.

What makes it incoherent though?


If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/=  
rho, it's incoherent.


But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which  
any given pure state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a  
'dead&alive' basis in which Schrodinger's cat can be represented  
just like a spin-up state is a superposition is a spin-left basis.



So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the  
y axis, and then the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying  
themselves continuously into diverging states (under MWI)?  Even  
though these states only weakly interfere, are they not still  
superposed (that is, the particles involved in a simultaneous  
combination of possessing many different states for their  
properties)?


Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a  
superposition of states of the form |x0,x1,...> where each xi is  
either +x, -x, +y, or -y.  And per the Bucky Ball, Young's slit  
experiment, the spins don't have to observed by anyone.  If the  
silver atom just goes thru the Stern-Gerlach apparatus and hits the  
laboratory wall, the superposition is still created.  If it just  
goes out the window and into space...it's not so clear.






An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a  
superposition according to MWI. It is just that the person doing  
the measurement is now also caught up in that superposition.


The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move  
everything back into the same state it was originally for all the  
possible diverged states, which should practically never happen  
for a superposition that has leaked into the environment.


In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a  
mixture because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the  
Hamiltonian.  Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the  
system+instrument to approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be  
interpreted as giving classical probabilities.


Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one  
have to consider the wave function of the universe and consider it  
all the way into the past?


I suppose the universe could have started in a mixed state, but  
most cosmologists would invoke Ockham and assume it started in a  
pure state - which, assuming only unitary evolution, means it's  
still in a pure state.  Of course since inflation there can be  
entanglements across event horizons, so FAPP that creates mixed  
states.





In any case, returning to the original point tha

Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 Dec 2013, at 00:11, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Richard,

It is true I entered university aged 15 and earned my BS in math and  
physics with honors and a minor in philosophy aged 18. I never  
claimed to be a genius though.

:-)


Good for you. But you have often the tone of a "truth knower", which  
is a symptom of "non serious philosophy" to me.


You seem unable to list all your basic assumptions, also, which makes  
hard to really interpret what you say. Then you use the term  
computation is an highly non standard sense, and this without defining  
it. From what I understand, it is still too much "aristotelian" to be  
compatible with computationalism. This is something you could save by  
finding a flaw in the UDA.

Not sure I follow your interpretation of special relativity too.

Bruno





And Richard, thanks again for the invite to the group! It's a good  
forum to try to clarify the presentation of my ideas Nothing  
does that better than sharp criticism


Best,
Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:02:51 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:
all,
According to Mr. Qwen, he was a child genius.
On every other list he has appeared the genius still.
So I thought I should subject him to this list.
Thanks for coming through.
Richard


On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:55 PM, Pierz  wrote:
Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it  
violates conservation of energy) and sundry other statements  
exhibiting poor comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be  
exactly what you suspected early on: a crackpot. The question he put  
to you in which he asked if you ceased to exist at one point on his  
timeline reveals his basic error of logic. Everything must exist  
simultaneously with me, therefore there is a universal common  
present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow but Mr  
Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - self- 
published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously  
questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius:  
have a brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have  
a wrong revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against  
reason that every rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you  
are a misunderstood visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.


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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 23:42, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want  
generate only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm  
generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ...  
generates all random finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in  
base 6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter  
combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short  
sequences which indeed will depend of the language used (here  
combinators).


Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by  
adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.


It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base,  
are random in that sense.


Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some  
base, but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the  
base with the number in the message. If you fix the base, then  
indeed 10 will be a compression of that particular number base,  
for that language, and it is part of incompressibility theory  
that no definition exist working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory  
only holds in the limit.


Brent


Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more  
2 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers  
than 2 digit numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent  
using a shorter string, another "shorter string" must necessarily  
be displaced.  You can't keep replacing things with shorter  
strings because there aren't enough of them, so as a side-effect,  
every compression strategy must represent some strings by larger  
ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible compressed  
messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller  
than the average size of all uncompressed messages.


The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they  
are tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter  
strings, while making (the vast majority of) other messages  
slightly larger.


A good explanation.

Thanks.

But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size  
doesn't imply that any particular number is incompressible.


That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to  
be of no relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a  
number of very small strings map directly to very large ones.


  So isn't it the case that every finite number string is  
compressible in some algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying  
6999500235148668 is random, but 11 is not, except  
relative to some given compression algorithm.


Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If  
you consider the size of the minimum string and algorithm together,  
necessary to represent some number, you will find there are some  
patterns of data that are more compressible than others.  In your  
previous example with base 6999500235148668, you would need to  
include both that base, and the string "10" in order to encode  
6999500235148669.


But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the  
base used to write it down? Did I have to write down "And this is in  
base 10" to show that 6999500235148668 is random?  There seems to be  
an equivocation here on "computing a number" and "computing a  
representation of a number".


Only for the numbers or strings with size similar to the size of the  
universal number use for the compression. This means it works for  
almost all numbers (= all except a finite number of exception).






 For the majority of numbers, you will find the Kolmogorov  
complexity of the number to almost always be on the order of the  
number of digits in that number.  The exceptions like 11  
are few and far between.


1 looks a lot messier in base 9.


Sure.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 23:29, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
To that I would add the purely epistemic "non-intepretation" of  
Peres and Fuchs.


"No interpretation needed" -- I can interpret this in two ways,  
one way is to just take the math and equations literally (this  
leads to Everett), the other is "shut up and calculate", which  
leads no where really.







2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either dead  
or alive. It's just a matter of someone making a measurement to  
find out.


So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is  
neither alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely  
alive or definitely dead?  If you, (and I think you are),  
saying that the cat is always definitely alive  
or   
definitely dead, then about about the radioactive atom? Is it  
ever in a state of being decayed and not decayed? If you say  
no, it sounds like you are denying the reality of the  
superposition, which some interpretations do, but then this  
leads to difficulties explaining how quantum computers work  
(which require the superposition to exist).


Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in one  
basis is a superposition in another.



Can you provide a concrete example where some system can  
simultaneously be considered to be both in a superposition and  
not?  Is this like the superposition having collapsed for  
Wigner's friend while remaining for Wigner before he enters the  
room?




?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a  
complete set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.



So then when is the system not in a superposition?


When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.

What makes it incoherent though?


If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/=  
rho, it's incoherent.


But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which  
any given pure state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a  
'dead&alive' basis in which Schrodinger's cat can be represented  
just like a spin-up state is a superposition is a spin-left basis.



So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y  
axis, and then the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying  
themselves continuously into diverging states (under MWI)?  Even  
though these states only weakly interfere, are they not still  
superposed (that is, the particles involved in a simultaneous  
combination of possessing many different states for their  
properties)?


Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a superposition  
of states of the form |x0,x1,...> where each xi is either +x, -x,  
+y, or -y.  And per the Bucky Ball, Young's slit experiment, the  
spins don't have to observed by anyone.  If the silver atom just 
goes thru the Stern-Gerlach apparatus and hits the laboratory wall,  
the superposition is still created.  If it just goes out the window  
and into space...it's not so clear.


It is very clear. IF QM is exact, the superposition does not  
disappear, but get contagious to the environment (at roughly the speed  
of light).









An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a  
superposition according to MWI. It is just that the person doing  
the measurement is now also caught up in that superposition.


The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move  
everything back into the same state it was originally for all the  
possible diverged states, which should practically never happen  
for a superposition that has leaked into the environment.


In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a  
mixture because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the  
Hamiltonian.  Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the  
system+instrument to approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be  
interpreted as giving classical probabilities.


Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one have  
to consider the wave function of the universe and consider it all  
the way into the past?


I suppose the universe could have started in a mixed state, but most  
cosmologists would invoke Ockham and assume it started in a pure  
state - which, assuming only unitary evolution, means it's still in  
a pure state.  Of course since inflation there can be entanglements  
across event horizons, so FAPP that creates mixed states.


FAPP. yes.






In any case, returning to the original point that began this  
tangent, do agree that QM interpretations which are anti-realist  
(or deny the reality of the superposition) are unable to describe  
where the intermedia

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