On Monday, January 21, 2013 4:53:25 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:
>
>  Hi Craig Weinberg 
>  
> That is such a silly pov. 
>

Because it's your pov, not mine. You don't understand what I am talking 
about so you keep pointing at a Straw Man misinterpretation of Berkeleyan 
idealism.
 

> If a boulder
> fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
> you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?
>

It depends if I was in a coma or not. If a boulder fell on you while you 
were in a coma, and you remained in a coma for another year, there would be 
no 'hurt' caused by the boulder - at least not to you personally...to your 
cells and organs, that's another matter.
 

>  ----- Receiving the following content ----- 
> *From:* Craig Weinberg <javascript:> 
> *Receiver:* everything-list <javascript:> 
> *Time:* 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
> *Subject:* Re: Re: Is there an aether ?
>
>  
>
> On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 
>>
>>  Hi Craig Weinberg 
>>  
>> So the world did not exist before man ?
>>
>
> The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not 
> define all experience in the universe.
>  
>
>>   
>>  
>>
>> ----- Receiving the following content ----- 
>> *From:* Craig Weinberg 
>> *Receiver:* everything-list 
>> *Time:* 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
>> *Subject:* Re: Is there an aether ?
>>
>>  
>>
>> On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 
>>>
>>> Hi Craig, 
>>>
>>> On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg <whats...@gmail.com>wrote:
>>>  
>>>> The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is 
>>>> possible for something to exist without sensory participation. When you 
>>>> fail to factor that critically important physical reality into physics, 
>>>> what you get is senseless fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and 
>>>> aetheric emptiness full mass.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to 
>>> explain that?
>>>
>>
>> "come from" is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is 
>> how one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 
>>
>> Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out 
>> of enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is 
>> simply not possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') 
>> outside of sense. There has never been anything but sense.
>>
>>   Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
>>> complexification of (this) universe?
>>>
>>
>> Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
>> proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
>> sense. To make more and more and better sense.
>>  
>>
>>>    
>>>
>>>>
>>>> What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything 
>>>> beneath the classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous 
>>>> appearance, and decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's 
>>>> tragically obvious to me - faced with a cosmos filled with concrete 
>>>> sensory 
>>>> appearances, of meaning and subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - 
>>>> meaningless abstractions of multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. 
>>>> It's blind insanity. We are being led by the nose behind circular 
>>>> reasoning 
>>>> and instrumental assumptions. 
>>>>
>>>> What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as 
>>>> a particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
>>>> constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
>>>> Universe from Nothing falsifiable?
>>>>
>>>
>>> Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become 
>>> scientific theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?
>>>
>>
>> My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the 
>> context of sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood 
>> as a function of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private 
>> qualities. In other words I am seeing the idea of objectivity itself from 
>> an even more objective perspective. In that sense I am not trying to make a 
>> theory which is consistent with any particular school of expectation, only 
>> to observe and catalog the phenomenon itself.
>>
>> Craig
>>  
>>
>>>    
>>>
>>>>
>>>> We have to go back to the beginning. What are we using to measure 
>>>> particles? What are we assuming about energy?
>>>>
>>>> Craig 
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Saturday, January 19, 2013 5:14:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 
>>>>>
>>>>> On 1/19/2013 8:48 AM, Laurent R Duchesne wrote: 
>>>>>
>>>>> Empty Space is not Empty! 
>>>>>
>>>>> http://www.youtube.com/watch?**v=y4D6qY2c0Z8<http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y4D6qY2c0Z8>
>>>>>  
>>>>>
>>>>> The so-called Higgs field is just another name for Einstein's 
>>>>> gravitational aether. 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> No.  There's no gravitational aether.  Einstein never suggested such.  
>>>>> And gravity doesn't depend on the Higgs field.
>>>>>
>>>>> Mass is the result of matter's field interactions within itself and 
>>>>> the space in which it sits, hence, the Higgs mechanism. 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> You need to remember that it's mass-energy.  Photons gravitate even 
>>>>> though they don't have rest mass.  Most of the mass of nucleons comes 
>>>>> from 
>>>>> the kinetic energy of the quarks bound by gluons, not the Higgs effect.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Particles can emerge anywhere and as needed, e.g., particle pair 
>>>>> creation, but from where, and what do they feed from, creation ex nihilo? 
>>>>> That seems like a physical impossibility. Anyway, why would we have 
>>>>> wave-particle complementarity if it were not because matter depends on 
>>>>> the 
>>>>> substrate? Isn't this the reason why we need a Higgs mechanism? 
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Wave-particle complementarity applies to massless particles too; 
>>>>> Einstein got the Nobel prize for explaining the photo-electric effect.
>>>>>
>>>>> Brent
>>>>>
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