--- On Sat, 10/25/08, Mark Waser <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > The fact that Occam's Razor works in the real world > > suggests that the > > physics of the universe is computable. Otherwise AIXI > > would not apply. > > Hmmm. I don't get this. Occam's razor simply says > go with the simplest > explanation until forced to expand it and then only expand > it as necessary. > > How does this suggest that the physics of the universe is > computable? > > Or conversely, why and how would Occam's razor *not* > work in a universe > where the physics aren't computable.
The proof of AIXI assumes the environment is computable by a Turing machine (possibly with a random element). I realize this is not a proof that the universe is computable. -- Matt Mahoney, [EMAIL PROTECTED] ------------------------------------------- agi Archives: https://www.listbox.com/member/archive/303/=now RSS Feed: https://www.listbox.com/member/archive/rss/303/ Modify Your Subscription: https://www.listbox.com/member/?member_id=8660244&id_secret=117534816-b15a34 Powered by Listbox: http://www.listbox.com
