Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

Russell Standish wrote:

On Fri, Jun 12, 2015 at 03:40:48PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:

This is a false distinction. Arithmetical 'truth' is no more
fundamental  or final than physical truth. Arithmetic is, after all,
only an axiomatic system. We can make up an indefinite number of
axiomatic systems whose theorems are every bit as 'independent of
us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to be accepted as 'really
real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important to us because it is
useful in the physical world. It is invented, not fundamental.



Yes - but comp actually doesn't depend on standard arithmetic
either. What it depends on is the Church-Turing thesis to define what
is meant by computation. Standard arithmetic is convenient, as it
contains CT-thesis universal computers within it, but not
essential. Any other ontology supporting the CT-thesis will do.

The assumption of CT-thesis is not trivial, however. As David Deutsch
would point out, one could assume the Hilbert Hotel, and get a form of
hypercomputation. DD argues that lack of hypercomputers around us is
evidence that physical reality cannot support more powerful
computational models that the Turing one, but a more neutral way of
putting it is to say that ontology (which may or may not be physical)
cannot support more powerful models, effectively demarcating parts of
Platonia.


That is an interesting observation. One formulation of the CT thesis is 
that a Turing machine can do any calculation that can be done with 
pencil and paper. This relates Turing computations quite strongly to 
what is possible in the physical world. Deutsch's observation about 
hypercomputation is interesting here -- apart from some speculative 
possibilities in rotating black holes, hypercomputation is not possible 
in this physical universe. So is comp actually delineated by the 
physical world? And not as /a priori/ as might otherwise have been 
thought? The physical world determines comp, and not the reverse?


Bruce

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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Jun 12, 2015 at 03:40:48PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 This is a false distinction. Arithmetical 'truth' is no more
 fundamental  or final than physical truth. Arithmetic is, after all,
 only an axiomatic system. We can make up an indefinite number of
 axiomatic systems whose theorems are every bit as 'independent of
 us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to be accepted as 'really
 real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important to us because it is
 useful in the physical world. It is invented, not fundamental.
 

Yes - but comp actually doesn't depend on standard arithmetic
either. What it depends on is the Church-Turing thesis to define what
is meant by computation. Standard arithmetic is convenient, as it
contains CT-thesis universal computers within it, but not
essential. Any other ontology supporting the CT-thesis will do.

The assumption of CT-thesis is not trivial, however. As David Deutsch
would point out, one could assume the Hilbert Hotel, and get a form of
hypercomputation. DD argues that lack of hypercomputers around us is
evidence that physical reality cannot support more powerful
computational models that the Turing one, but a more neutral way of
putting it is to say that ontology (which may or may not be physical)
cannot support more powerful models, effectively demarcating parts of
Platonia.

--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:


It is weird that John Clark does not intervene here to say that Bruce 
Kellet would be a millionaire if he was able to make a rock computing ...


Where do you think Intel get the silicon for their chips...?

Bruce

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread John Mikes
You wrote:

*(Brent):*
*But the existence of a first person viewpoint depends on a stable physics.
The two are not separable.*

*(Bruno):*
*Exactly, that is why we can derive physics from the self-referentially
correct machine theory.*
*...*

The entire train of sophistication is based on 'human logic' as derived on
Planet Earth for us.  If I allow contents 'more' and 'so far unaccessed'
in the *Entirety*, our the sophistication may reduce to a flimsy
explanatory ignorance. Including physics,
universal (self-referentially correct) machine, etc.

*Theory* of Everything is spellable 'h o a x', since 'everything'
TOGETHER(?)  may be a balanced and inseparable - well - 'Entirety',  of
which we got glimpses of details only
 and used our extremely sophisticated brains (!) to explain it all to less
sophisticated
believers (scientists?).

One more: there were several questions about a fitting ID of
super-intelligence.
I would start with a 'fitting ID' of intelligence and then decide if the
one we are talking
about is 'super' indeed.
I proposed the Latin origination of 'reading between the lines'
(inter-lego) i.o.w. to
consider more than the plain dictionary definition for concepts spelled
out. In such
respect 'Watson' would be a good example. We do it simpler(?) in our brain.
IFFF?
Considering our 'intelligence' we are still at human levels. The reason,
why I went
with 'consciousness' a step further to consider responses (unidentified
nature) upon
relations (unidentified and  unrestricted) over the entire Entirety.
Most of the discussion on this (and other?) lists restrict both concepts to
humans
(machines).

With agnostically restricted intelligence (consciousness)
JM

On Fri, Jun 12, 2015 at 2:54 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 6/12/2015 8:45 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 It is bizarre that some people tarnish the effort of people working in
 some field, and admits not being interested in the question. may be Bruce
 just confuse physics and metaphysical physicalism.

  Bruno


 One might be interested in the idea that computationalism has implications
 for physics which are not metaphysical.  There are many speculative
 theories of physics that are based on information as the ur-stuff and one
 would naively suppose that a computationalist theory of the world would
 have something to say about them.

 Brent

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 8:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 10 Jun 2015, at 21:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 1:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 10 Jun 2015, at 01:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/9/2015 11:04 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


You say that comp is useless, but what is your theory of mind. What is not Turing 
emulable in the brain? 


Its interaction with the universe.


Are you sure it is not the interaction with God?


Dunno, Samiya seems to the expert on what God does.


Samya did not invoke God as an explanation! Usually she (to easily) make that 
understanding beyond human comprehension. (Which is true, but might be of the type G* 
minus G.)


What is the need to invoke a universe when we might perhaps be on an explanation of 
where the appearance of the universe, and consciousness/knowledge come from, in a 
testable way?


That is exactly my criticism of your theory.  I think you do need to invoke a universe, 
i.e. an environment, in order to supply meaning to computations and avoid the absurdity of 
the rock that computes everything.  But if you have to invoke a universe to explain how 
computation instantiates thought you can't use thought to explain the universe.  It's just 
another aspect of the white rabbit problem (whose name I have never understood; white 
rabbits are common).  It's all very well to say thought is computation and all computation 
is implicit in arithmetic so all thought is implicit in arithmetic.  The problem is 
getting it out - showing that the rock computes something, not everything.


Brent

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 8:45 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
It is bizarre that some people tarnish the effort of people working in some field, and 
admits not being interested in the question. may be Bruce just confuse physics and 
metaphysical physicalism.


Bruno


One might be interested in the idea that computationalism has implications for physics 
which are not metaphysical.  There are many speculative theories of physics that are based 
on information as the ur-stuff and one would naively suppose that a computationalist 
theory of the world would have something to say about them.


Brent

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Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread John Mikes
Samiya, thank you for (now the first time) you moved out of your calm.
(I did it!). Then you concluded with the habituel scripture-loving phrase
upon which Brent had a brilliant reply

S: A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to
urgently explore the scriptures!

Br: No, it's a reason to get rid of scriptures and pay attention to people
and the world.

John M

On Thu, Jun 11, 2015 at 11:17 PM, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com
wrote:



 On Fri, Jun 12, 2015 at 12:44 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 If this John is me:

 to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study scripts
 the followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans and claim
 full credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?


 briefly (concentrate on science) The same reason why people should study
 the sciences the followers (scientists / engineers / technicians /
 governments / military / businesses) of which experiment with, damage, kill
 live humans and animals, destroy ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit
 for being leaders of human civilisation!


 A reasonable person should run away from such inhumanity, especially
 after our centuries of enlightenment.


  'our centuries of enlightenment'? really? creating deadly weapons of mass
 destruction and using them, poisoning the planet and creating imbalance in
 the ecosystem, rendering entire species extinct, toying with the weather,
 ... enlightenment??? and where can we run away from it all? except in
 trying to find meaning in this suffering and trial?

 A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to
 urgently explore the scriptures!

 Samiya


 Thanks for reflecting

 John M

 On Wed, Jun 10, 2015 at 11:22 PM, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 John,
 I wonder if you were studying the scriptures / ideologies as well? I get
 the impression that you were studying the human condition: the results of
 (mis)interpretations and (mis)applications of religions / ideologies and
 naturally being revolted by it!
 Throughout history, humans have pursued wealth, power, pleasures:
 desires which within moral limits are permissible and constructive for the
 evolution of society, yet humans have mostly transgressed all bounds and
 have caused much suffering. What humans don't seem to understand is that
 their actions are essentially self-destructive. According to my study of
 the scriptures, time and again, whenever human civilisations advanced to
 the point of self-destruction, the Most Compassionate, True God has
 intervened, first by sending His Messengers and His Scriptures to warn
 humans about their self-destructive actions, and then saving humanity by
 wiping out those criminals who were bent upon destroying the world.
 If, for a while, you can suspend the notion that we are the most
 advanced that humans have ever been, and the notion that God is a terrible,
 heartless person that people imagine; perhaps a (re)read of the scriptures
 will help you realise that God is indeed the Most Kind and Most Loving, and
 enable you to appreciate His Commandments as those which guide humans to
 protect themselves from harm, lead to better their condition and enable
 them to build a beautiful future!
 Our world is also advancing towards self-destruction, all in the name of
 progress, and we are setting humanity up for much harm and suffering. I
 believe that since the last Messenger (Mohammad) and the last Scripture
 (Quran) have arrived, now the time for humanity 'brief stay' on Earth is
 coming towards its end. People of many faiths, including Muslims, are
 awaiting the arrival of the Anti-Christ / Beast. It is stated in the Quran:
 And when (is) fulfilled the word against them, We will bring forth for them
 a creature from the earth speaking to them, that the people were, of Our
 Signs, not certain. [http://www.islamawakened.com/quran/27/82/ ]
 However, as each one of us is in pledge for our own beliefs and deeds,
 so there is still hope for salvation and eternal bliss! God promises to
 help and guide those who WILL faith and submit to God's guidance.

 Samiya

 On Thu, Jun 11, 2015 at 2:12 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Samiya:
 I was learning about Communism (30s and 50s) and I disliked it because
 of unjust cruelty against certain people. (Rakosi, Stalin, Mao, Pol Pot
 etc.)
 I was learning about Nazism (40s) and I dislliked  it because of unjust
 cruelty against certain people. (Hitler, Skin-Heads, Szalasi, etc.)
 I am learning about Islam (10s) and I dislike it because of unjust
 cruelty against certain people. (IS and Saudi beheadings,  etc.)
 In my studies I also learned about Catholicism and I disliked it
 becuase the unjust (dogmatic?) cruelty against certain people in the
 Inquisition etc.
 I learned about Judaism and disliked it because unjust cruelty against
 women. It also invoked the cruelty of anti-semites against themselves.
 I did not learn enough about Hinduism and Buddhism to 

Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 1:01 PM, John Mikes wrote:

You wrote:


/(Brent):/
/But the existence of a first person viewpoint depends on a stable physics. The two are 
not separable*.*/

/(Bruno):/
/Exactly, that is why we can derive physics from the self-referentially correct 
machine theory./

/.../
/
/
The entire train of sophistication is based on 'human logic' as derived on
Planet Earth for us.  If I allow contents 'more' and 'so far unaccessed' in the 
*Entirety*, our the sophistication may reduce to a flimsy explanatory ignorance. 
Including physics,

universal (self-referentially correct) machine, etc.

*/_Theory_/* of Everything is spellable 'h o a x', since 'everything' TOGETHER(?)  may 
be a balanced and inseparable - well - 'Entirety',  of which we got glimpses of details only

 and used our extremely sophisticated brains (!) to explain it all to less 
sophisticated
believers (scientists?).

One more: there were several questions about a fitting ID of super-intelligence.
I would start with a 'fitting ID' of intelligence and then decide if the one we are 
talking

about is 'super' indeed.
I proposed the Latin origination of 'reading between the lines' (inter-lego) 
i.o.w. to
consider more than the plain dictionary definition for concepts spelled out. In 
such
respect 'Watson' would be a good example. We do it simpler(?) in our brain. 
IFFF?
Considering our 'intelligence' we are still at human levels. The reason, why I 
went
with 'consciousness' a step further to consider responses (unidentified nature) 
upon
relations (unidentified and  unrestricted) over the entire Entirety.
Most of the discussion on this (and other?) lists restrict both concepts to 
humans
(machines).

With agnostically restricted intelligence (consciousness)
JM


On Fri, Ju












That sounds like Darwin's worry when he concluded that we were descended from an ape 
ancestor that he could not trust his own thought processes because they were also 
descended from an ape ancestor.


To which someone no doubt replied, Whose thoughts will you trust if not your own.  
Samiya has an answer to this, but I think Darwin would have chosen to stick with his own.


Brent


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Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread LizR
Well, one point at least.

On 13 June 2015 at 16:23, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 The point of responding is that if a faith is indeed the word of god, it
 should have answers to all the major metaphysical and philosophical
 questions that might be asked of it.

 On 13 June 2015 at 16:01, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

 Dear All,
 I do not know if I should be responding to any of the posts on this
 thread as we seem to just keep repeating ourselves.
 I do not understand why those who have decided and declared themselves as
 atheists even bother to respond to my posts. I do however wish that those
 who consider themselves agnostics do read the scriptures. God willing, they
 might find the answers to the questions in their heart.
 A word of caution: The Quran itself recommends that every time one
 studies the Quran, to first pray for Allah's protection from the Devil who
 attempts to misguide those who seek guidance.
 Allah repeatedly offers forgiveness guidance throughout the Quran, and
 the text also explains why guidance is withheld from whom and why. May the
 scriptures enlighten us. Amen.

 Samiya




 On 13-Jun-2015, at 5:46 am, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 Just to put my own dim consciousness into this arena, I did inquire of a
 young Pakistani, what he thought was the main motivation behind jihad. I
 asked if it was the great reward of being with Allah forever, and the
 women, etc. This guy corrected me and indicated, no it was not the great
 reward driving the jihad, but, rather, the eternal death in the grave, and
 the dual notion of gahannom (gehenim) in a fiery punishment for betraying
 Allah's eddicts.   I over simplify on all this, but I  believe also, that
 islamic teachings indicate, that they are Dar es Salaam, the House of
 Peace, and that we, the Qfar, or infidels, are the House of War, and that
 true peace is never to be offered to the Qfar, on a truce (hudna) can be
 offered.

 Thus, peace is never to be attained, as we understand it because those in
 the Uma, risk being burned up forever, by defiling Allah and themselves,
 with the uncleaness, of the Qfar or traitor, aka Infidel. So there is zero
 incentive for being peaceful (unless a temporary truce) with the infidel.
 Who wishes eternal damnation upon themselves, and their families and
 friends by angering Allah? There is then, no incentive to be offered that
 can rival the punishment and reward of Allah. Its a no brainer. It does put
 the frame of reverence of behaviors if one recognizes this feature of how
 the other fellows feel and think. By their belief system, they would
 consider themselves to be insane, and humiliated, by offering anything to
 the traitors to God.

 Sent from AOL Mobile Mail


 -Original Message-
 From: John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Fri, Jun 12, 2015 08:15 PM
 Subject: Re: Quran Audio


   On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

   to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study
 scripts the followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans
 and claim full credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?


   briefly (concentrate on science)


  If you concentrate on science there won't be much to say about Muslims.

 Although Muslims make up 23% of the world's population since 1900 only
 one Muslim has won a Nobel Prize in science, Ahmed Zewail won for chemistry
 in 1999. Abdus Salam won for physics in 1979 and his tombstone said First
 Muslim Nobel Laureate, but the Pakistani government officially decreed
 that Abdus Salam  was NOT a Muslim and ordered that the word Muslim be
 erased from his tombstone.


The same reason why people should study the sciences the followers
 (scientists / engineers / technicians / governments / military /
 businesses) of which experiment with, damage, kill live humans and animals,
 destroy ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit for being leaders of human
 civilisation!


  Science can explain how a H-bomb works but says nothing about how or if
 they should be used, that is a function of the empathy of the bomb builder
 and his fear of retaliation. Islam can not say one intelligent word about
 how a H-bomb works or even how a conventional chemical explosive works, but
 that doesn't prevent it from telling people exactly how they should be
 used.  And Islam says you shouldn't have empathy for those who frequent a
 different religious franchise than your do, and it also says that you
 shouldn't fear death because if you do what Islam tells you to do then when
 you die you'll live forever in Santa Claus's workshop in the sky. So we
 have a combination of cruelty and stupidity, and that is a dangerous
 combination.  .

 A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to
 urgently explore the scriptures!


  I don't see how reading the fairy tales of illiterate bronze age 

Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 6:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:

On 12 June 2015 at 17:40, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
Arithmetic is, after all, only an axiomatic system. We can make up
an indefinite number of axiomatic systems whose theorems are every
bit as 'independent of us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to
be accepted as 'really real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important
to us because it is useful in the physical world. It is invented,
not fundamental.

So you say, and you may be right. Or you may not. The question is whether 2+2=4 
independently of human beings (and aliens who may have invented, or discovered as the 
case may be, arithmetic).


It may well be independent of humans or other (alien) beings, but it has no meaning 
until you have defined what the symbols '2','4','+', and '=' mean. Then it is a tautology.


Bruce



It is commonly thought to be discovered and so to be ought there independent of human 
beings or any cognition.  But when considered more carefully what was discovered is that 
one can group pairs to things together (at least in imagination) and have four things.  So 
two fathers grouped with two sons is four people.  Except when it's three people.  So we 
said OK we'll *define* units to be things that obey the rules that 2+2=4.  Then we 
discovered that these rules implied a lot of things we hadn't thought of.  But they aren't 
out there, they're in our language.


Brent

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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

On 6/12/2015 6:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:

On 12 June 2015 at 17:40, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
Arithmetic is, after all, only an axiomatic system. We can make up
an indefinite number of axiomatic systems whose theorems are every
bit as 'independent of us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to
be accepted as 'really real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important
to us because it is useful in the physical world. It is invented,
not fundamental.

So you say, and you may be right. Or you may not. The question is 
whether 2+2=4 independently of human beings (and aliens who may have 
invented, or discovered as the case may be, arithmetic).


It may well be independent of humans or other (alien) beings, but it 
has no meaning until you have defined what the symbols '2','4','+', 
and '=' mean. Then it is a tautology.


Bruce

It is commonly thought to be discovered and so to be ought there 
independent of human beings or any cognition.  But when considered more 
carefully what was discovered is that one can group pairs to things 
together (at least in imagination) and have four things.  So two fathers 
grouped with two sons is four people.  Except when it's three people.  
So we said OK we'll *define* units to be things that obey the rules that 
2+2=4.  Then we discovered that these rules implied a lot of things we 
hadn't thought of.  But they aren't out there, they're in our language.


Brent


I agree. But I think that the attraction of Platonism lies in the fact 
that if you abstract the notion of 'twoness' from all groups of two 
things, such as fathers, sons, pebbles, and so on, then you get an 
underlying perfect form that is independent of imperfections: such as 
the possibility that two fathers plus two sons might be only three 
people (or even only two people); or the unpleasant fact that two drops 
of water plus two drops of water might make only one drop of water.


Platonism is a search for an escape from the 'ugliness' of reality.

Bruce

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Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread LizR
The point of responding is that if a faith is indeed the word of god, it
should have answers to all the major metaphysical and philosophical
questions that might be asked of it.

On 13 June 2015 at 16:01, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

 Dear All,
 I do not know if I should be responding to any of the posts on this thread
 as we seem to just keep repeating ourselves.
 I do not understand why those who have decided and declared themselves as
 atheists even bother to respond to my posts. I do however wish that those
 who consider themselves agnostics do read the scriptures. God willing, they
 might find the answers to the questions in their heart.
 A word of caution: The Quran itself recommends that every time one studies
 the Quran, to first pray for Allah's protection from the Devil who attempts
 to misguide those who seek guidance.
 Allah repeatedly offers forgiveness guidance throughout the Quran, and the
 text also explains why guidance is withheld from whom and why. May the
 scriptures enlighten us. Amen.

 Samiya




 On 13-Jun-2015, at 5:46 am, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 Just to put my own dim consciousness into this arena, I did inquire of a
 young Pakistani, what he thought was the main motivation behind jihad. I
 asked if it was the great reward of being with Allah forever, and the
 women, etc. This guy corrected me and indicated, no it was not the great
 reward driving the jihad, but, rather, the eternal death in the grave, and
 the dual notion of gahannom (gehenim) in a fiery punishment for betraying
 Allah's eddicts.   I over simplify on all this, but I  believe also, that
 islamic teachings indicate, that they are Dar es Salaam, the House of
 Peace, and that we, the Qfar, or infidels, are the House of War, and that
 true peace is never to be offered to the Qfar, on a truce (hudna) can be
 offered.

 Thus, peace is never to be attained, as we understand it because those in
 the Uma, risk being burned up forever, by defiling Allah and themselves,
 with the uncleaness, of the Qfar or traitor, aka Infidel. So there is zero
 incentive for being peaceful (unless a temporary truce) with the infidel.
 Who wishes eternal damnation upon themselves, and their families and
 friends by angering Allah? There is then, no incentive to be offered that
 can rival the punishment and reward of Allah. Its a no brainer. It does put
 the frame of reverence of behaviors if one recognizes this feature of how
 the other fellows feel and think. By their belief system, they would
 consider themselves to be insane, and humiliated, by offering anything to
 the traitors to God.

 Sent from AOL Mobile Mail


 -Original Message-
 From: John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Fri, Jun 12, 2015 08:15 PM
 Subject: Re: Quran Audio


   On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

   to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study
 scripts the followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans
 and claim full credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?


   briefly (concentrate on science)


  If you concentrate on science there won't be much to say about Muslims.

 Although Muslims make up 23% of the world's population since 1900 only one
 Muslim has won a Nobel Prize in science, Ahmed Zewail won for chemistry in
 1999. Abdus Salam won for physics in 1979 and his tombstone said First
 Muslim Nobel Laureate, but the Pakistani government officially decreed
 that Abdus Salam  was NOT a Muslim and ordered that the word Muslim be
 erased from his tombstone.


The same reason why people should study the sciences the followers
 (scientists / engineers / technicians / governments / military /
 businesses) of which experiment with, damage, kill live humans and animals,
 destroy ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit for being leaders of human
 civilisation!


  Science can explain how a H-bomb works but says nothing about how or if
 they should be used, that is a function of the empathy of the bomb builder
 and his fear of retaliation. Islam can not say one intelligent word about
 how a H-bomb works or even how a conventional chemical explosive works, but
 that doesn't prevent it from telling people exactly how they should be
 used.  And Islam says you shouldn't have empathy for those who frequent a
 different religious franchise than your do, and it also says that you
 shouldn't fear death because if you do what Islam tells you to do then when
 you die you'll live forever in Santa Claus's workshop in the sky. So we
 have a combination of cruelty and stupidity, and that is a dangerous
 combination.  .

 A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to
 urgently explore the scriptures!


  I don't see how reading the fairy tales of illiterate bronze age tribes
 will help, not even if your mommy and daddy said it will.

   John K Clark


Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread Samiya Illias
Dear All, 
I do not know if I should be responding to any of the posts on this thread as 
we seem to just keep repeating ourselves. 
I do not understand why those who have decided and declared themselves as 
atheists even bother to respond to my posts. I do however wish that those who 
consider themselves agnostics do read the scriptures. God willing, they might 
find the answers to the questions in their heart. 
A word of caution: The Quran itself recommends that every time one studies the 
Quran, to first pray for Allah's protection from the Devil who attempts to 
misguide those who seek guidance. 
Allah repeatedly offers forgiveness guidance throughout the Quran, and the text 
also explains why guidance is withheld from whom and why. May the scriptures 
enlighten us. Amen. 

Samiya 




 On 13-Jun-2015, at 5:46 am, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
 
 Just to put my own dim consciousness into this arena, I did inquire of a 
 young Pakistani, what he thought was the main motivation behind jihad. I 
 asked if it was the great reward of being with Allah forever, and the women, 
 etc. This guy corrected me and indicated, no it was not the great reward 
 driving the jihad, but, rather, the eternal death in the grave, and the dual 
 notion of gahannom (gehenim) in a fiery punishment for betraying Allah's 
 eddicts.   I over simplify on all this, but I  believe also, that islamic 
 teachings indicate, that they are Dar es Salaam, the House of Peace, and that 
 we, the Qfar, or infidels, are the House of War, and that true peace is never 
 to be offered to the Qfar, on a truce (hudna) can be offered.
 
 Thus, peace is never to be attained, as we understand it because those in the 
 Uma, risk being burned up forever, by defiling Allah and themselves, with the 
 uncleaness, of the Qfar or traitor, aka Infidel. So there is zero incentive 
 for being peaceful (unless a temporary truce) with the infidel. Who wishes 
 eternal damnation upon themselves, and their families and friends by angering 
 Allah? There is then, no incentive to be offered that can rival the 
 punishment and reward of Allah. Its a no brainer. It does put the frame of 
 reverence of behaviors if one recognizes this feature of how the other 
 fellows feel and think. By their belief system, they would consider 
 themselves to be insane, and humiliated, by offering anything to the traitors 
 to God. 
 
 Sent from AOL Mobile Mail
 
 
 -Original Message-
 From: John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Fri, Jun 12, 2015 08:15 PM
 Subject: Re: Quran Audio
 
 
 On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote: 
 
  to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study scripts 
  the followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans and 
  claim full credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?  
 
  briefly (concentrate on science)
 
 If you concentrate on science there won't be much to say about Muslims.  
 Although Muslims make up 23% of the world's population since 1900 only one 
 Muslim has won a Nobel Prize in science, Ahmed Zewail won for chemistry in 
 1999. Abdus Salam won for physics in 1979 and his tombstone said First 
 Muslim Nobel Laureate, but the Pakistani government officially decreed that 
 Abdus Salam  was NOT a Muslim and ordered that the word Muslim be erased 
 from his tombstone.
   
  The same reason why people should study the sciences the followers 
  (scientists / engineers / technicians / governments / military / 
  businesses) of which experiment with, damage, kill live humans and animals, 
  destroy ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit for being leaders of human 
  civilisation!
 
 Science can explain how a H-bomb works but says nothing about how or if they 
 should be used, that is a function of the empathy of the bomb builder and his 
 fear of retaliation. Islam can not say one intelligent word about how a 
 H-bomb works or even how a conventional chemical explosive works, but that 
 doesn't prevent it from telling people exactly how they should be used.  And 
 Islam says you shouldn't have empathy for those who frequent a different 
 religious franchise than your do, and it also says that you shouldn't fear 
 death because if you do what Islam tells you to do then when you die you'll 
 live forever in Santa Claus's workshop in the sky. So we have a combination 
 of cruelty and stupidity, and that is a dangerous combination.  .
 
  A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to urgently 
  explore the scriptures!   
 
 I don't see how reading the fairy tales of illiterate bronze age tribes will 
 help, not even if your mommy and daddy said it will.   
 
  John K Clark
 
 -- 
 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
 Everything List group. 
 To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an 
 email to 

Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
Just to put my own dim consciousness into this arena, I did inquire of a young 
Pakistani, what he thought was the main motivation behind jihad. I asked if it 
was the great reward of being with Allah forever, and the women, etc. This guy 
corrected me and indicated, no it was not the great reward driving the jihad, 
but, rather, the eternal death in the grave, and the dual notion of gahannom 
(gehenim) in a fiery punishment for betraying Allah's eddicts.   I over 
simplify on all this, but I  believe also, that islamic teachings indicate, 
that they are Dar es Salaam, the House of Peace, and that we, the Qfar, or 
infidels, are the House of War, and that true peace is never to be offered to 
the Qfar, on a truce (hudna) can be offered.

Thus, peace is never to be attained, as we understand it because those in the 
Uma, risk being burned up forever, by defiling Allah and themselves, with the 
uncleaness, of the Qfar or traitor, aka Infidel. So there is zero incentive for 
being peaceful (unless a temporary truce) with the infidel. Who wishes eternal 
damnation upon themselves, and their families and friends by angering Allah? 
There is then, no incentive to be offered that can rival the punishment and 
reward of Allah. Its a no brainer. It does put the frame of reverence of 
behaviors if one recognizes this feature of how the other fellows feel and 
think. By their belief system, they would consider themselves to be insane, and 
humiliated, by offering anything to the traitors to God. 

Sent from AOL Mobile Mail


-Original Message-
From: John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Fri, Jun 12, 2015 08:15 PM
Subject: Re: Quran Audio



div id=AOLMsgPart_2_749812e6-702c-47fa-8cd3-c7739f2c864a

 div dir=ltr
  div class=aolmail_gmail_extra
   div class=aolmail_gmail_quote
On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  Samiya Illias 
span dir=ltra target=_blank 
href=mailto:samiyaill...@gmail.com;samiyaill...@gmail.com/a/span wrote:




blockquote class=aolmail_gmail_quote style=margin:0px 0px 0px 
0.8ex;border-left-width:1px;border-left-color:rgb(204,204,204);border-left-style:solid;padding-left:1ex
 div dir=ltr
  div class=aolmail_gmail_extra
   div class=aolmail_gmail_quote
span
 blockquote class=aolmail_gmail_quote style=margin:0px 0px 0px 
0.8ex;border-left-width:1px;border-left-color:rgb(204,204,204);border-left-style:solid;padding-left:1ex
  div dir=ltr
   div
div
 to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study scripts the 
 followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans and claim full 
 credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?  

   /div
  /div
 /blockquote
 

  

 /span


 briefly (concentrate on science)

   /div
  /div
 /div
/blockquote


 




If you concentrate on science there won't be much to say about Muslims.  
Although Muslims make up 23% of the world's population since 1900 only one 
Muslim has won a Nobel Prize in science, Ahmed Zewail won for chemistry in 
1999. Abdus Salam won for physics in 1979 and his tombstone said First Muslim 
Nobel Laureate, but the Pakistani government officially decreed that Abdus 
Salam  was NOT a Muslim and ordered that the word Muslim be erased from his 
tombstone.
   /div
   div class=aolmail_gmail_quote


 
 


blockquote class=aolmail_gmail_quote style=margin:0px 0px 0px 
0.8ex;border-left-width:1px;border-left-color:rgb(204,204,204);border-left-style:solid;padding-left:1ex
 div dir=ltr
  div class=aolmail_gmail_extra
   div class=aolmail_gmail_quote


 The same reason why people should study the sciences the followers 
 (scientists / engineers / technicians / governments / military / businesses) 
 of which experiment with, damage, kill live humans and animals, destroy 
 ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit for being leaders of human 
 civilisation!

   /div
  /div
 /div
/blockquote


 




Science can explain how a H-bomb works but says nothing about how or if they 
should be used, that is a function of the empathy of the bomb builder and his 
fear of retaliation. Islam can not say one intelligent word about how a H-bomb 
works or even how a conventional chemical explosive works, but that doesn't 
prevent it from telling people exactly how they should be used.  And Islam says 
you shouldn't have empathy for those who frequent a different religious 
franchise than your do, and it also says that you shouldn't fear death because 
if you do what Islam tells you to do then when you die you'll live forever in 
Santa Claus's workshop in the sky. So we have a combination of cruelty and 
stupidity, and that is a dangerous combination.  .



 


blockquote class=aolmail_gmail_quote style=margin:0px 0px 0px 

Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 12 June 2015 at 17:40, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 


Arithmetic is, after all, only an axiomatic system. We can make up
an indefinite number of axiomatic systems whose theorems are every
bit as 'independent of us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to
be accepted as 'really real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important
to us because it is useful in the physical world. It is invented,
not fundamental.

So you say, and you may be right. Or you may not. The question is 
whether 2+2=4 independently of human beings (and aliens who may have 
invented, or discovered as the case may be, arithmetic).


It may well be independent of humans or other (alien) beings, but it has 
no meaning until you have defined what the symbols '2','4','+', and '=' 
mean. Then it is a tautology.


Bruce

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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread LizR
On 12 June 2015 at 17:40, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 LizR wrote:


 You also say that 1p phenomena - in a physical theory - have to be
 eliminated (as per Dennett) or elevated to something we could call
 supernatural (for the sake of argument - in any case, something not
 covered by the underlying physics). But the alternative is apparently that
 subjective phenomena exist inside assumed-to-be-real arithmetic, and the
 (appearance of a) physical world somehow emerges from that. Both of these
 are problematic. The first seems plausible to me (in the elimiativist
 mode), but implausible in that it reifies matter and doesn't have an
 ontological status that could be called final, but merely one that is
 contingent (i.e. we're here because we're here because...) while
 arithmetical truth, if there is such a thing, does.


 This is a false distinction. Arithmetical 'truth' is no more fundamental
 or final than physical truth.


I'm glad you have access to a metaphysical oracle which tells you these
things. The rest of us have to remain agnostic, (which is why I said if
there is such a thing).


 Arithmetic is, after all, only an axiomatic system. We can make up an
 indefinite number of axiomatic systems whose theorems are every bit as
 'independent of us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to be accepted
 as 'really real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important to us because it
 is useful in the physical world. It is invented, not fundamental.


So you say, and you may be right. Or you may not. The question is whether
2+2=4 independently of human beings (and aliens who may have invented, or
discovered as the case may be, arithmetic).



 Bruce


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Re: Quran Audio

2015-06-12 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

 to keep my reply short (concentrate on Islam) Why should I study scripts
 the followers of which behead, flog, stone, dismember live humans and claim
 full credit for such cruelty in the afterlife?


  briefly (concentrate on science)


If you concentrate on science there won't be much to say about Muslims.
Although Muslims make up 23% of the world's population since 1900 only one
Muslim has won a Nobel Prize in science, Ahmed Zewail won for chemistry in
1999. Abdus Salam won for physics in 1979 and his tombstone said First
Muslim Nobel Laureate, but the Pakistani government officially decreed
that Abdus Salam  was NOT a Muslim and ordered that the word Muslim be
erased from his tombstone.


  The same reason why people should study the sciences the followers
 (scientists / engineers / technicians / governments / military /
 businesses) of which experiment with, damage, kill live humans and animals,
 destroy ecosystems, etc.  and claim full credit for being leaders of human
 civilisation!


Science can explain how a H-bomb works but says nothing about how or if
they should be used, that is a function of the empathy of the bomb builder
and his fear of retaliation. Islam can not say one intelligent word about
how a H-bomb works or even how a conventional chemical explosive works, but
that doesn't prevent it from telling people exactly how they should be
used.  And Islam says you shouldn't have empathy for those who frequent a
different religious franchise than your do, and it also says that you
shouldn't fear death because if you do what Islam tells you to do then when
you die you'll live forever in Santa Claus's workshop in the sky. So we
have a combination of cruelty and stupidity, and that is a dangerous
combination.  .

 A person's concern for their own future should be reason enough to
 urgently explore the scriptures!


I don't see how reading the fairy tales of illiterate bronze age tribes
will help, not even if your mommy and daddy said it will.

 John K Clark

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

On 6/12/2015 8:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


What is the need to invoke a universe when we might perhaps be on an 
explanation of where the appearance of the universe, and 
consciousness/knowledge come from, in a testable way?


That is exactly my criticism of your theory.  I think you do need to 
invoke a universe, i.e. an environment, in order to supply meaning to 
computations and avoid the absurdity of the rock that computes 
everything.  But if you have to invoke a universe to explain how 
computation instantiates thought you can't use thought to explain the 
universe.  It's just another aspect of the white rabbit problem (whose 
name I have never understood; white rabbits are common).


You mean that you don't get the allusion to 'Alice in Wonderland'?

All the best phrases come from Lewis Carroll. Like 'Humpty Dumpty 
Dictionary' and 'What I tell you three times is true.'


Bruce



 It's all very
well to say thought is computation and all computation is implicit in 
arithmetic so all thought is implicit in arithmetic.  The problem is 
getting it out - showing that the rock computes something, not everything.


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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 14:41, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2015-06-10 14:11 GMT+02:00 Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au:
Quentin Anciaux wrote:
2015-06-10 13:40 GMT+02:00 Bruce Kellett  
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au Quentin Anciaux wrote:


Then the computation will be in the mapping which is the
interpreter... the rock itself is missing the machine
interpreting the state and relating all the sequence of states
of the rock... The rock and the interpreter is a computation,
the rock alone is not.

What is the interpreter in Platonia?

The transition function relating the states.

A computation is not a sequence of states, it is a sequence of  
states and the relation between them.


The relation between them is given by the sequence order. You are  
the one who 'interprets' that sequence, gives it meaning.


So a computer computing without us, is not computing

The mapping is what makes the interpretation. A computation is a  
sequence of state + a transition table relating the states.


Yes, and the mapping is defined, and implemented in arithmetic by the  
universal number.




As you can map the rock states with an adhoc mapping to any  
computations, it doesn't mean the rock computes everything, it just  
means the rock states are not enough, you forget the mapping ie: the  
interpreter. The rock on itself could compute anything, but  
relatively to you, it can compute meaningfully only if you have the  
correct mapping... and if to produce such a mapping that would make  
sense relatively to you, it asks you to do the computation you want  
to map to the rock states... in what sense can you say the rock is  
computing relatively to you in any meaningful sense ?


It is weird that John Clark does not intervene here to say that Bruce  
Kellet would be a millionaire if he was able to make a rock  
computing ...
Well, I guess it is not weird, as Bruce seems to have also that  
typical negative tone of those who criticizing without studying. Why  
people does that is beyond my comprehension, but I am interested, as  
this is rather frequent (with humans).


Bruno





Quentin



Bruce

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 20:41, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 1:24 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
OK. For what set of quantum operators have you demonstrated non- 
commutation?


For the yes-no operator in general. They are given and construct  
from the quantization ([]A) in the logic Z1*. It is rather long  
to describe, and you have shown no interest for the small amount of  
technic needed to make sense of the material hypostases. We can  
come back on this later, if you are more interested.


I'm interested.


I know that more best in the journal I publish in, more difficult it  
is to get it without being in an institution, but this is explained in  
most paper.


You need to understand many representation theorem.

That computability can be represented in arithmetic by sigma_1  
provability,
that sigma_1 provability represent an idea scientist having self- 
referential abilities,
that the logic of self-reference is axiomatized (that the modal  
propositional level) by *two* logic: G and G* (also know as GL and  
GLS, Prl and prl-omega, K4W (for G) in the literature).
That a logic of knowledge is canonically associated, and can be  
represented in G and G* (but there they coincide).
That an intuitionist logic is associated, and can be represented, by  
that logic of knowledge.
That a logic of observability (in a simple direct sense provided by  
the UDA, which I illustrate recently (thank to John Clark!) with the  
step 3 protocol + the 2 coffees. That logic of observability is a B- 
type of modal logic.
That quantum type of logic admits representation in term of B-type of  
modal logic.


All the representation theorem are constructive, and all logics, and  
the multimodal logic (like the 3-1 notions) are, by composition of  
representations; inherit the decidability of G.


G* itself is representable, mechanical emulable, by G. making all of  
the material logic decidable, but they are also untractable, when you  
get many modal nesting.


G is what the machine can say about itself, about what it can say and  
not say.

G* is what is true about what the machine can say and not say.

Typically, self-consistency, belongs to G* minus G, the proper  
classical theology of the machine looking inward.


I don't believe that PA is a zombie, even if that discourse, in the  
third person way, appears to be atemporal: it is itself infinity  
recurrent in arithmetic.


You need only a passive, but genuine, understanding of Gödel's paper,  
fundamentally. He is the one starting the interview. He missed the  
reversal, because he was sceptical on mechanism. he missed the Church- 
thesis too, and the *universal* beast.










Of course position and momentum are not yet derived, and it is  
not clear if they will be derived.


If they are not, comp fails a crucial test


That is not entirely obvious. It might be possible that time and  
space are more geographical than physical notion, in which case,  
time and space would not be derivable. Hamiltonian with gravity and  
space-time structure might be contingent. Open problem. To be sure,  
I have some conjecture which would entail that space and time  
existence belong to the physical. I have explained this, but this  
needs Temperley Lieb algebra, the braid group, and some relation  
with the comp Quantum Logic.


Where have you explained it?  On this list?


Yes. You might search on temperley and/or lieb on the archive. The  
winner might be a universal subgroup of the braid group. the physicist  
in me suspect some Moonshine Magic and role for finite simple group,  
and the number 24 (which might intervene in dimension comp theory).








But, anyway, UDA shows first the *necessity* of all this. I am  
still waiting your non-comp explanation of consciousness. Comp  
explains already why there is consciousness, and why there might be  
matter (in a testable way) capable of stabilizing the consciousness  
flux.


If the stability of consciousness is not explained then  
consciousness is not explained.


Agreed.


It's no good saying, There must be an explanation if my theory is  
right.


It depends. When you do reasoning on reasoning, this can be done in  
valid, or not, way. But when you bet on some theory, if you throw out  
the theory at a first problem, you might never solve that first  
problem. If physicists would have abandoned Newton each time it was  
contradicted, they would never have found relativity and the quantum.
Löbianity allow a sort of arithmetical valid way to beg the question,  
but, here, I allude to something slightly different (yet related).


There must be an explanation if my theory is right. can be put: let  
us assume P and we see that we have that problem. But that is the  
whole point: comp leads to a very interesting problem, formulable in  
the arithmetical language, and look, machines like PA and ZF can  
already provide unexpected incredible light on that subject.


I am the guy who say that there is a problem, and who show 

Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jun 2015, at 03:48, Bruce Kellett wrote:


LizR wrote:
On 11 June 2015 at 12:20, Bruce Kellett  
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au LizR wrote:

   I suspect that physics is not computable is the /end/ result
   of Brnuo's argument (comp2) - which is supposed to be a
   /reductio/ on the notion of comp1. So comp1 assumes that  
physics

   is computable, and that assumption leads to the result that it
   isn't. Which is taken as an argument against  physical
   supervenience of consciousness on brains, although it could
   equally be an argument against brains performing computations.
   If that is the line of reasoning, then it would help if it were  
made
   more explicit. I expect that the reason that it is not more  
explicit
   is that it is actually incoherent. If comp1 leads to the  
conclusion

   that comp1 is false, then comp1 is inconsistent. Not just false,
   *inconsistent*. And as Brent is fond of saying, /ex falso
   quodlibet/. Or better, /ex contradictione sequitur quodlibet/.
I think it is made explicit. Bruno has often claimed that his  
argument is a /reductio/ on the physical supervenience thesis,


It seemed to me that the argument was directed against the notion of  
primitive physicalism, rather than just the supervenience thesis.


MGA alone is a reductio ad absurdo of the physical supervenience, but  
not of comp supervenience.






I do not remember Bruno explicitly denying supervenience.


Only physical supervenience (called supervenience by most  
(materialist) philosophers).




It would be strange if he did, since brain replacement by a computer  
at the appropriate substitution level is the beginning of the  
argument.


No doubt.




But, as I have argued, the argument against primitive physicalism  
fails because nothing is introduced that actually depends on  
primitive physicalism. That is why the whole enterprise appears to  
backfire.


?

What you say does not make sense. I introduce both comp and primitive  
physicalism to get the contracdition.


Physicis does not rely, indeed, on primitive physicalism, and that'w  
why there is no prblem with physics at all.


The problem is for the computationalist only: they have to retrieve  
physics from machine self-reference.

Then I show PA has already done the job at the propositional part.






assuming I've got that right. He is trying to show that the  
assumptions of comp1 lead to a contradiction (and one of the  
assumptions of comp1 is that consciousness supervenes on brains).


But there are other assumptions. Showing a contradiction only shows  
that your starting point is inconsistent (assuming that all the  
other stages of the reasoning are correct). It doesn't point to  
*which* assumption is at fault. That comes down to metaphysics, so  
it is all irrelevant for understanding the real world of experience.


I just show a problem for the computationalist, and to avoid people  
makes easy conclusion, i show how machine as clever as PA can already  
debunk the use of such result to argue that comp is false.


Then I am strike by the functional morphism between neoplatonism and  
the discourse of the machine introspecting itself.


The point is that with comp, metaphysics can be proceeded with the  
scientific way, without any metaphysical ontological commitment, but  
the terms of the theory.


It seems to me that you are the one doing a metaphysical commitment,  
if not, why would you like comp false, or useless, etc.


Bruno





Bruce

You don't like my metaphsysics? That's all right -- I have a whole  
draw full of alternative metaphysics available...

** With apologies to Groucho Marx.

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jun 2015, at 03:06, LizR wrote:

On 11 June 2015 at 12:20, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au  
wrote:

LizR wrote:
meekerdb wrote:
On 6/10/2015 1:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Can you explain why such interaction is not computable?

No, I was relying on your assertion that physics is not
computable - which would entail that brain processes are not
computable, which would imply that comp1 is false.  Except
there's a loophole: if comp1 means replacement by a physical
object then the physics of that object is not computable  
either

and so it might work.

Yes, that does seem to follow. And the brain replacement might  
happen to work, but we'd have no idea how (magic? supernatural?)


Why is it that when ever someone doesn't understand something they  
jump to the conclusion that it must involve magic or the  
supernatural. It is not possible that we might simply not yet know  
everything?


Just illustrative. The other available alternatives to reality being  
computable are oracles, hypercomputers, the physical existence of a  
continuum, and maybe a few other things this margin is too small to  
contain.


I suspect that physics is not computable is the /end/ result of  
Brnuo's argument (comp2) - which is supposed to be a /reductio/ on  
the notion of comp1. So comp1 assumes that physics is computable,  
and that assumption leads to the result that it isn't. Which is  
taken as an argument against  physical supervenience of  
consciousness on brains, although it could equally be an argument  
against brains performing computations.


If that is the line of reasoning, then it would help if it were made  
more explicit. I expect that the reason that it is not more explicit  
is that it is actually incoherent. If comp1 leads to the conclusion  
that comp1 is false, then comp1 is inconsistent. Not just false,  
*inconsistent*. And as Brent is fond of saying, /ex falso  
quodlibet/. Or better, /ex contradictione sequitur quodlibet/.


I think it is made explicit. Bruno has often claimed that his  
argument is a reductio on the physical supervenience thesis,  
assuming I've got that right. He is trying to show that the  
assumptions of comp1 lead to a contradiction (and one of the  
assumptions of comp1 is that consciousness supervenes on brains).


I think that's correct. I'm sure Bruno will correct me if I've  
misunderstood.



It is correct.

The idea is that I make comp clear, even if at first using the  
physical image (doctor, real artificial brain, etc.), then when making  
clear the physical supervenience thesis, we get the contradiction. At  
that stage, people can still be materialist, but have to abandon  
computationalism.
yet, in AUDA, I illustrate that such a move can also be premature,  
because, when asked, the machine illustrates that self-reference does  
put non trivial constraints on the knowable and bettable (observable).


Bruno






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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 21:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 1:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 10 Jun 2015, at 01:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/9/2015 11:04 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


You say that comp is useless, but what is your theory of mind.  
What is not Turing emulable in the brain?


Its interaction with the universe.


Are you sure it is not the interaction with God?


Dunno, Samiya seems to the expert on what God does.


Samya did not invoke God as an explanation! Usually she (to easily)  
make that understanding beyond human comprehension. (Which is true,  
but might be of the type G* minus G.)


What is the need to invoke a universe when we might perhaps be on an  
explanation of where the appearance of the universe, and consciousness/ 
knowledge come from, in a testable way?


I know that there is bad news, like some amount of math, and then a  
sequence of more and more complex questions.









Can you explain why such interaction is not computable?


No, I was relying on your assertion that physics is not computable -  
which would entail that brain processes are not computable,



That does not follow. Something non computable can emulate something  
computable. It has too, if we want universal machine and brain there.





which would imply that comp1 is false.  Except there's a loophole:  
if comp1 means replacement by a physical object then the physics of  
that object is not computable either and so it might work.


yes, we inherit each time the normality of our neighborhood. (I find  
this a bit frightening but then God know which theory is true, isn't  
it?)








With comp, it cannot be computable, as the universe, if it exists,  
is not a computable notion, a priori.




  Of course that may be Turing emulable too, if the universe is.   
But in that case you've just emulated everything, and emulated  
consciousness supervenes on emulated brains.


OK. (But then there is no problem).


There is a problem, because when everything is emulated emulated  
becomes meaningless and you've only shown that consciousness  
supervenes on brains.


?

Only the Sigma_1 truth is emulated. The Pi_1 and Sigma_2 truth and  
above are not mechanically emulable. You can define corresponding  
divine being capable of emulating them, but that is not logically  
necassery. yet those are well defined truth (even definable in PA)  
approximating the non definable, by PA, union of all those truth.


Yes, what Gödel, Turing, Church results illustrate is that the  
computable lives in a complicated relation with the non computable. In  
philosophy of mind (and matter) this is doubly so due to the FPI,  
which makes us confronted with infinities at the border of our Turing  
emulable parts.



Bruno








Brent

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jun 2015, at 01:47, LizR wrote:


On 10 June 2015 at 20:38, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 01:42, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:
On 10 June 2015 at 01:11, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
 wrote:

   That is less difficult that you might think. Consciousness
   supervenes on the physical brain
So (a) what actually is consciousness?, and (b) what is the answer  
to Maudlin and the MGA?


Consciousness is that which you lose under anaesthesia, or a  
sufficiently severe blow to the head. Like many things, it is  
defined ostensively.


Meaning you can point to it, but have no idea what it is. OK.



Er, you are not answering me here.





It is not clear what you mean when you as what it actually is? Do  
you want a fully mechanistic account? Or a philosophical account? Or  
a neurological account? Or a personal account?


It isn't me who wants it. You said consciousness supervenes on the  
brain so I assumed you knew what you were talking about.


I see you are ware of that, but the quote above suggests differently.  
We agree of course.






What is the question of Maudlin and the MGA? Is a recording  
conscious? Produce one of the required type (a complete and accurate  
recording of normal conscious brain activity) and ask it.


You should read Maudlin's paper (and Bruno's of course) they aren't  
very long, and then you will be up to speed on the arguments being  
employed.


Both these arguments are against physical supervenience, in  
different ways.


But Bruce made clear that he is not interested in the problem.

It is bizarre that some people tarnish the effort of people working in  
some field, and admits not being interested in the question. may be  
Bruce just confuse physics and metaphysical physicalism.


Bruno







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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 13:24, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 05:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 15:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:
You appear to want to draw this conclusion from FPI. But in a  
discussion with Liz a while back, I challenged this  
interpretation of your teleportation thought experiments leading  
to FPI. It was readily shown that such thought experiments were  
completely orthogonal to quantum mechanics and the MWI.
No, You stopped at step 4 (which is already better than John  
Clark). You need AUDA to get the math of the FPI, and to compare  
it to physics.
We have answered this, but you come back again on what has  
already been explained in detail: please reread the posts.


As I recall the discussion, you agreed that FPI in the  
teleportation experiments had nothing to do with MWI of quantum  
mechanics.
It has obviously something to do. Everett use it in the context of  
self-superposition. What I said is that they are different notions,  
not that they are not related. Normally, the FPI shopuld lead to  
the quantum MWI, when taken from the material points of view.


No, it has nothing to do with it. You are arguing that since my dog  
has four legs, and my cat also has four legs, then my dog is a cat.



Not at all. You abstract yourself from the UDA.

Bruno




Bruce

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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jun 2015, at 20:50, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/11/2015 6:58 AM, David Nyman wrote:
Recent discussions on the purported 'reversal' of the relation  
between 'machine psychology' and physics seem to be running, as  
ever, into the sand over disagreements on the meaning and  
significance of rather complex arguments like the MGA. I'd like to  
try another tack.


The computational theory of mind (CTM) asserts, in effect, that all  
experience is a simulation - i.e. is the net effect of some form of  
computational activity. Bruno's starting assumption, at the  
beginning of the UDA, is that a 'computation' be understood,  
conventionally, as any sequence of physical actions whose net  
effect adequately approximates that computation. This is  
essentially what I understand to be the standard physical notion of  
computation. One of its consequences, noted in step 7 of the UDA,  
is that a physical computer capable of instantiating the trace of a  
universal dovetailer (UD) would thereby simulate all possible  
experiences. If a computer running such a program were indeed to  
exist, it would be impossible to distinguish whether any given  
experience was a consequence of its activity or that of some other  
'primitive' (i.e. non-simulated) physical system. Indeed, the quasi- 
fractal, super-redundancy of the trace of the UD would render it  
overwhelmingly improbable that the origin of any given experience  
lay outside of its domain.


Of course, such a notion can be attacked by denying that any actual  
physical universe in which we are situated is sufficiently robust  
(i.e. extensive in space and time) to support the running of such a  
computer, or even if it were so robust, that any such device must  
necessarily be found in it. However, even at this point in the  
argument it may be a little disturbing to realise that we might  
escape the 'reversal' only by appealing to what might appear to be  
contingent, rather than essential, considerations. In order to  
torpedo these final objections, Bruno deploys the MGA, which is  
intended to show that any brute equivalence between net physical  
activity and computation, accepted previously, is in fact unsound.  
However, the issue of what the MGA does or does not demonstrate  
seems to open up a never-ending conversational can of worms.  
Perhaps there are simpler arguments that can be accepted, or at  
least that might lead to a clearer form of disagreement.


My suggestion would be to re-examine the notion of computation  
itself as a foundation for a theory of mind. ISTM that as long as  
we restrict discussion to third-person (3p) notions, there is no  
unusual difficulty, in principle, in justifying an equivalence  
between some psychological state and the action of some physical  
system, understood as approximating a computation. This is the sort  
of thing we mean (or at least is implied) when we say that human  
psychology supervenes on the activity of the brain. According to  
the tried and tested principles of physical reduction (which  
essentially boil down to 'no strongly emergent phenomena') a  
psychological state supervening on the physical activity of the  
brain (at whatever level) should be understood as being nothing  
over and above the combined effects of more fundamental physical  
events and relations that underlie it. In other words, both  
'psychology' and 'computation' should here be understood as  
composite terms that subsume a great mass of reducible sub- 
concepts, 'all the way down' to whatever level of physics we  
consider, for present purposes, as 'given'. None of this, as said  
before, occasions any special difficulty in explaining correlations  
between such concepts as psychology and computation, as long as it  
is realised that any new effects 'emerging' from the underlying  
physical sub-strata are ultimately to be understood as merely  
composites of more fundamental events and relations.


If none of the foregoing presents any special theoretical  
difficulty so long as we restrict our arguments to the familiar 3p  
mode of discussion, the same can't be said of its application to  
first personal (1p) concepts. This is the point, I feel, where  
sheep and goats begin to shuffle apart (sheepishly or goatishly) in  
the matter of theories of mind. What too often gets lost in our  
discussions, ISTM, is the essential distinction between any third- 
person account of the first-person (e.g. as I am now doing in these  
paragraphs) and the 1p phenomenon itself. Whereas the former can be  
understood without special theoretical difficulties as a weakly  
emergent (i.e. composite) effect, the latter cannot, at least not  
without implicitly dismissing its status as an independently real  
phenomenon, in the manner of the Graziano theory recently  
discussed. It's perhaps not so surprising that this distinction is  
elusive, as there is no other circumstance, AFAIK, in which this  
consideration arises. Putatively 

Re: super intelligence and self-sampling

2015-06-12 Thread John Clark
On Thu, Jun 11, 2015  spudboy100 via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 Meh! I have read that some theorists now predict that dark whatever will
 cause a new contraction and that this is already occuring. Its the sort of
 thing that gets mentioned in ARIXV, and physorg. Please note, I am not
 waiting up for the next x-billion years to see if this occurs or not?


Predict? The only thing I've heard is that because nobody knows what Dark
Energy is we can't entirely rule out the possibility that in trillions of
years it will suddenly reverse direction even though there is absolutely no
sign of that happening now. But no amount of spin can change the fact that
the discovery of an accelerating universe was a devastating blow to
Tipler's Omega Theory. And how do you explain away Tipler's incorrect
predictions about the value of the Hubble constant and the mass of the
Higgs boson when Tipler wrote in black and white that those predictions HAD
to be correct or his theory wouldn't work?

  John K Clark

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 13:00, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 02:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 15:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 09:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Why not? If it can emulate a specific purpose Turning machine,  
it can emulate a universal Turing machine. I think Putnam's  
argument for unlimited pancomputationalism implies this.
I am not convince by that argument. Show me a rock program  
computing the prime numbers.


Show me a Turing machine that can compute the prime numbers

Easy but tedious, and distracting exercise.
Show me how to emulate just K, that is the function which send  
(x, y) to x. it is not obvious this can be done, because y is  
eliminated, you need a black hole for it, and a proof that it  
does not evaporate.


You are becoming a physicalist, Bruno!
You seem to be concerned by Landauer's principle, and the  
difficulty of eliminating physical information. This is not a  
problem for a Turing machine. It is a finite state machine, so  
define one state as (x,y) and another as (x). Then the operation  
when the machine finds itself in the state (x,y) is to move to the  
state (x). Not a problem. Even a rock can do it!
How? The physicist in me is pretty sure that there is no K, nor S,  
in the physical core.
But I could agree that with pebble, we can argue that we can  
implement an approximation of K.
But not of much more complex program. If you believe that, you will  
first need to show me how you read and retrieve the information for  
the rock, and how the rock computes.


Digital computation is just a sequence of states.


Not really. It is a sequence of states brought by a universal machine  
(and then by infinities of such universal machines).




With the rock, as we warm it gradually (by the sun, or in the fire),  
it passes through a sequence of states. We identify these correctly  
to give whatever computation you want.


Any sequence of physical state can be made into any computation, by  
changing the universal machine. computation is a relative notion. you  
need to make precise the universal machine you talk about when  
mentioning a computation.




This is the basic pan-computationalism thesis -- everything is a  
computation, and everything is a computer.


That does not follow. With computationalism, almost everything is NOT  
a computation. The computable part of arithmetic is only a tiny part  
of arithmetical truth. That play some role in the measure problem.


Bruno






Bruce

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 20:43, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 1:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Comp makes physics NOT emulable by any machine a priori.


Now if physics is not emulable by any machine, how is it to be  
recovered from the computations of the dovetailer?


By the FPI on all computations continuing the here-and- 
now (defined indexically with the DX=XX method).
Physics might be based on real numbers, and that would occur if the  
winner is given by infinite sequence of diophantine polynomial  
approximations. The first person invariance for the UD delays play  
a crucial role here.


But the existence of a first person viewpoint depends on a stable  
physics. The two are not separable.


Exactly, that is why we can derive physics from the self- 
referentially correct machine theory.


Bruno





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Re: Conway Life emulating Conway Life

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 15 Apr 2015, at 10:55, LizR wrote:


That's rather mind-boggling - GOL rather than GOD?






If GOL is God, we are all trivially God. We, the universal  
interpreters (Fortran, Lisp, combinators, numbers, etc.).


Sometimes I call that God, the little God. It is one that you *can*  
name, but once you name it, it multiplies and get other name  
(computer, apple, microsoft, algol, GOL, Lisp,  Paul, Jack, Liz,  
John, Samya, etc.


The apparition of computer is an abstract big-bang, a sort of creative  
explosion, with infinitely many echoes, leading to layers and layers  
of universality: universes, lives, brains, languages, computers, ...


Bruno






On 15 April 2015 at 20:03, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
Hi,

Here is a wonderful video showing an emulation of the game of life,  
programmed in the game of life. It illustrates well the notion of  
emulation. In fact the program is supposed to emulate itself, so  
there is a nice inception effect, also:


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xP5-iIeKXE8

I have to go,

Have a good day,

Bruno


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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 13:20, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2015-06-10 13:00 GMT+02:00 Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au:
Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 02:41, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 09 Jun 2015, at 15:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:
Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 09 Jun 2015, at 09:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Why not? If it can emulate a specific purpose Turning machine, it  
can emulate a universal Turing machine. I think Putnam's argument  
for unlimited pancomputationalism implies this.
I am not convince by that argument. Show me a rock program computing  
the prime numbers.


Show me a Turing machine that can compute the prime numbers
Easy but tedious, and distracting exercise.
Show me how to emulate just K, that is the function which send (x,  
y) to x. it is not obvious this can be done, because y is  
eliminated, you need a black hole for it, and a proof that it does  
not evaporate.


You are becoming a physicalist, Bruno!
You seem to be concerned by Landauer's principle, and the difficulty  
of eliminating physical information. This is not a problem for a  
Turing machine. It is a finite state machine, so define one state as  
(x,y) and another as (x). Then the operation when the machine finds  
itself in the state (x,y) is to move to the state (x). Not a  
problem. Even a rock can do it!


How? The physicist in me is pretty sure that there is no K, nor S,  
in the physical core.


But I could agree that with pebble, we can argue that we can  
implement an approximation of K.
But not of much more complex program. If you believe that, you will  
first need to show me how you read and retrieve the information for  
the rock, and how the rock computes.


Digital computation is just a sequence of states. With the rock, as  
we warm it gradually (by the sun, or in the fire), it passes through  
a sequence of states. We identify these correctly to give whatever  
computation you want.


Then the computation will be in the mapping which is the  
interpreter... the rock itself is missing the machine interpreting  
the state and relating all the sequence of states of the rock... The  
rock and the interpreter is a computation, the rock alone is not.


Exactly.

Bruno




Quentin

This is the basic pan-computationalism thesis -- everything is a  
computation, and everything is a computer.



Bruce

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 10:18, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 00:37, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 12:07, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 07:40, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Given a set of axioms and some agreed rules of inference, the  
same results always follow, regardless of by whom or at what  
time the application is made. This is not what is usually  
referred to as kicking back. Johnson did not apply some  
axioms and rules of inference in answer to the idealists, he  
kicked a stone.

But people can kicked stone in dreams too.


But do they wake up with broken or bruised toes?

Do they ever wake up?


Solipsist!
That does not follow. Dreams can be shared, like with second-life  
video games, or the MWI.


The point was in your suggestion that dreamers might not wake --  
nothing to do with shared dreams. Shared dreams refer to a different  
form of dream -- as in I dream of winning the lottery.


The idea that our experience of life is just a dream leads to  
solipsism.


Very often indeed. My point was just that t is a common invalid move,  
and this can easily be understood in term of multi-user video game (to  
build the counter-example: not to pretend anything on what is real or  
not).
With computationalism, there is only shared dreaming, and so we never  
wake, but we can wake relatively to a layer of universality. Yet,  
empirically, we can be pretty sure that the quantum realities are at  
the bottom core of the physical reality.


Bruno





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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 13:21, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 02:33, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 15:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The details of the operation of the brain, and its effect on  
consciousness, are the realm of study of the neurosciences.
Computer scientists only ever confuse themselves over these  
quite simple matters.
The neuro-science are based on comp. Unless you believe like  
Penrose that the neuron use a non computable ability to reduce  
the wave packet? is that the case? Is your theory Penrose theory?


No, I don't believe that the neuron 'reduces the wave function'.  
But your claim that the neurosicences are based on comp is  
something of an overreach. The neurosciences are based on the  
study of the physical brain. Like most scientists, they do not  
have any particular metaphysical prejudices, and those that they  
do have seldom get in the way of their science.

So they use comp by default,


You mean that work on the basis that conscious supervenes on the  
physical brain,



Not really. At least conscious supervenes on the physical brain is  
ambiguous.


No, I meant the idea that what is relevant in the brain for  
consciousness does not invoke actual infinities, nor non computable  
elements so that we can survive with a brain/body computer.






and that that brain operates according to regular physical laws.


That will do, as those laws are computable, as far as we know.




You don't have to accept comp, even unknowingly, to believe that.



Once you believe that, modula the prcision I just gave, this is  
equivalent with comp1, and this ential comp2.






except Penrose. Comp is a weak and general hypothesis, given that  
if we except the wave collapse, we don't know in nature any process  
which is not Turing emulable.  Some believe that with
a black hole we might be able to implement non-computational stuff,  
but it is far fetched and controversial.
You seem to be asking me to provide a detailed mechanism for the  
phenomenon of consciousness. That is not my area, so I do not feel  
myself under any obligation to provide such a mechanistic account.
I was asking for a non mechanist account as you are the one saying  
that comp is false.


And I have given such an account, many times.


I have not seen them. Please give a link, or make a summary.



In any case, I can criticize comp without having to provide an  
alternative. One can say that general relativity and QM are mutually  
incompatible without having to solve the problem of quantum gravity.


Like we can show that computationalism and physicalism is  
incompatible. Fair enough. But I have missed your argument against  
comp1 (and I have show the flaw in your argument that comp1 does not  
lead to comp2).






I do feel, however, that I have the reciprocal right to ask you to  
produce the fortran program that instantiates your personal  
consciousness. You claim that it exists, so why not produce it?

The UD does it. I wrote it in Lisp.


And what did you find? The truth is that you have not tested any of  
these ideas in practice,


In practice? I just prove theorems. I am a theoretician. There is no  
practical application, except learning that science has not yet really  
begun, given that we use incompatibe theological ideas, like comp and  
the beliefs in a primitive physical reality. The practice of this  
needs theology to come back in academy.





nor have you produced a conscious program or computer.


Here is one:

0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

+ for all F first order arithmetical formula:

(F(0)  Ax(F(x) - F(s(x))) - AxF(x).

That programs is as much conscious than you and me. Indeed, it is the  
one interviewed on the theological and physical question in the work.


Bruno






Bruce

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 13:44, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 10 Jun 2015, at 05:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:


OK. For what set of quantum operators have you demonstrated non- 
commutation?

For the yes-no operator in general.


What quantum operator is that?


Frequency operator, a bit like in some paper by Graham, Hartle, but  
recasted in the Z and X logic. I can do that tnaks to work done in  
quantum logic (Dalla Chiara, Goldblatt, Bell, ...).





And with what other quantum operator does it fail to commute.


Other yes-No question/operator. I don't want to explain this right  
now. I need you first to understand the UDA.





They are given and construct from the quantization ([]A) in the  
logic Z1*. It is rather long to describe, and you have shown no  
interest for the small amount of technic needed to make sense of  
the material hypostases. We can come back on this later, if you are  
more interested.


Of course position and momentum are not yet derived, and it is  
not clear if they will be derived.


If they are not, comp fails a crucial test
That is not entirely obvious. It might be possible that time and  
space are more geographical than physical notion, in which case,  
time and space would not be derivable. Hamiltonian with gravity and  
space-time structure might be contingent. Open problem.


You claim that physics emerges from the UD,


I claim only that IF comp is true, then physics HAVE to emerge from  
the UD.





but you just happen not to be sure about time and space.?


because time and space might be a geographical notion.



What, in your opinion then, is physics? A set of dynamical laws  
describing the behaviour of material objects in time and space, or  
what?


Yes, laws, which have to be true everywhere, for all machines. But  
comp cannot explain geographico-historical happenings (nor do the  
physical law; that is why geography is not physics).


If the modalities of the material hypostases would have collapsed,  
like most people thought a long time ago, then physics might have  
become, assuming comp, entirely geographical, and this would have lead  
to a continous multiverse, incarnating all physical/geographical laws.  
But now, the modalities do not collapse, and we know (with comp) that  
there is a genuine physical reality.






You need to be a bit more precise about what you consider to be  
geographical (contingent) and what you consider to be derivable  
physics.


You need to understand the way I proceed. I start from comp, and show  
only that physics is derivable, so we will see clearly what is  
genuinely physical and what is contingent. The contingencies are  
differnet for each material hypostases, and described by 0, 1,  
2, 3, in arithmetic.




Physics is often taken to be a set of dynamical laws together with  
some boundary conditions. The hope of some is that we can subsume  
more and more of the boundary into the dynamics, so that a true TOE  
is only physics, with no boundary conditions, geography, or  
contingencies at all.


You need to come clean on what the dovetailer can actually give --


What precisely. you have shown that you don't know what a computation  
is, so I doubt that you can assess what has already be done, to be  
frank.




we have to be ably to check this against observable physics in order  
to verify it, after all.


This has been done. It is, like for any theory on reality, an infinite  
task, and the problem now is to solve open question in computer  
science/mathematical logic. the quantum proposition physics has  
already been extracted.







But, anyway, UDA shows first the *necessity* of all this. I am  
still waiting your non-comp explanation of consciousness. Comp  
explains already why there is consciousness, and why there might be  
matter (in a testable way) capable of stabilizing the consciousness  
flux.


Comp does not explain why there is consciousness, it assumes it.


It assumes it in UDA, but we got the complete explanation in AUDA, up  
to something which is explained as being not explainable for logical  
reason.



And what is more, it doesn't actually tell us anything useful about  
consciousness.


It explains completely why consciousness is not a computation, nor  
matter can be computable.




According to your recent statements, consciousness is not even a  
computation.


Yes, that is an example of application of comp.





Also, there is no requirement for me to offer any theory of  
consciousness, as I have explained in detail elsewhere.


So, you have just a negative tone, but you have neither find a flaw in  
comp and its consequences, nor propose any alternative. I am not sure  
what is your goal.


Bruno





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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 21:05, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 1:42 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 10 Jun 2015, at 02:33, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Jun 2015, at 15:11, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The details of the operation of the brain, and its effect on  
consciousness, are the realm of study of the neurosciences.
Computer scientists only ever confuse themselves over these  
quite simple matters.
The neuro-science are based on comp. Unless you believe like  
Penrose that the neuron use a non computable ability to reduce  
the wave packet? is that the case? Is your theory Penrose theory?


No, I don't believe that the neuron 'reduces the wave function'.  
But your claim that the neurosicences are based on comp is  
something of an overreach. The neurosciences are based on the  
study of the physical brain. Like most scientists, they do not  
have any particular metaphysical prejudices, and those that they  
do have seldom get in the way of their science.



So they use comp by default, except Penrose. Comp is a weak and  
general hypothesis, given that if we except the wave collapse, we  
don't know in nature any process which is not Turing emulable. Some  
believe that with a black hole we might be able to implement non- 
computational stuff, but it is far fetched and controversial.





You seem to be asking me to provide a detailed mechanism for the  
phenomenon of consciousness. That is not my area, so I do not feel  
myself under any obligation to provide such a mechanistic account.


I was asking for a non mechanist account as you are the one saying  
that comp is false.





I do feel, however, that I have the reciprocal right to ask you to  
produce the fortran program that instantiates your personal  
consciousness. You claim that it exists, so why not produce it?


The UD does it. I wrote it in Lisp.


But you only assume it instantiates your consciousness because it  
instantiates all possible Turing computations.  So it's validation  
of your theory depends on assuming your theory.




But I am not defending the idea that comp is true at all.

I was obviously assuming comp.

I work in that theory. You know that since the start. I tell only  
consequence of that theory.


I only show the problem (UDA), and the machine's solution (AUDA),  
which I compare to the human solution (the Plato-type one, and the  
Aristotle type one).


I think you made a sort of straw man thing here.

Bruno








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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 16:56, John Clark wrote:


On Tue, Jun 9, 2015  Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

 Surely it isn't a crime to be a solipsist. What's socially  
unacceptable about the belief that you are the only mind and that  
all other minds are you as well?


The crime is intellectual dishonesty. I don't believe anyone this  
side of a looney bin really believes in solipsism except when  
arguing on the internet or standing in front of a classroom full of  
sophomore philosophy students trying to sound provocative.



I agree. Solipsism is an ultra-pathetic thought, unless you interpret  
solipsism in Kim's sense, which is God solipsism, which logically does  
not only NOT making the other disappearing, but it makes the other  
like doppelganger à-la Washington/Moscow type, except that the split  
occurred a much longer time ago.
But I would not follow Kim to call that solipsism, which is usually  
the more naive idea that I am actually dreaming of the others, and  
that they are sort of zombie images.


Bruno




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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jun 2015, at 20:34, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/10/2015 12:55 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 09 Jun 2015, at 19:10, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/9/2015 12:34 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 08 Jun 2015, at 19:27, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/8/2015 1:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Hence what I've called comp1 is the default materialist  
hypothesis (also known as the strong AI thesis, I think)


Comp1 is not comp, even if it is comp for a materialist: but  
that position is proved to be nonsense.


Comp is just I am a digitalizable machine.
String AI is the thesis that machine can think (be conscious).  
It does not logically entail comp. Machine can think, but does  
not need to be the only thinking entities. Gods and goddesses  
might be able to think too.


But in saying I am a digitalizable machine you implicitly  
assume that machine exists in the environment that you exist in.


That is not a problem. In arithmetic I will exist in infinities  
of environments, played by UMs (with and without oracles). Such  
existence are relative, and phenomenological.




It is this environment and your potential interaction with it  
that provides meaning to the digital thoughts of the machine.


I can agree with this. What does it change in the reasoning?


It undermines the MGA because it shows that whether a physical  
process instantiates a computation is a wholistic question, one  
whose answer is relative to the environment and interaction with  
that environment.  This means that isolating the movie graph and  
then showing that it is absurd to regard it as a computation is  
not a legitimate move.





The boolean graph contained the part of the simulation of the  
environment.


That doesn't solve the problem.  The simulation of the environment  
refers to the environment outside the simulation (that's why it's a  
simulation).  So if someone asks how the computation gets meaning  
the answer is contagious and extends indefinitely far in time and  
space.


Why. All those environment/brain situations are emulated infinitely  
often in arithmetic.
or you are placing something magical in the environment, or in the use  
of therm meaning.






Then the movie graph does not emulate a computation, and that is  
what lead to the absurdity.
Or you mean that the environment needs primitive matter, but then  
the boolean graph already does not the relevant computation.


I'm confused on that point.


I agree it is subtle. I am confused too on this, but the contrary  
would be astonishing. Consciousness and theology, in the comp frame is  
easy (as John K said), but not that easy.





Comp1 is the proposition that the brain can be replaced by a digital  
computer at some level of emulation.


OK. It can be replaced, in the physical reality, at the substitution  
level.






The brain's function must be Turing emulable.


At least those relevant for the relevant computations. OK.



But then after going through the argument to show that conscious  
thoughts, as computations,


Careful, you might associate consciousness to cpmputation, but  
actually, consciousness, like knowledge is associated to computations,  
but also to God (Truth).




exist independent of material processes, you somehow jump to the  
conclusion that neither conscious thoughts nor physical processes  
are Turing emulable (which is why I called those conclusions part of  
comp2).



This is because you are indetermined below your substitution level,  
and matter stabilizes on the FPI on a*all* computation. And  
consciousness is related to Truth, which is not even definable. I  
might say more later, if when going again through the step 7. It is  
not simple, and highly counter-intuitive, but it is important that  
people understand better the fact that arithmetic emulates the  
computations, beyond describing them. I have realized lately that this  
is not obvious for more than one people on this list.


Bruno





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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jun 2015, at 08:13, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Jun 12, 2015 at 03:40:48PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:


This is a false distinction. Arithmetical 'truth' is no more
fundamental  or final than physical truth. Arithmetic is, after all,
only an axiomatic system. We can make up an indefinite number of
axiomatic systems whose theorems are every bit as 'independent of
us' as those of arithmetic. Are these also to be accepted as 'really
real!'? Standard arithmetic is only important to us because it is
useful in the physical world. It is invented, not fundamental.



Yes - but comp actually doesn't depend on standard arithmetic
either. What it depends on is the Church-Turing thesis to define what
is meant by computation. Standard arithmetic is convenient, as it
contains CT-thesis universal computers within it, but not
essential. Any other ontology supporting the CT-thesis will do.

The assumption of CT-thesis is not trivial, however. As David Deutsch
would point out, one could assume the Hilbert Hotel, and get a form of
hypercomputation. DD argues that lack of hypercomputers around us is
evidence that physical reality cannot support more powerful
computational models that the Turing one, but a more neutral way of
putting it is to say that ontology (which may or may not be physical)
cannot support more powerful models, effectively demarcating parts of
Platonia.


Yes.

It is the precise demarcation, in the arithmetical platonia, between  
the sigma_1 reality, and the pi_i and sigma_i more complex, non  
computable (but still well definite arithmetically) realities.


Bruno







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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jun 2015, at 07:40, Bruce Kellett wrote:


LizR wrote:
You also say that 1p phenomena - in a physical theory - have to be  
eliminated (as per Dennett) or elevated to something we could call  
supernatural (for the sake of argument - in any case, something  
not covered by the underlying physics). But the alternative is  
apparently that subjective phenomena exist inside assumed-to-be- 
real arithmetic, and the (appearance of a) physical world somehow  
emerges from that. Both of these are problematic. The first seems  
plausible to me (in the elimiativist mode), but implausible in that  
it reifies matter and doesn't have an ontological status that could  
be called final, but merely one that is contingent (i.e. we're  
here because we're here because...) while arithmetical truth, if  
there is such a thing, does.


This is a false distinction. Arithmetical 'truth' is no more  
fundamental  or final than physical truth. Arithmetic is, after all,  
only an axiomatic system.


Sorry, but here you show that you have no knowledge of modern  
mathematical logic.


Arithmetical truth, or reality, is subsumed in the usual structure (N,  
0, +, *). Since Gödel we know that this is not a computable reality,  
and indeed that it escapes *all* effective theories.


An axiomatic system, like RA, or PA, or ZF, can only scratch on the  
surface of the arithmetical reality.


What is true, is that with comp, everything is determined by the much  
more tiny sigma_1 arithmetical truth, which is the arithmetical UD.  
From inside, the phenomenological is richer, and cannot be bounded in  
non computable complexity. Most machine's predicate are not computable.






We can make up an indefinite number of axiomatic systems whose  
theorems are every bit as 'independent of us' as those of arithmetic.


Once you assume one universal system, you get all the other for free.  
from now one I assume only the combinators K and S, and their  
combinations. That will help for the physical derivation.





Are these also to be accepted as 'really real!'?


Once one is real, all the other are real too. The robinson  
arithmetical axioms becomes theorem in combinatory algebra.



Standard arithmetic is only important to us because it is useful in  
the physical world. It is invented, not fundamental.


Amen.

Bruno









Bruce

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Re: A (somewhat) different angle on the reversal

2015-06-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jun 2015, at 07:24, Bruce Kellett wrote:


David Nyman wrote:
Recent discussions on the purported 'reversal' of the relation  
between 'machine psychology' and physics seem to be running, as  
ever, into the sand over disagreements on the meaning and  
significance of rather complex arguments like the MGA. I'd like to  
try another tack.


It is useful to have a different perspective. You have helped  
clarify some of the issues, for me at least.


The computational theory of mind (CTM) asserts, in effect, that all  
experience is a simulation - i.e. is the net effect of some form of  
computational activity. Bruno's starting assumption, at the  
beginning of the UDA, is that a 'computation' be understood,  
conventionally, as any sequence of physical actions whose net  
effect adequately approximates that computation. This is  
essentially what I understand to be the standard physical notion of  
computation. One of its consequences, noted in step 7 of the UDA,  
is that a physical computer capable of instantiating the trace of a  
universal dovetailer (UD) would thereby simulate all possible  
experiences. If a computer running such a program were indeed to  
exist, it would be impossible to distinguish whether any given  
experience was a consequence of its activity or that of some other  
'primitive' (i.e. non-simulated) physical system. Indeed, the quasi- 
fractal, super-redundancy of the trace of the UD would render it  
overwhelmingly improbable that the origin of any given experience  
lay outside of its domain.
Of course, such a notion can be attacked by denying that any actual  
physical universe in which we are situated is sufficiently robust  
(i.e. extensive in space and time) to support the running of such a  
computer, or even if it were so robust, that any such device must  
necessarily be found in it. However, even at this point in the  
argument it may be a little disturbing to realise that we might  
escape the 'reversal' only by appealing to what might appear to be  
contingent, rather than essential, considerations. In order to  
torpedo these final objections, Bruno deploys the MGA, which is  
intended to show that any brute equivalence between net physical  
activity and computation, accepted previously, is in fact unsound.  
However, the issue of what the MGA does or does not demonstrate  
seems to open up a never-ending conversational can of worms.  
Perhaps there are simpler arguments that can be accepted, or at  
least that might lead to a clearer form of disagreement.


The MGA fails because it is a thought experiment that seeks to  
establish a metaphysical result, namely, that there is no role for  
'primitive' materialism. However, if the argument were valid, it  
would only establish some sort of dualism between consciousness and  
brain activity, whether the brain were physical or not. Because it  
is undoubtedly the case that consciousness does supervene on brain  
activity -- the experimental evidence for this is overwhelming.


There are evidence that consciousness can be associated to brain  
activity, but some would say that there are evidence that  
consciousness does not need anything non computable in the brain, and  
there is no evidence that the consciousness does not supervene on the  
infinity of brain in arithmetic: on the contrary, even physicists are  
brought to the idea that our consciousness might depend on those  
infinities, like with Everett.
We would not say yes to a doctor, if we did not believe in some  
local physical supervenience thesis. The reasoning just show tools to  
evaluate the clues that the physical itself emerges from coherence  
conditions in number (or combinators, ...) relations.





One can't remove the brain (or some substituted physical equivalent)  
and still have consciousness.


Remove where? If your brain is remove here, but not there, you will  
still not know that your brain has been removed. It is important to  
distinguish the first person view and the third person view.








My suggestion would be to re-examine the notion of computation  
itself as a foundation for a theory of mind. ISTM that as long as  
we restrict discussion to third-person (3p) notions, there is no  
unusual difficulty, in principle, in justifying an equivalence  
between some psychological state and the action of some physical  
system, understood as approximating a computation. This is the sort  
of thing we mean (or at least is implied) when we say that human  
psychology supervenes on the activity of the brain. According to  
the tried and tested principles of physical reduction (which  
essentially boil down to 'no strongly emergent phenomena') a  
psychological state supervening on the physical activity of the  
brain (at whatever level) should be understood as being nothing  
over and above the combined effects of more fundamental physical  
events and relations that underlie it. In other words, both  
'psychology' and 'computation' 

Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 6:41 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

nor have you produced a conscious program or computer.


Here is one:

0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

+ for all F first order arithmetical formula:

(F(0)  Ax(F(x) - F(s(x))) - AxF(x).

That programs is as much conscious than you and me. Indeed, it is the one interviewed on 
the theological and physical question in the work.


That seems more absurd than the reductio of the MGA. One must ask of what is the program 
conscious?...all theorems of PA?  That's not only very different from what I am aware of, 
it's also infinitely greater.


Brent

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Re: Notion of (mathematical) reason

2015-06-12 Thread meekerdb

On 6/12/2015 6:58 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

You claim that physics emerges from the UD,


I claim only that IF comp is true, then physics HAVE to emerge from the UD. 


But I don't think you've shown that.  Comp1 doesn't imply that all possible computations 
exist.  That's a separate assumption you slip in that all computations or all arithmetic 
exists.


Brent

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