Which reminds me of a question I've always wanted to ask about: in a Purcell piece (as published by Carus Verlag), the -ed of displeased has its own note. Does this mean it was actually pronounced at the time?
Yes, it is archaic in most cases, but there it is.
When did the vocalic sound disappear?
It's still with us, in words like "naked" (unless you pronounce it the way my daughter did when she was 7, to rhythm with "flaked.") But most of them disappeared I would say at least 100 years ago, perhaps more.
_______________________________________________
Finale mailing list
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
