Re: MODAL 5 (was Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Feb 2014, at 23:08, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




On Thursday, February 20, 2014, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:

Hi Liz,

On 20 Feb 2014, at 08:49, LizR wrote:


On 19 February 2014 23:00, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
Liz, Others,

I was waiting for you to answer the last questions to proceed. Any  
problem?


Well, nothing apart from going on a mini holiday with an old friend  
for the last 4 days. Sadly she hasn't changed over the last 30  
years, so it wasn't much fun, but she'd flown all the way from the  
UK to NZ so I couldn't really refuse.


Actually my brain has died after all the nonsense I have been  
through over the last few days. It may take a little while to come  
back. I will try to answer this post properly, maybe tomorrow.



Thanks for letting me know. Take your time, as the fun is what  
matter the most.
Feel free to do meta-remarks, or to suggest that I change the  
pedagogy, or that I sum up better where we are going.


You have no problem in understanding logical (modal or not)  
semantics, but I know, from older posts, that you do have some  
weakness in deducibility. deducing is usually not an easy task,  
but you will never been obliged to deduce, only to understand what  
is a deduction, why they can be automated, and checked mechanically,  
and above all, what are their relation with semantics.


Then we will be able to begin the interview of the Löbian machine in  
arithmetic, and the derivation of physics. that's the real thing,  
and eventually you will see that modal logic is what make possible  
to be quite short on this.


Take the time needed for your brain to recover. Thanks for telling  
me, so that I avoid any paranoia, like did I say something impolite  
or what 


Kind regards,

Bruno

You're one of the most patient and polite people on the Internet,  
Bruno.


Thanks Stathis.

You are the one who focus always directly on the point, without any  
rhetorical tricks and that is quite appreciated.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Philosophy experiments

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
http://www.philosophyexperiments.com/frankfurt/Default.aspx

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Feb 2014, at 06:53, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


On 20 February 2014 20:43, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


On 19 Feb 2014, at 22:50, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:



On Thursday, February 20, 2014, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:



On 19 Feb 2014, at 17:18, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:



On 18/02/2014, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

I think if I say consciousness is an epiphenomenon of  
biochemistry I

should also say that life is.



And should you not go on to say that biochemistry is an  
epiphenomenon of
physics and physics is an epiphenomenon of  well, something  
that is

not
itself epiphenomenal, I guess? The way you formulate the problem  
seems

to
tend to the conclusion that any and all appearances should  
strictly be
considered an epiphenomenon of something more fundamental that  
cannot
possibly be encountered directly. And, moreover, there is no  
entailment

that any such something be straightforwardly isomorphic with any of
those
appearances. I'm not saying that this view is incoherent, by the  
way,

but
do you agree that something like this is entailed by what you say?


I'm making a case for reductionism. If biochemistry necessarily  
leads to

consciousness


Biochemistry or anything Turing universal.



then I don't think this is any different to the situation where
biochemistry necessarily leads to life.


Ah!
But then life is clearly a 3p phenomenon, so why make  
consciousness an
epiphenomenon? Of course consciousness is only a 1p phenomenon,  
but it can

make sense (indeed as a sense maker or receptor).

Bruno



Maybe the 1p/3p distinction is a failure of imagination.


What could that mean? The diary of the M-guy and of the W-guy do
differentiate, and are different from the memory and records of the  
observer

which does not enter in the telebox.
I am not sure what sense to give to your statement.
Likewise, the math 3p ([]p) and 1p ([]p  p) *does* obey different  
logic.

And, yes, it is due to a failure of the machine to see that they are
equivalent (as seen by G*), but it is not a failure of imagination,  
it is a

requirement to remain consistent.


That the diary is different and that the observer will experience only
M or W and not both is a 3p describable phenomenon.


Yes. That is why there is nothing controversial in the FPI, as it  
needs only a very crude 3p definition of 1p, illustrated with personal  
memories or diaries accompanying the experiencer in the telebox.




The essentially
different thing about 1p is that it is private: I can read your diary,
but even then I don't really know how you feel. I can only know how
you feel by *being* you, or so it goes.


Yes. But distinguishing 1p and 3p, by outside/inside a teleportation  
box already gives the gist why we cannot experience the private  
experience of someone else, as the threads WWMM... will be  
particular for each individual, even for a consciousness eliminativist.
Two observers get entangled, and share the same indeterminacies, when  
going both in the same telebox. That's the first person plural.






It's obvious that the phenomenon of life is no more than the  
biochemistry,



Actually I disagree with this. Life can be implemented in  
biochemistry, but
is much more than biochemistry, for the same reason that Deep blue  
chess
abilities is much more than the logic of NAND used to implement it.  
Life and
chess ability can be implemented by other means, and *are*  
implemented by
infinitely many other means in arithmetic. Eventually we face the  
problem of

justifying biochemistry, and matter appearance, from a statistic on
arithmetic, and this can explain where matter appearance come from.
To say hat life is no more than biochemistry makes local sense, but  
if taken
too much seriously, you will condemn yourself to say that  
biochemistry is no

more than addition and multiplication of integers, or is no more than
reduction and application of combinators.


Yes, that's what I would say that life and biochemistry are if a TOE
can generate all of reality from something basic.


OK. Normally, UDA shows already that if comp is correct such a TOE  
*has to* to be like that. I think.







but maybe if we could simulate the biochemistry in our heads we would
intuitively see any 1p aspect it has as well.


Are you not doing Searle error?  A person can simulate the  
chinese person
does not entail that the person can experience the chinese person  
feeling.
Robinson Arithmetic can simulate Peano Arithmetic, but this does  
not entail
that Robinson Arithmetic can prove what Peano Arithmetic can prove.  
And all
the points of view will depend on proof, not on computation or  
imitation,

even if they play a big role. I hope I will be able to clarify this
important point in the modal thread.
You seem to push reductionism too far (too far with respect to
computationalism).


Yes, you can simulate something without really understanding it,


That is a key point. It is 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Feb 2014, at 07:19, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/21/2014 9:53 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

What could that mean? The diary of the M-guy and of the W-guy do
 differentiate, and are different from the memory and records of  
the observer

 which does not enter in the telebox.
 I am not sure what sense to give to your statement.
 Likewise, the math 3p ([]p) and 1p ([]p  p) *does* obey  
different logic.
 And, yes, it is due to a failure of the machine to see that they  
are
 equivalent (as seen by G*), but it is not a failure of  
imagination, it is a

 requirement to remain consistent.
That the diary is different and that the observer will experience  
only

M or W and not both is a 3p describable phenomenon. The essentially
different thing about 1p is that it is private: I can read your  
diary,

but even then I don't really know how you feel. I can only know how
you feel by *being* you, or so it goes.



But suppose you M-brain and your W-brain were connected by RF in  
such a way that your consciousness shifted between M and W like you  
shift your attention from one sense to another?  This must be what  
the Borg are like. :-)


A precise answer here would need a precise description of how you  
related the two brains.
Of course this is not relevant for step 3 where the protocol makes  
clear that the two brains are reconstituted in an independent way, at  
their correct substitution level. I guess you know that, and you were  
not suggesting this as a refutation of the FPI.


Bruno




Brent
We are the Dyslexic of Borg. Futility is persistent. Your ass will  
be laminated.


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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 12:29:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 20 February 2014 09:24, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote: 

  You're assuming that precise molecular assembly will necessarily yield 
 a 
  coherent dynamic process, but that may not be the case at all. If you 
 put 
  random people in the proper places in a baseball diamond, and give the 
 one 
  in the middle a baseball, they don't necessarily play a baseball game. 
  
  
  If you're right then there would be something missing, something 
  mysterious, and there would be evidence for it much simpler experiments 
 than 
  complete assembly of a human body. For example, you might be able to 
  substitute some chemical on a cell for an equivalent chemical and 
 observe 
  the cell stop functioning even though everything seems to be 
 biochemically 
  in order. That would be direct evidence for your theory. It's 
 scientifically 
  testable. 
  
  
  What's missing is the entire history of experiences which relate to 
 whatever 
  it is that you think you're copying. 
  
  We don't exist on the levels of cells or molecules. If there were no 
 human 
  looking down at cells in a microscope, and we had only the microcosmic 
  perspective to go from, there would be nothing that could be done to 
 build a 
  human experience. No configuration of proteins and ion channels is going 
 to 
  taste like strawberries to any of the molecules or cells. All of these 
  structures relate only to a particular level of description. If you copy 
 the 
  sheet music of I Can't Get No Satisfaction you don't know if it is the 
  Rolling Stones version or the Devo version, and neither could be 
 predicted 
  or generated purely from the notes. 

 That's your theory, but the theory should have some straightforward 
 observational consequences. For example, if some of the matter in a 
 cell is replaced in a laboratory, then the cell would stop 
 functioning. This would confound the scientists because according to 
 current theories it ought to function normally provided all the matter 
 is there in the right configuration. 


We don't see it at the sub-cellular level, we see it beginning at the 
biological level as tissue-rejection. The richer the experience, the longer 
the history, and the more important it is in defining itself exclusively. 
Biology is more proprietary than chemistry, zoology is more proprietary 
than biology, anthropology is more proprietary than zoology, etc. It's not 
that some material fragment of a cell should be irreplaceable, it's that 
living cells should be easily created from primordial soup. Your theory 
misses the whole other half of the universe which coheres from the top down.

We can take out small words or skip letters of a sentence and still be 
understood, but we can't understand a sentence as a whole if we don't know 
what the bigger words in it mean.

Craig

 



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou 


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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John,

Yes, that's my understanding, but that wasn't clear in your original post.

However it is simply impossible for anything physical to be literally 
infinite when the nature of infinity as an unending PROCESS (forever add 
+1) rather than an actual number is understood.

I hate it when otherwise intelligent physicists use infinite in the sense 
of just really really big!

There simply are and can be no physical infinities. It's an impossible 
notion by its very definition.

Edgar

On Friday, February 21, 2014 2:16:48 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Fri, Feb 21, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrot

  I don't see how your CMB spot example works. Any 'spots' = features 
 would not necessarily be caused by gravitation but could be caused by 
 initial inhomogeneities as space itself expanded. Those are not necessarily 
 ruled out. So I don't think your conclusion necessarily follows unless 
 completely homogeneity is assumed, which it isn't in other theories such as 
 brane traces and even enormously magnified = inflated quantum phenomena.


 No, complete homogeneity is not assumed. Quantum Mechanics says that an 
 unimaginably short time after the Big Bang the tiny cosmic fireball would 
 be very very homogenous but due to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle not 
 perfectly so, some parts of the fireball would be very slightly hotter and 
 denser than others. And the great thing about Quantum Mechanics is it 
 allows you to calculate numbers about all this, it can tell you just how 
 big the region would be and just how much denser and hotter it should be 
 and it can tell you how common variations from the norm will be. As the 
 universe expands these once tiny regions would enlarge too, and given 
 enough time gravity could make them grow too because slightly denser 
 regions would suck matter in from places that were slightly less dense so 
 with enough time there is no limit on how big they could get.

 But when we're looking at the CMBR we know how much variation to expect 
 from Heisenberg and we know that gravity had only 380,000 years to make 
 them bigger. And so we can figure out not just how large the biggest spots 
 should be but also how common spots of all sizes should be. And what we 
 predict the spectrum of spot sizes should be is exactly the same as what we 
 do in fact see. But we'd see something different if space were not flat, 
 the picture would be distorted and we'd see a different distribution of hot 
 and cold spots on the CMBR. But we see no such distortion so the Universe 
 at the largest scale must be flat, or at least nearly so, it's flat to at 
 least one part in 100,000 and could be absolutely flat.  

 So regardless of how big our telescopes get at best the most of our 
 Universe we will ever observe is 0.0001% because 13.8 billion years is not 
 enough time for light from more distant parts of our universe to reach us. 
 And current observations are consistent with the universe being not merely 
 astronomically large but literally infinite.

   John K Clark




  

  



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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg
If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an 
illusion and simulation is absolute. Arithmetic can do so many things, but 
it can't do something that can only be done once. Think of consciousness as 
not only that which can't be done more than once, it is that which cannot 
even be fully completed one time. It doesn't begin or end, and it is 
neither finite nor infinite, progressing or static, but instead it is the 
fundamental ability for beginnings and endings to seem to exist and to 
relate to each other sensibly. Consciousness is orthogonal to all process 
and form, but it reflects itself in different sensible ways through every 
appreciation of form.

The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the done-over-and-overness 
of its self reflection can be made to seem equivalent from any local 
perspective, since the very act of looking through a local perspective 
requires a comparison with prior perspectives, and therefore attention to 
the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously measured and recorded. In this 
way, the diagonalization of originality is preserved, but always behind our 
back. Paradoxically, it is only when we suspend our rigid attention and 
unexamine the forms presented within consciousness and the world that we 
can become the understanding that we expect.

On Friday, February 21, 2014 8:39:47 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc




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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 8:41 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 John,

 Yes, that's my understanding, but that wasn't clear in your original post.

 However it is simply impossible for anything physical to be literally
 infinite when the nature of infinity as an unending PROCESS (forever add
 +1) rather than an actual number is understood.

 I hate it when otherwise intelligent physicists use infinite in the sense
 of just really really big!

 There simply are and can be no physical infinities. It's an impossible
 notion by its very definition.

 Edgar



Even worse Edgar when physicists substitute -1/12 for infinity.
Mathematica apparently rules our universe. Richard



 On Friday, February 21, 2014 2:16:48 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Fri, Feb 21, 2014 at 12:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrot

  I don't see how your CMB spot example works. Any 'spots' = features
 would not necessarily be caused by gravitation but could be caused by
 initial inhomogeneities as space itself expanded. Those are not necessarily
 ruled out. So I don't think your conclusion necessarily follows unless
 completely homogeneity is assumed, which it isn't in other theories such as
 brane traces and even enormously magnified = inflated quantum phenomena.


 No, complete homogeneity is not assumed. Quantum Mechanics says that an
 unimaginably short time after the Big Bang the tiny cosmic fireball would
 be very very homogenous but due to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle not
 perfectly so, some parts of the fireball would be very slightly hotter and
 denser than others. And the great thing about Quantum Mechanics is it
 allows you to calculate numbers about all this, it can tell you just how
 big the region would be and just how much denser and hotter it should be
 and it can tell you how common variations from the norm will be. As the
 universe expands these once tiny regions would enlarge too, and given
 enough time gravity could make them grow too because slightly denser
 regions would suck matter in from places that were slightly less dense so
 with enough time there is no limit on how big they could get.

 But when we're looking at the CMBR we know how much variation to expect
 from Heisenberg and we know that gravity had only 380,000 years to make
 them bigger. And so we can figure out not just how large the biggest spots
 should be but also how common spots of all sizes should be. And what we
 predict the spectrum of spot sizes should be is exactly the same as what we
 do in fact see. But we'd see something different if space were not flat,
 the picture would be distorted and we'd see a different distribution of hot
 and cold spots on the CMBR. But we see no such distortion so the Universe
 at the largest scale must be flat, or at least nearly so, it's flat to at
 least one part in 100,000 and could be absolutely flat.

 So regardless of how big our telescopes get at best the most of our
 Universe we will ever observe is 0.0001% because 13.8 billion years is not
 enough time for light from more distant parts of our universe to reach us.
 And current observations are consistent with the universe being not merely
 astronomically large but literally infinite.

   John K Clark








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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread David Nyman
On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an illusion


Not an illusion, an invariant.


 and simulation is absolute.


Not absolute, but hopefully sufficient (i.e. the idea of a level of
substitution).

Hope that helps.

David




 Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can only
 be done once. Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be done
 more than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one time.
 It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite, progressing
 or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for beginnings and
 endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other sensibly.
 Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it reflects itself
 in different sensible ways through every appreciation of form.

 The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the done-over-and-overness
 of its self reflection can be made to seem equivalent from any local
 perspective, since the very act of looking through a local perspective
 requires a comparison with prior perspectives, and therefore attention to
 the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously measured and recorded. In this
 way, the diagonalization of originality is preserved, but always behind our
 back. Paradoxically, it is only when we suspend our rigid attention and
 unexamine the forms presented within consciousness and the world that we
 can become the understanding that we expect.


 On Friday, February 21, 2014 8:39:47 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc


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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 9:34:08 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:

 If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an 
 illusion


 Not an illusion, an invariant.


If it is invariant then it can't be original. Invariant means that it 
remains fixed across a multiplicity of variations. To be original means 
that it undergoes no variation. It is uncopied and uncopyable.
 

  

 and simulation is absolute.


 Not absolute, but hopefully sufficient (i.e. the idea of a level of 
 substitution).

 Hope that helps.


I'm saying that the idea of a level of substitution is absolute.

I wish I could hope that helps, but I expect that it will only be twisted 
around, dismissed, and diluted.

Craig
 


 David


  

 Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can only 
 be done once. Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be done 
 more than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one time. 
 It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite, progressing 
 or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for beginnings and 
 endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other sensibly. 
 Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it reflects itself 
 in different sensible ways through every appreciation of form.

 The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the 
 done-over-and-overness of its self reflection can be made to seem 
 equivalent from any local perspective, since the very act of looking 
 through a local perspective requires a comparison with prior perspectives, 
 and therefore attention to the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously 
 measured and recorded. In this way, the diagonalization of originality is 
 preserved, but always behind our back. Paradoxically, it is only when we 
 suspend our rigid attention and unexamine the forms presented within 
 consciousness and the world that we can become the understanding that we 
 expect.


 On Friday, February 21, 2014 8:39:47 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc


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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Feb 2014, at 02:39, David Nyman wrote:


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc



Ha ha! I love when he shows the identity cards!

Note that this is among the thought experiences that I call  
forbidden on this list, some years ago.
They are shortcuts, and can also provide arguments against either  
the truth of comp or its ethical consequences. They share this with  
the thought experiments involving amnesia. The movie prestige exploits  
one such experience too. Step five is close, but we don't ask the  
original to commit suicide though!


Bruno







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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 11:27:45 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 22 Feb 2014, at 15:25, Craig Weinberg wrote: 

  If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an   
  illusion 


 Not at all. Your 1p-originality is preserved all the time.


I'm not thinking of 1p originality though, I'm talking about originality 
itself - absolute uniqueness. The idea that something can occur for the 
first, last, and only time, and perhaps, by extension that everything is in 
some sense utterly unique and irreplacable. 
 

 In the H-WM   
 duplication experience, the experiencers get all a unique experience   
 of the type 

 I am the H-guy 
 I am the H-guy-Washington guy 
 I am the H-guy-Washington guy, then Moscow guy 
 I am the H-guy-Washington guy, then Moscow guy, then again Moscow guy 
 I am the H-guy-Washington guy, then Moscow guy, then again Moscow guy   
 and again Moscow guy ... 

 He never feel the split, and keeps its originality all along. he get   
 doppelgangers who also keep up their originality and develop their   
 personality. 


I understand, but I think it is based on the assumption that I am the 
H-guy comes along for the ride when you reproduce a description of his 
body, or the blueprints for his behaviors. My point has been from the start 
that this is false. No lifetime or event within a lifetime can be 
reproduced wholly - there is no such thing. All that can be reproduced is a 
representation within some sensory context. Outside of that context, it is 
a facade.
 


 Of course in your theory that is an illusion, as they are all zombies,   
 and the H-guy is dead. 


Never zombies - always dolls. Zombies are supernatural fiction, dolls are 
ordinary. The consciousness of dolls is not at the level of the plastic 
figure - there is consciousness there but on the level which holds the 
plastic together, and perhaps which on the metaphenomenal level of 
synchronicity, poetry, etc.
 




  and simulation is absolute. 

 Emulation is absolute by Church thesis, and a correct simulation is   
 what comp assumes the existence through the existence of the   
 substitution level. 


Yes, I am saying that C-t and CTM have only to do with representations of a 
particular kind of logic and measurement. It is measurement which provides 
the local appearance of substitution. In reality, theory can never 
substitute for consciousness, and consciousness can have no theories 
outside of consciousness.
 




  Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can   
  only be done once. 

 That is ambiguous. 


I don't think it is. Arithmetic is based on recursive enumeration. There is 
no one and only time that any number can appear. Every number can be 
arrived at by many different routes - every number is always repeatable and 
transferable. Numbers can't own anything, they are generic addresses in a 
theoretical schema that appears again and again.
 

 All conscious present instant are done once, in   
 arithmetic. 


Where do we find a conscious present instant in arithmetic? If you assume 
that, then you would be begging the question of consciousness.
 

 Trivially in the bloc mindscape of the numbers possible   
 extensional and intensional relations. 


What is making relations possible, other than sense?
 





  Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be done more   
  than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one time. 

  From inside arithmetic that's necessarily the case. 


Then how can it be said to have a substitution level?
 




  It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite,   
  progressing or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for   
  beginnings and endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other   
  sensibly. 

 The UD, and arithmetic determines all effective endings and non   
 endings (by Church's thesis). Then the internal views put colors on   
 this. 


Why and how would internal views put anything non-arithmetic on it though? 

Why and how does the UD develop the idea of endings and non-endings? It is 
not clear that there can be any endings or beginnings within arithmetic.
 






  Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it reflects   
  itself in different sensible ways through every appreciation of form. 

 OK. 



  
  The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the done-over-and- 
  overness of its self reflection can be made to seem equivalent from   
  any local perspective, since the very act of looking through a local   
  perspective requires a comparison with prior perspectives, and   
  therefore attention to the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously   
  measured and recorded. In this way, the diagonalization of   
  originality is preserved, but always behind our back. 

 OK. 

 By OK I mean that the correct Lôbian machines roughly agree with you   
 (stretching definitions enough ... 



  Paradoxically, it is only when we suspend 

Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 8:41 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 I hate it when otherwise intelligent physicists use infinite in the sense
 of just really really big!


I hate that too, in fact I take pride in not using the word infinite
unless a proper subset of the thing can be put into a one to one
correspondence with the entire thing; and as a result I sometime struggle
to come up with the correct word when astronomical seems too small but
infinite is too big. But I stand by what I said, the CMBR data is
consistent with the universe being infinite and not just very very very
big. Of course that doesn't prove it is in fact infinite but it doesn't
rule it out either.

 There simply are and can be no physical infinities.


Nobody has found a infinite number of any physical object, but even if
there were such things how would we know?

 It's an impossible notion by its very definition.


Physical infinity might not exist, but if it doesn't it wouldn't be because
it was impossible by its very definition.

 However it is simply impossible for anything physical to be literally
 infinite when the nature of infinity as an unending PROCESS (forever add
 +1)


Maybe, maybe not. Alan Guth's Inflation theory is by far the most
successful in modern cosmology, it solves many problems that have plagued
the Big Bang idea such as the horizon problem and the flatness problem.
Guth postulated an inflation field (sometimes called a inflation substance)
that for a very brief time caused the universe to expand exponentially,
astronomically (insert a stronger word if you can find one) faster than the
speed of light. This doesn't violate Relativity because Einstein only
talked about how fast things could move in space not on how fast space
itself could expand. Guth said the field was such that after a short time
the inflation field (or substance) decayed away in a process somewhat
analogous to radioactive half life, and after the decay the universe
expanded at a much much more leisurely pace.

But then Andre Linde proved that for Guth's idea to work the inflation
field had to expand faster than it decayed, Linde called it Eternal
Inflation. Linde showed that for every volume in which the inflation field
decays away 2 other volumes don't decay. So one universe becomes 3, the
field decays in one universe but not in the other 2, then both of those two
universes splits in 3 again and the inflation field decays away in one and
doesn't decay in 2 others, and it goes on forever. So what we call The Big
Bang isn't the beginning of everything it's just the end of inflation in
our particular part of the universe. So according to Linde this field
created one Big Bang, then 2, then 4, then 8, then 16 etc in a unending
PROCESS.

If Linde is correct then each universe that a Big Bang creates may or may
not be infinitely large, but it doesn't really matter because there are a
infinite (and not just astronomical) number of them.

  John K Clark

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Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 1:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Did the Helsinki Man see Washington and Moscow? Yes.


  In the 3-1 view. Not in the 1-1 view.


In who's 1-1 view? You'll probably say in The Helsinki Man's, but his
view is just of Helsinki. Perhaps you mean the future 1 view of the
Helsinki Man. If so then anybody who can remember having the past 1 view
of the Helsinki Man would fit that description; so the Helsinki Man will
see both Washington and Moscow.

 I said that we have to interview all copies.


Good, then I never want to hear you say again that the Washington Man
saying that he didn't see Moscow contradicts the claim that the Helsinki
man will see both Washington AND Moscow.

 I too have discovered a new sort of indeterminacy that involves math
 and it is very very similar to the sort you discovered; I add 2 to the
 number 3 and I add 8 to the number 3. The number 3 can't predict if it will
 end up as a 5 or as a 11. I believe my discovery is just as profound as
 yours. Not very.



 So you accept that step 3 is a discovery?


  I think my discovery is virtually identical to yours and is just as
 profound. Not very.


  So that's it. You blow the candle of another because you are jealous he
 published it and exploit to get something


What the hell!!? Did you really think I was serious? Did you really think I
believed the above pap was a major discovery?!

  John K Clark

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Saturday, February 22, 2014, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com
wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 12:29:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 20 February 2014 09:24, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

  You're assuming that precise molecular assembly will necessarily
 yield a
  coherent dynamic process, but that may not be the case at all. If you
 put
  random people in the proper places in a baseball diamond, and give
 the one
  in the middle a baseball, they don't necessarily play a baseball
 game.
 
 
  If you're right then there would be something missing, something
  mysterious, and there would be evidence for it much simpler
 experiments than
  complete assembly of a human body. For example, you might be able to
  substitute some chemical on a cell for an equivalent chemical and
 observe
  the cell stop functioning even though everything seems to be
 biochemically
  in order. That would be direct evidence for your theory. It's
 scientifically
  testable.
 
 
  What's missing is the entire history of experiences which relate to
 whatever
  it is that you think you're copying.
 
  We don't exist on the levels of cells or molecules. If there were no
 human
  looking down at cells in a microscope, and we had only the microcosmic
  perspective to go from, there would be nothing that could be done to
 build a
  human experience. No configuration of proteins and ion channels is
 going to
  taste like strawberries to any of the molecules or cells. All of these
  structures relate only to a particular level of description. If you
 copy the
  sheet music of I Can't Get No Satisfaction you don't know if it is
 the
  Rolling Stones version or the Devo version, and neither could be
 predicted
  or generated purely from the notes.

 That's your theory, but the theory should have some straightforward
 observational consequences. For example, if some of the matter in a
 cell is replaced in a laboratory, then the cell would stop
 functioning. This would confound the scientists because according to
 current theories it ought to function normally provided all the matter
 is there in the right configuration.


 We don't see it at the sub-cellular level, we see it beginning at the
 biological level as tissue-rejection. The richer the experience, the longer
 the history, and the more important it is in defining itself exclusively.
 Biology is more proprietary than chemistry, zoology is more proprietary
 than biology, anthropology is more proprietary than zoology, etc. It's not
 that some material fragment of a cell should be irreplaceable, it's that
 living cells should be easily created from primordial soup. Your theory
 misses the whole other half of the universe which coheres from the top down.

 We can take out small words or skip letters of a sentence and still be
 understood, but we can't understand a sentence as a whole if we don't know
 what the bigger words in it mean.


Tissue rejection is caused by well understood mechanisms whereby the body
recognises foreign protein markers on the transplanted tissue. That's the
only thing you have said above which is close to an observational
consequence of your theory, and it doesn't support it.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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RE: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-02-22 Thread Chris de Morsella
 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of meekerdb

 

On 2/21/2014 2:27 PM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

I am in agreement but I am guessing humankind does not yet possess a working
LTFR that could power a large city. Nor, is a MSR (molten salt reactor) to
accomplish the goodies we all need, abundant and comparatively safe. Like
fusion, like solar, it needs development, and beyond a few bits of work here
and there, little is happening. 


Human kind did possess a LFTR for a few years at Oak Ridge National
Laboratories.  It was a research reactor and was not used to produce
electrical power.  It was rejected as the powerplant for nuclear submarines
because the Oak Ridge director had Adm Rickover thrown out of the lab for
interfering with his directives.  Rickover, who was famously arrogant,
contracted with Westinghouse to build a powerplant using their technology.
And that's how the world ended up with uranium fission power reactors.



Thanks for the interesting back story on the Oak Ridge LFTR program; the why
of how that program got de-funded and shut down was always a little murky. 

Chris

 


There are a few companies pursuing development of LFTRs.  One is proposing
to do the actual development in Brazil to avoid the anti-nuclear political
activists in the U.S.

 

There are many reasons why nuclear power is dead in the water. The sector
would have never existed without massive government subsidies. the cost
overruns in nuclear facilities are legendary. The reason they are not
getting built has less to do with political activists and a more to do with
the negative economic profile, especially once one factors in the ultimate
costs of long term (and perhaps absurdly long term) waste sequestration. 

Additionally, when one looks at the global recoverable uranium-235 reserve
picture - not the rosy scenario in the red book (the quoted source for these
figures and which has been shown to be unrealistically optimistic) - it
becomes clear that there is no future for single pass through reactors, and
that the world is nearing peak recoverable uranium.

Naturally this is different for breeder types, such as LFTR (which IMO is
the best option of all the breeder proposals, both for the relative
abundance of the needed resources and for the inherent passive safety
features - as compared to the hellish example of what can go wrong with say
a Mark II type reactor (Fukushima and all across this country as well Mark
II are ubiquitous bad designs (at the time of their release by GE I recall
that two of the chief engineers on the design team resigned in protest
because their reservations about this design were ignored).

However realistically  - the lead time to bring working LFTR reactors to
market and to build out enough of them to begin to make an impact on the
global (or some important regional) energy market is long and should be
measured in decades at least. Decades from today is as soon as the first
LFTRs could begin to come online. By that time - they will need to compete
with solar PV and the per unit costs for PV that are achieved over the next
two or three decades. If one projects the future per unit cost for PV based
on extrapolating current long established trend lines the economics for LFTR
seem questionable - IMO.

Chris



Brent

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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John,

First Linde didn't prove eternal inflation as you claim. Eternal 
inflation is a theory. In fact you yourself admit this when you write IF 
Linde is correct...

Basically the bounding problem of any physical infinity is that it would 
take infinite energy over infinite time to 'achieve' (though it is not 
really something subject to being achieved since by definition it's the 
result of an unending process) which I don't think anyone agrees exists. 
Though, on second thought judging by some of the other nonsense they 
believe, there is probably some physicist somewhere that believes in 
anything.

The other approach, which you hint at, is that even if a physical infinity 
existed it would be unobservable. And since we can make a good case that 
only observables exist (or their direct effects) we can say that even if a 
physical infinite existed it wouldn't actually exist.

Edgar




On Saturday, February 22, 2014 1:13:14 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 8:41 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  I hate it when otherwise intelligent physicists use infinite in the 
 sense of just really really big!


 I hate that too, in fact I take pride in not using the word infinite 
 unless a proper subset of the thing can be put into a one to one 
 correspondence with the entire thing; and as a result I sometime struggle 
 to come up with the correct word when astronomical seems too small but 
 infinite is too big. But I stand by what I said, the CMBR data is 
 consistent with the universe being infinite and not just very very very 
 big. Of course that doesn't prove it is in fact infinite but it doesn't 
 rule it out either.

  There simply are and can be no physical infinities. 


 Nobody has found a infinite number of any physical object, but even if 
 there were such things how would we know?  

  It's an impossible notion by its very definition.


 Physical infinity might not exist, but if it doesn't it wouldn't be 
 because it was impossible by its very definition.

  However it is simply impossible for anything physical to be literally 
 infinite when the nature of infinity as an unending PROCESS (forever add 
 +1) 


 Maybe, maybe not. Alan Guth's Inflation theory is by far the most 
 successful in modern cosmology, it solves many problems that have plagued 
 the Big Bang idea such as the horizon problem and the flatness problem. 
 Guth postulated an inflation field (sometimes called a inflation substance) 
 that for a very brief time caused the universe to expand exponentially, 
 astronomically (insert a stronger word if you can find one) faster than the 
 speed of light. This doesn't violate Relativity because Einstein only 
 talked about how fast things could move in space not on how fast space 
 itself could expand. Guth said the field was such that after a short time 
 the inflation field (or substance) decayed away in a process somewhat 
 analogous to radioactive half life, and after the decay the universe 
 expanded at a much much more leisurely pace.

 But then Andre Linde proved that for Guth's idea to work the inflation 
 field had to expand faster than it decayed, Linde called it Eternal 
 Inflation. Linde showed that for every volume in which the inflation field 
 decays away 2 other volumes don't decay. So one universe becomes 3, the 
 field decays in one universe but not in the other 2, then both of those two 
 universes splits in 3 again and the inflation field decays away in one and 
 doesn't decay in 2 others, and it goes on forever. So what we call The Big 
 Bang isn't the beginning of everything it's just the end of inflation in 
 our particular part of the universe. So according to Linde this field 
 created one Big Bang, then 2, then 4, then 8, then 16 etc in a unending 
 PROCESS.

 If Linde is correct then each universe that a Big Bang creates may or may 
 not be infinitely large, but it doesn't really matter because there are a 
 infinite (and not just astronomical) number of them.

   John K Clark


  


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

I think the basic problem in our discussion, which seems intractable from 
you answers below, is your basic belief that time doesn't doesn't flow, 
that there is no such thing as a now in which you or the twins actually 
exist. From your answers it seems clear that you can't even bring yourself 
to agree that you are actually some particular age right now, or were at 
any time in the past. If you don't even believe that I can't see any hope 
of agreement or having a meaningful discussion.

It's quite clear from all the numerous examples I gave that it is possible 
to determine a 1:1 correlation between the twin's actual ages in terms of 
their own clock time readings (what you call their proper times). This is 
their 'true actual age' because both twins agree on both actual ages and 
how their clock times correlate. They do this not by OBSERVING the other's 
age, but by calculating it from knowledge of how relativity works in both 
their frames. This is the frame independence I point out that is a 
fundamental (though unstated) assumption of relativity. It is only in this 
background notion of frame independence that frame DEPENDENCE of relativity 
makes any sense. But that concept remains beyond you

But since you can't even bring yourself to admit the twins were actually 
alive with a particular actual age at every point on their world lines I 
see no useful way to continue the discussion. 

Thus the basic disagreement is not really about whether p-time is 
incompatible with relativity (it isn't) but that p-time is incompatible 
with block time, which for you seems a matter of faith which you are unable 
to set aside.

Best,
Edgar



On Wednesday, February 19, 2014 1:30:11 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sun, Feb 16, 2014 at 9:40 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, I'm back...

 Let me back up a minute and ask you a couple of general questions with 
 respect to establishing which past clock times of different observers were 
 simultaneous in p-time

 The only clocks in this example are the real actual ages of two twins


 1. Do you agree that each twin always has a real actual age defined as 
 how old he actually is (to himself)?

 Yes or no?


 Yes, in the sense that at each point on his worldline he has an actual 
 age at that point, which is just the proper time between his birth and 
 that point. But if you're suggesting a unique true actual age, as opposed 
 to just each point having its own actual age, then I would have to change 
 my answer to no.


  

  
 2. Do you agree that this real actual age corresponds by definition to 
 the moment of his actually being alive, to his actual current point in 
 time? (As a block universe believer you can just take this as perception or 
 perspective rather than actuality if you wish - it won't affect the 
 discussion).

  


 Yes or no?



 If by perspective you mean that each point on his worldline takes his 
 experiences at that point (including his age) to be the current point in 
 time, then yes.

  


  
 Now assume a relativistic trip that separates the twins

 3. Do you agree that IF, for every point of the trip, we can always 
 determine what ACTUAL age of one twin corresponds to the ACTUAL age of the 
 other twin, and always in a way that both twins AGREE upon (that is frame 
 independent), that those 1:1 correspondences in actual ages, whatever they 
 are, must occur at the same actual times? That this would give us a method 
 to determine what (possibly different) actual ages occur at the same actual 
 p-time moment in which the twins are actually alive with those (possibly 
 different) actual ages?

 Yes or no?


 IF we had a method to determine a unique 1:1 correspondence in ages for 
 separated twins, then yes, that could reasonably be interpreted as a 
 demonstration of absolute simultaneity, telling us which ages occur at the 
 same actual times. But I don't believe you can find any such method for 
 determining a unique frame-independent 1:1 correspondence in relativity.

 Since I am answering your questions, are you willing to answer mine? In 
 the post that you are responding to I requested that you respond to my 
 questions at 
 https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/xtjSyxxi4awJ, 
 especially the part at the end about the meaning of same point in 
 spacetime (i.e. whether two events happening at the same space and time 
 coordinates in a single coordinate system automatically implies that they 
 satisfy the operational definitions of same point in spacetime I had 
 given, and whether you'd agree that this means they must have happened at 
 the same moment in p-time). You ignored that request in your response. I'll 
 even narrow it down to a single question I asked in that post:

 'If we have some coordinate system where relativity predicts the event of 
 Alice's clock reading 30 happens at exactly the same space and time 
 coordinates as the event of Bob's 

Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
The above pap is only a small step in an argument (and it only reproduces
a result obtained in the MWI, anyway).

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

Well, first of all my theory doesn't tell nature what to do, it asks nature 
what it does and attempts to explain it. All the issues you raise are good 
ones, but when my theory is understood it greatly SIMPLIFIES reality. It 
doesn't make it more complex as you claim. And in fact it clarifies many 
points that relativity can't on its own, such as how the twins can have 
different clock times and different real ages in an agreed upon and 
empirically observable single present moment. Only p-time can explain that.

Relativity on its own just can't explain that... My theory makes it all 
clear, and directly leads to the clarification of many other mysteries as 
well, from cosmology to how spaceclocktime is created by quantum events. By 
doing that it resolves quantum paradox, conceptually unifies GR and QT, and 
explains the source of quantum randomness.

So rather than complicating things, it simplifies and clarifies things.

Edgar

On Wednesday, February 19, 2014 4:54:33 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Sunday, February 16, 2014 2:40:14 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Jesse,

 OK, I'm back...

 Let me back up a minute and ask you a couple of general questions with 
 respect to establishing which past clock times of different observers were 
 simultaneous in p-time

 The only clocks in this example are the real actual ages of two twins


 1. Do you agree that each twin always has a real actual age defined as 
 how old he actually is (to himself)?

 Yes or no?

 2. Do you agree that this real actual age corresponds by definition to 
 the moment of his actually being alive, to his actual current point in 
 time? (As a block universe believer you can just take this as perception or 
 perspective rather than actuality if you wish - it won't affect the 
 discussion).

 Yes or no?


 Now assume a relativistic trip that separates the twins

 3. Do you agree that IF, for every point of the trip, we can always 
 determine what ACTUAL age of one twin corresponds to the ACTUAL age of the 
 other twin, and always in a way that both twins AGREE upon (that is frame 
 independent), that those 1:1 correspondences in actual ages, whatever they 
 are, must occur at the same actual times? That this would give us a method 
 to determine what (possibly different) actual ages occur at the same actual 
 p-time moment in which the twins are 

 actually alive with those (possibly different) actual ages?


 Yes or no?


 Edgar

  

  

  

 The thing is, if one twin ages by just a week because he's near the speed 
 of light, and the other twin ages 10 years. OK you can always accomplish an 
 exact 1:1 correlation between literally any two things just so long as you 
 are allowed to stretch or contract the dimension of measurement in one of 
 them. That's a given. I could 1:1 correlate each tick of age in either one 
 of those twins with the time it took the Titanic to sink having hit the ice 
 burg. 

 Appreciated mine aren't sensible ideas, whereas yours does have a sense 
 in which it might be true. But the sensible point is that 
 the 1:1 correlation argument may not  be meaningful if you are allowed to 
 adjust the interval experienced by one so as to match the  other. You could 
 argue no adjustment takes place in p-time, but if the same argument could 
 be reflected in the titanic model - which it can - the problem stays the 
 same. 

  
 What I'd recommend is that you choose a moment, and for a short period 
 enter into a process of setting the objections to p-time into their 
 strongest possible form. Reason being, firstly it's a great way to identify 
 the knock down argument that objection needs to hear, and can't ignore even 
 in its strongest form. Secondly, I'm still not really of a sense you've 
 faced the big and small questions that p-time raises.
  
 Why does Nature bother going to all that trouble making relativistic 
 overlays, why is the speed of light finite that we see only history in the 
 skies. Why do universes need to begin from a tiny hole. Why would she do 
 any of that if she had already had a pure integrated absolute space 
 perfectly in synch to beats of one drum? I mean, if she had that absolute 
 nature in place, then that was her, her nature. There's no computational 
 need for any of that, not if there were no inherently problematic status in 
 reality underlying, which all of that were necessary in combination to 
 solve. sWhy not absolute vision one side of everything to the other, in 
 p-time? By some other aurrangement than what we have here, much simpler and 
 much more in keeping with the only conception that she, nature, knew. The 
 absolute. Where would she even aquire, or see any point to, all theses 
 fussy fangled relativistic wildly complex messcake of laws?
  
 Edgar, I just want to say I respect you, and that you feel sure in your 
 own mind. These questions can always be cock-sure answered by a rehash of 
 the already much stated, take that as a given 

Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

But from the links you yourself provide:
http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O

To quote from the abstract:

If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity 
comparable to the speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally 
towards its path as though it had an increased mass. If the relativistic 
increase in active gravitational mass is measured by the transverse (and 
longitudinal) velocities which such a moving mass induces in test particles 
initially at rest near its path, then we find, with this definition, that 
Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. Therefore, in the ultrarelativistic limit, the active 
gravitational mass of a moving body, measured in this way, is not γM but is 
approximately 2γM.
So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active 
gravitational mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE and 
has a stronger gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.

So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.

Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a moving 
object DOES have an increased gravitational attraction. So since 
gravitational attraction is due to curvature of spacetime one can say that 
from the POV (the frame) of the stationary observer, the moving object must 
be curving spacetime more.

Correct?

Edgar




Read more: http://www.physicsforums.com 

On Wednesday, February 19, 2014 10:32:07 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

 The curvature of spacetime is understood in a coordinate-invariant way, in 
 terms of the proper time and proper length along paths through spacetime, 
 so it doesn't depend at all on what coordinate system you use to describe 
 things. Physicists do sometimes talk about the curvature of space 
 distinct from the curvature of spacetime, I'm not sure if you meant to 
 distinguish the two or were treating them as synonymous. But defining the 
 curvature of space depends on picking a simultaneity convention which 
 divides 4D spacetime into a series of 3D slices, and then defining the 
 curvature of each slice in terms of proper length along spacelike paths 
 confined to that slice. So the curvature of space is 
 coordinate-dependent, since different simultaneity conventions = different 
 slices with different curvatures.

 I don't know if there's any meaningful sense in which picking a coordinate 
 system where an object has a higher velocity means it curves space 
 more--if there is, it would presumably depend on a choice to restrict the 
 analysis to some family of coordinate systems where each possible velocity 
 would be associated with a particular choice of simultaneity convention, 
 rather than using any of the arbitrary smooth coordinate systems (with 
 arbitrary simultaneity conventions) that are permitted in general 
 relativity.

 I found some discussion of the issue of how velocity relates to curvature 
 and gravitational force on these pages:


 http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/95023/does-a-moving-object-curve-space-time-as-its-velocity-increases

 http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=602644


 On Wed, Feb 19, 2014 at 9:15 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Russell, Brent, Jesse, et al,

 The increased kinetic energy of the particle is not due to its 
 acceleration but to its relative velocity to some observer. Mass also 
 increases with relative velocity, but that apparent increase in mass is 
 only with respect to some observer the motion is relative to. In fact all 
 kinetic energy is only with respect to relative velocity with some observer 
 frame.

 So this means that any increased curvature of space from that increased 
 kinetic energy and increased mass should be only with respect to observers 
 it is in relative motion with respect to.

 So in this case we seem to have a case in which the curvature of space is 
 relative rather than being absolute.

 Would you not agree?

 Edgar



 On Tuesday, February 18, 2014 4:44:58 PM UTC-5, Russell Standish wrote:

 On Tue, Feb 18, 2014 at 01:28:09PM -0500, John Clark wrote: 
  On Sun, Feb 16, 2014 at 12:54 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net 
 wrote: 
  
   
You say that You can tell if spacetime is curved or not by 
 observing 
   if light moves in a straight line or not. and then you say that 
 light does 
   NOT travel in a straight line in the accelerating elevator example 
 you give. 
   
   
So, by your terminology, does that mean that the acceleration of 
 the 
   elevator IS curving space ? 
   
  
  You should stop talking about space, it's 4D spacetime; but yes 
 it's 
  curved, although if you were inside that sealed elevator you couldn't 
 tell 
  if the curvature was caused by rockets accelerating the elevator in 
 deep 
  space or if it was caused by the Earth's gravity. Acceleration is 
 absolute 
  in that there is no need to look outside your reference frame to 
 detect it, 
  but according to General Relativity there is no way to tell the 
 difference 
 

Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

What problem do you think P-time has in SR? I see none. Have you been 
following my discussion with Jesse as to why it is possible to correlate 
proper times (the twins own actual ages) 1:1 for the twins all along their 
worldlines in a frame independent way simply by comparing the relativistic 
descriptions of BOTH twins?

I think your problem is that you are trying to explain P-time from WITHIN 
some particular relativistic frame. I agree that simply doesn't work, but 
that's not the way to look at it. One needs to know both frames. When this 
known a 1:1 correlation can always be found, at that is the same p-time, 
the same present moment...

Edgar

On Saturday, February 22, 2014 1:08:20 AM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 2/21/2014 3:48 PM, Russell Standish wrote: 
  On Fri, Feb 21, 2014 at 03:11:56PM -0800, meekerdb wrote: 
  Just to clarify, it is *space* that is flat, but spacetime is still 
  curved, i.e. expansion of the universe is accelerating. 
  
  That could only be true in one particular inertial reference 
  frame? Surely, it can't be the case that spacetime is flat along all 
  space-like trajectories, whilst at the same time being curved along 
  time-like trajectories. 

 The metric for a isotropic, homogenous universe (FRW) is 

  ds^2 = dt^2 - a(t)^2{dr^2/(1-kr^2) + r^2[dtheta^2 + sin(theta)^2 
 dphi^2]} 

Where a(t) must satisfy the Friedman equations. 

  (da/dt)^2 - (8/3)piG*a^2 = -k 

  (d^2a/dt^2) = -(4/3)piG(rho + 3p)a(t) 

 For k=0 the space part {...} is just Euclidean.  But it's not a flat 
 spacetime because of 
 the time dependent a(t)^2 factor. 

  
  If so, then the orthogonal time axis that makes the spatial subspace 
  flat could be a candidate for Edgar's mysterious p-time. 

 Yes, I suggested to Edgar that the coordinate time in co-moving 
 coordinates, which is what 
 t is in the FRW equation, could serve as a physically distinguished time. 
  A global 
 simultaneity is defined by the same value of a(t) everywhere.  But of 
 course that doesn't 
 solve his problem, which occurs already in special relativity. 

 Brent 

  
  Cheers 
  



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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread David Nyman
On 22 February 2014 15:09, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 9:34:08 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an
 illusion


 Not an illusion, an invariant.


 If it is invariant then it can't be original. Invariant means that it
 remains fixed across a multiplicity of variations. To be original means
 that it undergoes no variation. It is uncopied and uncopyable.


But I think that any serious (i.e. non-eliminitavist) theory of
consciousness must find it to be original and indeed uncopyable in the
sense that you stipulate. Sense is never copied; rather it is encountered
wherever there is a sensible context. One might say that it is encountered
wherever what is obscuring it has been sufficiently clarified. It
originates perpetually at the centre of a circle whose limits are not
discoverable. One shouldn't therefore think of sense as what is copied in
the protocol; rather what is copiable is only that which is capable of
differentiating one sensible context from another. I think that
consciousness, transcendently, is a necessary, original and invariant
assumption of any theory of itself. As such it is perpetually capable of
self-manifestation, given the sufficient conditions of a sensible context.
Always in terms of some theory, of course.

David



 and simulation is absolute.


 Not absolute, but hopefully sufficient (i.e. the idea of a level of
 substitution).

 Hope that helps.


 I'm saying that the idea of a level of substitution is absolute.

 I wish I could hope that helps, but I expect that it will only be twisted
 around, dismissed, and diluted.

 Craig



 David




 Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can
 only be done once. Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be
 done more than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one
 time. It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite,
 progressing or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for
 beginnings and endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other
 sensibly. Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it
 reflects itself in different sensible ways through every appreciation of
 form.

 The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the
 done-over-and-overness of its self reflection can be made to seem
 equivalent from any local perspective, since the very act of looking
 through a local perspective requires a comparison with prior perspectives,
 and therefore attention to the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously
 measured and recorded. In this way, the diagonalization of originality is
 preserved, but always behind our back. Paradoxically, it is only when we
 suspend our rigid attention and unexamine the forms presented within
 consciousness and the world that we can become the understanding that we
 expect.


 On Friday, February 21, 2014 8:39:47 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc


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Physicists' misuse of Planck units...

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

I have a big gripe about how physicists misuse (in my judgement) the whole 
notion of Planck units as if they somehow were the minimum possible units 
of various physical quantities such as time and length.

It has become fashionable whenever physicists want to refer to the minimum 
sizes of units they have no idea of as Planck time, Planck length, etc. but 
so far as I can see from the actual definition of these units there is no 
reason whatsoever to assume these are the minimum units of physical reality.

In fact the Planck mass is many times LARGER than the minimum masses known 
so immediately the whole notion falls apart. So is the Planck charge 11.7 
times larger than the elementary charge known.

Does anyone else find this an annoying symptom of imprecise speech among 
physicists that leads to sloppy thinking as it clearly does in the way 
physicists use the term infinity to mean very very big?

Edgar


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 I think the basic problem in our discussion, which seems intractable from
 you answers below, is your basic belief that time doesn't doesn't flow,
 that there is no such thing as a now in which you or the twins actually
 exist. From your answers it seems clear that you can't even bring yourself
 to agree that you are actually some particular age right now, or were at
 any time in the past. If you don't even believe that I can't see any hope
 of agreement or having a meaningful discussion.


If right now is taken to presume there is a UNIQUE now, then you are
simply assuming what you seemed to be trying to prove. On the other hand,
if right now is understood to be an indexical term (see
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/indexicals/ ) whose meaning depends on
who's saying it, like here or mine, then of course I have a definite
age right now. It's just that in this case I must be understood to
refer to a particular observer-moment among many, the one having the
experience of saying the sentence. So the fact that I have a definite age
right now does not imply the nonexistence of other Jesse-observer-moments
at different ages who could be just as real as I am, and who would mean
something different by right now, any more than the sentence I am here
in Rhode Island implies the nonexistence of other people at different
locations who would mean something different if they used the word here.
This is not to say that those other Jesse-observer-moments MUST be just as
real as I am, just that the fact I can say I have a definite age right
now doesn't prove anything one way or another about whether other
Jesse-observer-moments with different nows exist or not.




 It's quite clear from all the numerous examples I gave that it is possible
 to determine a 1:1 correlation between the twin's actual ages in terms of
 their own clock time readings (what you call their proper times).



You have never given any *general* rule for determining this, you just gave
two rules for specific cases: 1) the rule saying that if observers are at
rest relative to one another far from gravity, the ages that are
simultaneous in their inertial rest frame are also simultaneous in p-time,
and 2) the rules saying that if observers start at a common location with
clocks synchronized and then travel away from that location inertially,
identical subsequent readings on their clocks will be simultaneous in
p-time (again assuming no gravity). This doesn't tell us how to determine
the 1:1 correlation if one of the observers accelerates during his journey,
or if they are in a gravitational field. What's more, you didn't really
give any rational *justification* for these rules, you just asserted that
they were true. Even a fellow believer in presentism might disagree with
these rules (for example, many presentists believe in a preferred reference
frame, such that only events that were simultaneous in that frame *truly*
happened at the same time)--do you think they should just take your
pronouncements on faith?

Finally, there is the small matter that rule 1) leads to a paradox where
two different points on the same person's worldline would end up being
simultaneous in p-time, assuming p-time simultaneity is transitive and that
events at the same point in spacetime in relativity also happen at the same
p-time. Your only response to my bringing up this paradox (the one with
four observers Alice, Bob, Arlene and Bart in
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/pxg0VAAHJRQJ )
was to deny that events at the same point in spacetime happen at the same
p-time, but some of your comments made me think you were misunderstanding
the meaning of same point in spacetime, so I repeatedly asked you to
address some simple questions that would clarify if you were understanding
the meaning the same way that I do. But you have been incredibly evasive,
continually ignoring my requests to answer my questions on the subject,
even when I narrowed it down to a single question at the end of my last
post to you at
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/LF0Xcds_qtQJ

I would think that if an intellectually honest person is told there is a
contradiction in something they've proposed, they would want to explore the
argument for a contradiction, either showing that it doesn't work or
admitting the contradiction is genuine and revising their position.
Repeatedly ducking the issue doesn't seem to be the response of someone who
is interested in open-minded intellectual exploration, as opposed to paying
attention only to arguments that support their current beliefs.




 This is their 'true actual age' because both twins agree on both actual
 ages and how their clock times correlate. They do this not by OBSERVING the
 other's age, but by calculating it from knowledge of how relativity works
 in both their frames.


I don't see how relativity supports either of your 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread spudboy100

What if Einstein's reference frames ( does anyone else get the credit for this 
term?) function because reality is what I call Virtuality? Its the old 
simulation argument, served up by myself, today. Someone who has worked 
arduously on this concept over the last, few, years, is mathematician, Brian 
Whitworth in New Zealand, and if anyone has the time, interest, and patience, 
to learn about his own theory of Virtual Reality (again, Virtuality) I will 
present it here. I believe it dovetails with the Block universe view of how 
spacetime works and is best measured. But it does take both special, and 
general, relativity as well as the quantum, in a very, different, direction. 
Here is his latest paper, dated, Jan 24, 2014. His earlier papers can be 
downloaded on ARXIV, of course, as well as his discussions on the FQXI.

Sincerely,

Mitch

http://brianwhitworth.com/BW-VRT1.pdf



-Original Message-
From: Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sat, Feb 22, 2014 3:03 pm
Subject: Re: Block Universes


Jesse,


I think the basic problem in our discussion, which seems intractable from you 
answers below, is your basic belief that time doesn't doesn't flow, that there 
is no such thing as a now in which you or the twins actually exist. From your 
answers it seems clear that you can't even bring yourself to agree that you are 
actually some particular age right now, or were at any time in the past. If you 
don't even believe that I can't see any hope of agreement or having a 
meaningful discussion.


It's quite clear from all the numerous examples I gave that it is possible to 
determine a 1:1 correlation between the twin's actual ages in terms of their 
own clock time readings (what you call their proper times). This is their 'true 
actual age' because both twins agree on both actual ages and how their clock 
times correlate. They do this not by OBSERVING the other's age, but by 
calculating it from knowledge of how relativity works in both their frames. 
This is the frame independence I point out that is a fundamental (though 
unstated) assumption of relativity. It is only in this background notion of 
frame independence that frame DEPENDENCE of relativity makes any sense. But 
that concept remains beyond you


But since you can't even bring yourself to admit the twins were actually alive 
with a particular actual age at every point on their world lines I see no 
useful way to continue the discussion. 


Thus the basic disagreement is not really about whether p-time is incompatible 
with relativity (it isn't) but that p-time is incompatible with block time, 
which for you seems a matter of faith which you are unable to set aside.


Best,
Edgar




On Wednesday, February 19, 2014 1:30:11 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:




On Sun, Feb 16, 2014 at 9:40 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

Jesse,


OK, I'm back...


Let me back up a minute and ask you a couple of general questions with respect 
to establishing which past clock times of different observers were simultaneous 
in p-time


The only clocks in this example are the real actual ages of two twins




1. Do you agree that each twin always has a real actual age defined as how old 
he actually is (to himself)?


Yes or no?



Yes, in the sense that at each point on his worldline he has an actual age at 
that point, which is just the proper time between his birth and that point. But 
if you're suggesting a unique true actual age, as opposed to just each point 
having its own actual age, then I would have to change my answer to no.




 



2. Do you agree that this real actual age corresponds by definition to the 
moment of his actually being alive, to his actual current point in time? (As a 
block universe believer you can just take this as perception or perspective 
rather than actuality if you wish - it won't affect the discussion).

 



Yes or no?





If by perspective you mean that each point on his worldline takes his 
experiences at that point (including his age) to be the current point in 
time, then yes.



 





Now assume a relativistic trip that separates the twins


3. Do you agree that IF, for every point of the trip, we can always determine 
what ACTUAL age of one twin corresponds to the ACTUAL age of the other twin, 
and always in a way that both twins AGREE upon (that is frame independent), 
that those 1:1 correspondences in actual ages, whatever they are, must occur at 
the same actual times? That this would give us a method to determine what 
(possibly different) actual ages occur at the same actual p-time moment in 
which the twins are actually alive with those (possibly different) actual ages?


Yes or no?



IF we had a method to determine a unique 1:1 correspondence in ages for 
separated twins, then yes, that could reasonably be interpreted as a 
demonstration of absolute simultaneity, telling us which ages occur at the 
same actual times. But I don't 

Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:37 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 But from the links you yourself provide:
 http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O

 To quote from the abstract:

 If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity
 comparable to the speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally
 towards its path as though it had an increased mass. If the relativistic
 increase in active gravitational mass is measured by the transverse (and
 longitudinal) velocities which such a moving mass induces in test particles
 initially at rest near its path, then we find, with this definition, that
 Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. Therefore, in the ultrarelativistic limit, the active
 gravitational mass of a moving body, measured in this way, is not γM but is
 approximately 2γM.
 So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active
 gravitational mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE and
 has a stronger gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.

 So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.


How so?



 Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a moving
 object DOES have an increased gravitational attraction. So since
 gravitational attraction is due to curvature of spacetime one can say that
 from the POV (the frame) of the stationary observer, the moving object must
 be curving spacetime more.


I don't believe there is any rule which says that gravitational
attraction as they quantify it in the paper is proportional to any simple
measure of the amount of spacetime curvature, and if there isn't then you
can't say that a greater attraction in this sense implies curving
spacetime more. I imagine the the attraction depends on the way in which
the curvature tensor varies at different points along the object's path
through spacetime.

Jesse




 Correct?

 Edgar




 Read more: http://www.physicsforums.com

 On Wednesday, February 19, 2014 10:32:07 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

 The curvature of spacetime is understood in a coordinate-invariant way,
 in terms of the proper time and proper length along paths through
 spacetime, so it doesn't depend at all on what coordinate system you use to
 describe things. Physicists do sometimes talk about the curvature of
 space distinct from the curvature of spacetime, I'm not sure if you meant
 to distinguish the two or were treating them as synonymous. But defining
 the curvature of space depends on picking a simultaneity convention which
 divides 4D spacetime into a series of 3D slices, and then defining the
 curvature of each slice in terms of proper length along spacelike paths
 confined to that slice. So the curvature of space is
 coordinate-dependent, since different simultaneity conventions = different
 slices with different curvatures.

 I don't know if there's any meaningful sense in which picking a
 coordinate system where an object has a higher velocity means it curves
 space more--if there is, it would presumably depend on a choice to
 restrict the analysis to some family of coordinate systems where each
 possible velocity would be associated with a particular choice of
 simultaneity convention, rather than using any of the arbitrary smooth
 coordinate systems (with arbitrary simultaneity conventions) that are
 permitted in general relativity.

 I found some discussion of the issue of how velocity relates to curvature
 and gravitational force on these pages:

 http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/95023/does-a-
 moving-object-curve-space-time-as-its-velocity-increases

 http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=602644


 On Wed, Feb 19, 2014 at 9:15 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Russell, Brent, Jesse, et al,

 The increased kinetic energy of the particle is not due to its
 acceleration but to its relative velocity to some observer. Mass also
 increases with relative velocity, but that apparent increase in mass is
 only with respect to some observer the motion is relative to. In fact all
 kinetic energy is only with respect to relative velocity with some observer
 frame.

 So this means that any increased curvature of space from that increased
 kinetic energy and increased mass should be only with respect to observers
 it is in relative motion with respect to.

 So in this case we seem to have a case in which the curvature of space
 is relative rather than being absolute.

 Would you not agree?

 Edgar



 On Tuesday, February 18, 2014 4:44:58 PM UTC-5, Russell Standish wrote:

 On Tue, Feb 18, 2014 at 01:28:09PM -0500, John Clark wrote:
  On Sun, Feb 16, 2014 at 12:54 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net
 wrote:
 
  
You say that You can tell if spacetime is curved or not by
 observing
   if light moves in a straight line or not. and then you say that
 light does
   NOT travel in a straight line in the accelerating elevator example
 you give.
  
  
So, by your terminology, does that mean that the acceleration of
 the
   elevator IS 

Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread meekerdb

On 2/22/2014 3:22 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:


On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:37 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net 
mailto:edgaro...@att.net wrote:


Jesse,

But from the links you yourself provide:
http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O

To quote from the abstract:

If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity 
comparable to the
speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally towards its path as 
though it
had an increased mass. If the relativistic increase in active gravitational 
mass is
measured by the transverse (and longitudinal) velocities which such a 
moving mass
induces in test particles initially at rest near its path, then we find, 
with this
definition, that Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. Therefore, in the ultrarelativistic limit, 
the
active gravitational mass of a moving body, measured in this way, is not γM 
but is
approximately 2γM.

So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active 
gravitational
mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE and has a stronger
gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.

So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.


How so?


Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a moving 
object DOES
have an increased gravitational attraction. So since gravitational 
attraction is due
to curvature of spacetime one can say that from the POV (the frame) of the
stationary observer, the moving object must be curving spacetime more.


I don't believe there is any rule which says that gravitational attraction as they 
quantify it in the paper is proportional to any simple measure of the amount of 
spacetime curvature, and if there isn't then you can't say that a greater attraction in 
this sense implies curving spacetime more. I imagine the the attraction depends on the 
way in which the curvature tensor varies at different points along the object's path 
through spacetime.


Note that the Schwarzschild metric (or any other metric) around a moving gravitating body 
becomes shortened in the direction of travel by the Lorentz contraction.  So from the 
standpoint of a stationary test mass the field is stronger but of shorter duration as the 
gravitating body moves past,  so it curves spacetime more.  Looked at the other way 
around, with the Schwarzschild gravitating body stationary and the test mass moving, the 
test mass gains 4-momentum as it falls toward the gravitating body and hence the 
gravitational attraction is increased.  That's why in GR there is increased precession of 
the perihelion and there can be plunging orbits.


Brent

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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 12:37:06PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 Jesse,
 
 But from the links you yourself provide:
 http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O
 
 To quote from the abstract:
 
 If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity 
 comparable to the speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally 
 towards its path as though it had an increased mass. If the relativistic 
 increase in active gravitational mass is measured by the transverse (and 
 longitudinal) velocities which such a moving mass induces in test particles 
 initially at rest near its path, then we find, with this definition, that 
 Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. Therefore, in the ultrarelativistic limit, the active 
 gravitational mass of a moving body, measured in this way, is not γM but is 
 approximately 2γM.
 So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active 
 gravitational mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE and 
 has a stronger gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.
 
 So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.
 
 Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a moving 
 object DOES have an increased gravitational attraction. So since 
 gravitational attraction is due to curvature of spacetime one can say that 
 from the POV (the frame) of the stationary observer, the moving object must 
 be curving spacetime more.
 
 Correct?
 
 Edgar
 

In GR, curvature is a rank 2 tensor. Being a tensor, it does not vary
according to the inertial reference frame of the observer (ie does not
depend on the speed of the observer).

However, projections of a tensor onto subspaces does depend the
inertial reference frame, as the subspace are defined by the reference
frame. For example, the subspaces represent space and time rotate
relative to those of another observer travelling at some velocity
greater, and significantly so when near the speed of light. The
technical name for this is covariance. The components of a tensor will
transform covariantly with the reference frame.

So the effect being described in the paper you cite can only be due to
projecting the force vectors onto a 3D subspace (aka space), which
rotates as the inertial reference frame changes.

But the curvature of space (as a tensor) does not vary with inertial
reference frame. I suspect too many physicists do not understand
tensors properly, and as a result the subject was, and probably still
is, very poorly taught (my GR lecturer some 30 years ago being a case
in point), but can recommend the classic by Misner, Thorne and
Wheeler, who got it right.

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
I'll give it a go. Us Kiwis have a rep for punching above our weight in
physics, what with radioactivity and rotating black holes, to name but two
(I hestitate to mention powered flight) so who knows, he may be onto
something.


On 23 February 2014 12:20, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 What if Einstein's reference frames ( does anyone else get the credit for
 this term?) function because reality is what I call Virtuality? Its the old
 simulation argument, served up by myself, today. Someone who has worked
 arduously on this concept over the last, few, years, is mathematician,
 Brian Whitworth in New Zealand, and if anyone has the time, interest, and
 patience, to learn about his own theory of Virtual Reality (again,
 Virtuality) I will present it here. I believe it dovetails with the Block
 universe view of how spacetime works and is best measured. But it does take
 both special, and general, relativity as well as the quantum, in a very,
 different, direction. Here is his latest paper, dated, Jan 24, 2014. His
 earlier papers can be downloaded on ARXIV, of course, as well as his
 discussions on the FQXI.

 Sincerely,

 Mitch

 http://brianwhitworth.com/BW-VRT1.pdf



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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 6:34 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/22/2014 3:22 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:


 On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:37 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

  But from the links you yourself provide:
  http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O

 To quote from the abstract:

If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity
 comparable to the speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally
 towards its path as though it had an increased mass. If the relativistic
 increase in active gravitational mass is measured by the transverse (and
 longitudinal) velocities which such a moving mass induces in test particles
 initially at rest near its path, then we find, with this definition, that
 Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. Therefore, in the ultrarelativistic limit, the active
 gravitational mass of a moving body, measured in this way, is not γM but is
 approximately 2γM.
So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active
 gravitational mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE and
 has a stronger gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.

  So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.


  How so?



  Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a
 moving object DOES have an increased gravitational attraction. So since
 gravitational attraction is due to curvature of spacetime one can say that
 from the POV (the frame) of the stationary observer, the moving object must
 be curving spacetime more.


  I don't believe there is any rule which says that gravitational
 attraction as they quantify it in the paper is proportional to any simple
 measure of the amount of spacetime curvature, and if there isn't then you
 can't say that a greater attraction in this sense implies curving
 spacetime more. I imagine the the attraction depends on the way in which
 the curvature tensor varies at different points along the object's path
 through spacetime.


 Note that the Schwarzschild metric (or any other metric) around a moving
 gravitating body becomes shortened in the direction of travel by the
 Lorentz contraction.  So from the standpoint of a stationary test mass the
 field is stronger but of shorter duration as the gravitating body moves
 past,  so it curves spacetime more.


What do you mean by curves spacetime more, though? Isn't the curvature of
spacetime defined in a coordinate-invariant way in general relativity, in
terms of the metric which gives the proper time or proper length of
arbitrary timelike or spacelike paths through that spacetime? Are you
talking about some specific coordinate-dependent quantity, and if so is it
a scalar or a tensor?

Jesse

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread meekerdb

On 2/22/2014 3:20 PM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
What if Einstein's reference frames ( does anyone else get the credit for this term?) 
function because reality is what I call Virtuality? Its the old simulation argument, 
served up by myself, today. Someone who has worked arduously on this concept over the 
last, few, years, is mathematician, Brian Whitworth in New Zealand, and if anyone has 
the time, interest, and patience, to learn about his own theory of Virtual Reality 
(again, Virtuality) I will present it here. I believe it dovetails with the Block 
universe view of how spacetime works and is best measured. But it does take both 
special, and general, relativity as well as the quantum, in a very, different, 
direction. Here is his latest paper, dated, Jan 24, 2014. His earlier papers can be 
downloaded on ARXIV, of course, as well as his discussions on the FQXI.

Sincerely,
Mitch
http://brianwhitworth.com/BW-VRT1.pdf


Well right off I see he got the quotation wrong.  It's J.B.S. Haldane's, It is my 
supposition that the universe is not only queerer than we imagine, it is queerer than we 
can imagine.


He complains for two pages that modern physics can't be right because it's not 
comprehensible.  But he never explains what comprehensible means or why it disqualifies 
theories.  I think what it really means is like good old Newtonian mechanics.  But when 
explicated it no longer sounds like such a good criterion. He writes What quantum theory 
describes is in every way physically impossible - but only under naive Aristotelian and 
Newtonian physics.


He claims the virtualism is consistent with physics - but which physics?  The physics he 
objects is impossible and incomprehensible?  As a matter of fact yes.  That's the physics 
he cites in describing what virtualism Has or Allows.  Notice he doesn't use 
predicts; and that's because virtualism is like theism, it has and allows anything 
at all.


After eight pages of logical non-sequiturs, I lost patience.

Brent

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 2:05:47 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014, Craig Weinberg 
 whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 12:29:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 20 February 2014 09:24, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote: 

  You're assuming that precise molecular assembly will necessarily 
 yield a 
  coherent dynamic process, but that may not be the case at all. If 
 you put 
  random people in the proper places in a baseball diamond, and give 
 the one 
  in the middle a baseball, they don't necessarily play a baseball 
 game. 
  
  
  If you're right then there would be something missing, something 
  mysterious, and there would be evidence for it much simpler 
 experiments than 
  complete assembly of a human body. For example, you might be able to 
  substitute some chemical on a cell for an equivalent chemical and 
 observe 
  the cell stop functioning even though everything seems to be 
 biochemically 
  in order. That would be direct evidence for your theory. It's 
 scientifically 
  testable. 
  
  
  What's missing is the entire history of experiences which relate to 
 whatever 
  it is that you think you're copying. 
  
  We don't exist on the levels of cells or molecules. If there were no 
 human 
  looking down at cells in a microscope, and we had only the microcosmic 
  perspective to go from, there would be nothing that could be done to 
 build a 
  human experience. No configuration of proteins and ion channels is 
 going to 
  taste like strawberries to any of the molecules or cells. All of these 
  structures relate only to a particular level of description. If you 
 copy the 
  sheet music of I Can't Get No Satisfaction you don't know if it is 
 the 
  Rolling Stones version or the Devo version, and neither could be 
 predicted 
  or generated purely from the notes. 

 That's your theory, but the theory should have some straightforward 
 observational consequences. For example, if some of the matter in a 
 cell is replaced in a laboratory, then the cell would stop 
 functioning. This would confound the scientists because according to 
 current theories it ought to function normally provided all the matter 
 is there in the right configuration. 


 We don't see it at the sub-cellular level, we see it beginning at the 
 biological level as tissue-rejection. The richer the experience, the longer 
 the history, and the more important it is in defining itself exclusively. 
 Biology is more proprietary than chemistry, zoology is more proprietary 
 than biology, anthropology is more proprietary than zoology, etc. It's not 
 that some material fragment of a cell should be irreplaceable, it's that 
 living cells should be easily created from primordial soup. Your theory 
 misses the whole other half of the universe which coheres from the top down.

 We can take out small words or skip letters of a sentence and still be 
 understood, but we can't understand a sentence as a whole if we don't know 
 what the bigger words in it mean.


 Tissue rejection is caused by well understood mechanisms whereby the body 
 recognises foreign protein markers on the transplanted tissue. That's the 
 only thing you have said above which is close to an observational 
 consequence of your theory, and it doesn't support it.


The body's recognition of foreign protein markers is a lower level 
manifestation of the mismatch of higher level zoological history. It is a 
sign that on this level of description, tissue is not naively exchangeable. 
The public side is a spatial story about bodies nested within bodies 
performing repeating functions. The private side is completely orthogonal. 
It is an phenomenal story about tension and release, identity, etc. The 
public side is a closed circuit, but it is closed by the narrowness of the 
private perspective. The universe fills in the appearance of closure and 
mechanism, just as our visual perception fills in repeating patterns.

Craig

 



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou


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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 4:06:39 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 15:09, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 9:34:08 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an 
 illusion


 Not an illusion, an invariant.


 If it is invariant then it can't be original. Invariant means that it 
 remains fixed across a multiplicity of variations. To be original means 
 that it undergoes no variation. It is uncopied and uncopyable.


 But I think that any serious (i.e. non-eliminitavist) theory of 
 consciousness must find it to be original and indeed uncopyable in the 
 sense that you stipulate. 


That is the opposite of what CTM does though. In order to say yes to the 
doctor, we must believe that we are justified in expecting to be copied 
into an identical conscious personhood.
 

 Sense is never copied; rather it is encountered wherever there is a 
 sensible context. 


Encountered by what? Nonsense? What is a non-sensible context?
 

 One might say that it is encountered wherever what is obscuring it has 
 been sufficiently clarified. It originates perpetually at the centre of a 
 circle whose limits are not discoverable. One shouldn't therefore think of 
 sense as what is copied in the protocol; rather what is copiable is only 
 that which is capable of differentiating one sensible context from another. 


What else could be capable of differentiating one sensible context from 
another besides sense? You are saying that sense is not copied, only 
sense-making is copied. I am saying that nothing is copied except for the 
ratios of distance between experiences.
 

 I think that consciousness, transcendently, is a necessary, original and 
 invariant assumption of any theory of itself. 


We agree then, but how does that allow for CTM?
 

 As such it is perpetually capable of self-manifestation, given the 
 sufficient conditions of a sensible context. Always in terms of some 
 theory, of course.


Theory is always in terms of a deeper sense-making substrate.

Craig 


 David

  

 and simulation is absolute.


 Not absolute, but hopefully sufficient (i.e. the idea of a level of 
 substitution).

 Hope that helps.


 I'm saying that the idea of a level of substitution is absolute.

 I wish I could hope that helps, but I expect that it will only be twisted 
 around, dismissed, and diluted.

 Craig
  


 David


  

 Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can 
 only be done once. Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be 
 done more than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one 
 time. It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite, 
 progressing or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for 
 beginnings and endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other 
 sensibly. Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it 
 reflects itself in different sensible ways through every appreciation of 
 form.

 The not-even-done-onceness of consciousness and the 
 done-over-and-overness of its self reflection can be made to seem 
 equivalent from any local perspective, since the very act of looking 
 through a local perspective requires a comparison with prior perspectives, 
 and therefore attention to the done-over-and-overness - the rigorously 
 measured and recorded. In this way, the diagonalization of originality is 
 preserved, but always behind our back. Paradoxically, it is only when we 
 suspend our rigid attention and unexamine the forms presented within 
 consciousness and the world that we can become the understanding that we 
 expect.


 On Friday, February 21, 2014 8:39:47 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pdxucpPq6Lc


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Re: How does acceleration curve space? Can anyone provide an answer?

2014-02-22 Thread meekerdb

On 2/22/2014 3:43 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:


On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 6:34 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 2/22/2014 3:22 PM, Jesse Mazer wrote:


On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:37 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
mailto:edgaro...@att.net wrote:

Jesse,

But from the links you yourself provide:
http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1985AmJPh..53..661O

To quote from the abstract:

If a heavy object with rest mass M moves past you with a velocity 
comparable to
the speed of light, you will be attracted gravitationally towards its 
path as
though it had an increased mass. If the relativistic increase in active
gravitational mass is measured by the transverse (and longitudinal) 
velocities
which such a moving mass induces in test particles initially at rest 
near its
path, then we find, with this definition, that Mrel=γ(1+β^2)M. 
Therefore, in
the ultrarelativistic limit, the active gravitational mass of a moving 
body,
measured in this way, is not γM but is approximately 2γM.

So this reference from the Harvard physics dept. says that the active
gravitational mass of a relativistically moving particle DOES INCREASE 
and has
a stronger gravitational attraction to what it is moving relative to.

So that seems to contradict your own conclusion.


How so?


Clearly from Harvard, the increased mass (relativistic mass) of a 
moving object
DOES have an increased gravitational attraction. So since gravitational
attraction is due to curvature of spacetime one can say that from the 
POV (the
frame) of the stationary observer, the moving object must be curving 
spacetime
more.


I don't believe there is any rule which says that gravitational 
attraction as
they quantify it in the paper is proportional to any simple measure of the 
amount
of spacetime curvature, and if there isn't then you can't say that a greater
attraction in this sense implies curving spacetime more. I imagine the the
attraction depends on the way in which the curvature tensor varies at 
different
points along the object's path through spacetime.


Note that the Schwarzschild metric (or any other metric) around a moving 
gravitating
body becomes shortened in the direction of travel by the Lorentz 
contraction.  So
from the standpoint of a stationary test mass the field is stronger but of 
shorter
duration as the gravitating body moves past,  so it curves spacetime more.


What do you mean by curves spacetime more, though? Isn't the curvature of spacetime 
defined in a coordinate-invariant way in general relativity, in terms of the metric 
which gives the proper time or proper length of arbitrary timelike or spacelike paths 
through that spacetime? Are you talking about some specific coordinate-dependent 
quantity, and if so is it a scalar or a tensor?


It would be coordinate frame dependent, like clock rates in SR.  The tensor curvature is 
an invariant.


Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
OK, maybe I won't bother with it after all. (My time is a bit limited...!)


On 23 February 2014 13:03, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/22/2014 3:20 PM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 What if Einstein's reference frames ( does anyone else get the credit for
 this term?) function because reality is what I call Virtuality? Its the old
 simulation argument, served up by myself, today. Someone who has worked
 arduously on this concept over the last, few, years, is mathematician,
 Brian Whitworth in New Zealand, and if anyone has the time, interest, and
 patience, to learn about his own theory of Virtual Reality (again,
 Virtuality) I will present it here. I believe it dovetails with the Block
 universe view of how spacetime works and is best measured. But it does take
 both special, and general, relativity as well as the quantum, in a very,
 different, direction. Here is his latest paper, dated, Jan 24, 2014. His
 earlier papers can be downloaded on ARXIV, of course, as well as his
 discussions on the FQXI.

 Sincerely,

 Mitch

 http://brianwhitworth.com/BW-VRT1.pdf


 Well right off I see he got the quotation wrong.  It's J.B.S. Haldane's, It
 is my supposition that the universe is not only queerer than we imagine, it
 is queerer than we can imagine.

 He complains for two pages that modern physics can't be right because it's
 not comprehensible.  But he never explains what comprehensible means or
 why it disqualifies theories.  I think what it really means is like good
 old Newtonian mechanics.  But when explicated it no longer sounds like
 such a good criterion. He writes What quantum theory describes is in every
 way physically impossible - but only under naive Aristotelian and
 Newtonian physics.

 He claims the virtualism is consistent with physics - but which
 physics?  The physics he objects is impossible and incomprehensible?  As a
 matter of fact yes.  That's the physics he cites in describing what
 virtualism Has or Allows.  Notice he doesn't use predicts; and that's
 because virtualism is like theism, it has and allows anything at all.

 After eight pages of logical non-sequiturs, I lost patience.

 Brent

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

1. Do you agree you are actually a particular age right now today as you 
read this?

2. Do you agree that I am actually a particular age right now today as I 
write this, whether or not you know what that is?

3. Do you agree that we can both agree on those two ages?

4. Do you agree that if we were at the same location we would be in the 
same present moment?

5. Since you believe you are actually alive in every moment of your life, 
including every past and future moment, why is this particular moment the 
one you experience yourself in right now?

6. Since you no doubt will claim that every one of your moment selves 
experiences itself in its present moment, then how do you explain your 
experience of time flowing from those past moments to the present one? And 
how do you explain that you have no experience of any of your future moment 
selves? If the past and present moments are equivalent, why are they not 
symmetrical in this respect?

Again I know this conversation won't go anywhere. It's like trying to make 
a logical argument to a cult member.

And yes, our disagreement is p-time versus block time, because all your 
arguments are basically based on your conviction there is no such thing as 
an actual now, an actual present moment in which you exist and are actually 
a particular age.

If you could just accept that all my many arguments and examples would 
follow logically.

Last question: Why do you act every minute of every day as if you live in a 
present moment through which clock time flows if it actually doesn't? How 
can your mind be so completely deluded in this respect? Why does everyone 
in the world except a few members of the block universe cult believe this 
and act on it successfully every minute of their lives? Why is everyone in 
the world so deluded except for the block universe cult?

One more question: Do you agree that if you lived in a block universe that 
you would be completely deterministic with no free will at all, and that 
you would be effectively a pre-programmed zombie?

One more: If you flash freeze a brain with the exact state of its neural 
circuitry intact would that brain be alive or dead? Would it know what its 
state was? 

Of course not, knowledge, like everything in the universe depends on 
change, on process, on the actual flow of time. A block universe is a 
universe of death, a universe populated entirely by deterministic zombies..

And stop labeling my theory presentism. It's not a subset of any other 
theory type. People label things to keep from actually understanding them.

Edgar


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 6:07:17 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 3:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 I think the basic problem in our discussion, which seems intractable from 
 you answers below, is your basic belief that time doesn't doesn't flow, 
 that there is no such thing as a now in which you or the twins actually 
 exist. From your answers it seems clear that you can't even bring yourself 
 to agree that you are actually some particular age right now, or were at 
 any time in the past. If you don't even believe that I can't see any hope 
 of agreement or having a meaningful discussion.


 If right now is taken to presume there is a UNIQUE now, then you are 
 simply assuming what you seemed to be trying to prove. On the other hand, 
 if right now is understood to be an indexical term (see 
 http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/indexicals/ ) whose meaning depends on 
 who's saying it, like here or mine, then of course I have a definite 
 age right now. It's just that in this case I must be understood to 
 refer to a particular observer-moment among many, the one having the 
 experience of saying the sentence. So the fact that I have a definite age 
 right now does not imply the nonexistence of other Jesse-observer-moments 
 at different ages who could be just as real as I am, and who would mean 
 something different by right now, any more than the sentence I am here 
 in Rhode Island implies the nonexistence of other people at different 
 locations who would mean something different if they used the word here. 
 This is not to say that those other Jesse-observer-moments MUST be just as 
 real as I am, just that the fact I can say I have a definite age right 
 now doesn't prove anything one way or another about whether other 
 Jesse-observer-moments with different nows exist or not.

  


 It's quite clear from all the numerous examples I gave that it is possible 
 to determine a 1:1 correlation between the twin's actual ages in terms of 
 their own clock time readings (what you call their proper times).



 You have never given any *general* rule for determining this, you just 
 gave two rules for specific cases: 1) the rule saying that if observers are 
 at rest relative to one another far from gravity, the ages that are 
 simultaneous in their inertial rest frame are also simultaneous in p-time, 
 and 

Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread David Nyman
On 23 February 2014 00:27, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:




 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 4:06:39 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 15:09, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 9:34:08 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an
 illusion


 Not an illusion, an invariant.


 If it is invariant then it can't be original. Invariant means that it
 remains fixed across a multiplicity of variations. To be original means
 that it undergoes no variation. It is uncopied and uncopyable.


 But I think that any serious (i.e. non-eliminitavist) theory of
 consciousness must find it to be original and indeed uncopyable in the
 sense that you stipulate.


 That is the opposite of what CTM does though. In order to say yes to the
 doctor, we must believe that we are justified in expecting to be copied
 into an identical conscious personhood.


No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of
consciousness is directly entailed by CTM. In fact it is equivalent to the
continuing existence of the sensible world (i.e. per comp, the world is
what is observed). Hence any observer can expect to remain centred in the
circle of observation, come what may, to speak rather loosely. There is a
transcendent expectation of a definite continuation (aka no cul-de-sac).
This expectation is relativised only secondarily in terms of the specifics
of some particular continuation.



 Sense is never copied; rather it is encountered wherever there is a
 sensible context.


 Encountered by what? Nonsense? What is a non-sensible context?


There is no precisely apposite vocabulary here. I simply meant the
sufficient conditions for the self-relative actualisation of a who, a
where, a when, a history and so forth. In short-hand: a sensible context.



 One might say that it is encountered wherever what is obscuring it has
 been sufficiently clarified. It originates perpetually at the centre of a
 circle whose limits are not discoverable. One shouldn't therefore think of
 sense as what is copied in the protocol; rather what is copiable is only
 that which is capable of differentiating one sensible context from another.


 What else could be capable of differentiating one sensible context from
 another besides sense? You are saying that sense is not copied, only
 sense-making is copied. I am saying that nothing is copied except for the
 ratios of distance between experiences.


I am only saying, or trying to say, what follows from the assumptions and
explicit rules of derivation of a particular theory. I can do no other and
no more. Under CTM, what might look like arithmetic, computation and logic
from the bird perspective transforms, in terms of those very rules of
derivation, into an inter-subjective Multiverse in the frog perspective. In
so doing it relies implicitly, as I have suggested, on a notion of
consciousness as a transcendent observational invariant.



 I think that consciousness, transcendently, is a necessary, original and
 invariant assumption of any theory of itself.


 We agree then, but how does that allow for CTM?


Because if we are on the track of a theory of everything (vainglorious
though that may be) we need more than just a transcendent assumption. We
need a robust framework that shows at least some early promise of being
able to address the formidable conceptual and technical challenges that
infest the world-problem, hopefully without sweeping any of them under the
rug.



 As such it is perpetually capable of self-manifestation, given the
 sufficient conditions of a sensible context. Always in terms of some
 theory, of course.


 Theory is always in terms of a deeper sense-making substrate.


I would say rather that theory must be capable of situating the required
notions of sense both transcendently and contextually. And theory mustn't
cheat by assuming a priori that its postulates are real (as opposed to the
point of departure of an argument).

David



 and simulation is absolute.


 Not absolute, but hopefully sufficient (i.e. the idea of a level of
 substitution).

 Hope that helps.


 I'm saying that the idea of a level of substitution is absolute.

 I wish I could hope that helps, but I expect that it will only be
 twisted around, dismissed, and diluted.

 Craig



 David




 Arithmetic can do so many things, but it can't do something that can
 only be done once. Think of consciousness as not only that which can't be
 done more than once, it is that which cannot even be fully completed one
 time. It doesn't begin or end, and it is neither finite nor infinite,
 progressing or static, but instead it is the fundamental ability for
 beginnings and endings to seem to exist and to relate to each other
 sensibly. Consciousness is orthogonal to all process and form, but it
 reflects itself in different sensible 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 7:40 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 1. Do you agree you are actually a particular age right now today as you
 read this?


Hey, more questions! But as usual, I see you demand that I answer your
questions while you pointedly ignore the question I have repeatedly asked
you about the meaning of same point in spacetime, even after I put the
question into a form that only requires a simple agree/disagree type
answer--again see the last two paragraphs of
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/LF0Xcds_qtQJ .
Sorry Edward, but this is really rude behavior, adults having a civil
discussion understand that they are each expected to make some effort to
address the other's questions and arguments, you can't expect to have the
unique power to dictate what will be discussed (especially when the line of
discussion you are so stubbornly ignoring is one stemming from an argument
of mine that I think shows a basic mathematical contradiction in your ideas
about p-time simultaneity). I will be happy to answer all your questions
and arguments in detail, just as I have always done in the past, if you are
willing to address my question in some way--even if it's not a simple
agree/disagree answer, but something else like saying that you find the
question unclear and in need of clarification. But if you outright refuse
to talk about anything but your own preferred lines of argument, then I'll
take that as a sign that you are unwilling to show any basic respect to
others who disagree with you, and that you are only interested in lecturing
about your ideas rather than engaging in two-way conversation, in which
case there'd be no point in my responding to your posts any further.

Jesse

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
Maybe Edgar should start the Edgar-thing list, where he *does* have
the unique
power to dictate what will be discussed.

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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 22, 2014 8:49:33 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 23 February 2014 00:27, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:




 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 4:06:39 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 15:09, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 9:34:08 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 22 February 2014 14:25, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 If you say yes to the doctor, you are saying that originality is an 
 illusion


 Not an illusion, an invariant.


 If it is invariant then it can't be original. Invariant means that it 
 remains fixed across a multiplicity of variations. To be original means 
 that it undergoes no variation. It is uncopied and uncopyable.


 But I think that any serious (i.e. non-eliminitavist) theory of 
 consciousness must find it to be original and indeed uncopyable in the 
 sense that you stipulate. 


 That is the opposite of what CTM does though. In order to say yes to the 
 doctor, we must believe that we are justified in expecting to be copied 
 into an identical conscious personhood.


 No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of 
 consciousness is directly entailed by CTM. 


But it is directly contradicted by the idea that consciousness is tied to 
originality. You can't have it both ways. If consciousness can be continued 
by a computation, then it cannot be considered original. It is no more 
original than a long IP address. Any computation which can reproduce the 
complex number must forever instantiate a non-original address of 
consciousness.
 

 In fact it is equivalent to the continuing existence of the sensible world 
 (i.e. per comp, the world is what is observed).


The world of comp is what is observed, which is why it can never contain 
even a single observer.
 

 Hence any observer can expect to remain centred in the circle of 
 observation, come what may, to speak rather loosely. There is a 
 transcendent expectation of a definite continuation (aka no cul-de-sac). 
 This expectation is relativised only secondarily in terms of the specifics 
 of some particular continuation.


Any continuation is a violation of originality/authenticity and is 
therefore, by my definition, unconscious and impossible. I assure you that 
there is nothing significant that I misunderstand about comp. You are 
telling me over and over what I already know, and your responses clearly 
indicate to me that you are primarily focused on your view being heard 
rather than considering mine. You are getting some of my view, more than 
most others on this list have been willing to sit through, but still, your 
argument is 90% shadow boxing.
 


  

 Sense is never copied; rather it is encountered wherever there is a 
 sensible context. 


 Encountered by what? Nonsense? What is a non-sensible context?

  
 There is no precisely apposite vocabulary here. I simply meant the 
 sufficient conditions for the self-relative actualisation of a who, a 
 where, a when, a history and so forth. In short-hand: a sensible context.


I understand exactly what you simply meant, but I am challenging you to see 
that it is too simple. My attack on CTM begins miles beneath the facile 
assumptions of modal logic and enumerated data fields. I'm talking about 
screaming, crying, stinking reality here, not a hypothesis of pretty 
puzzles. Fuck the puzzles. I'm not playing with words, I'm saying simply 
that it is impossible for sense to be superseded in any way. Every context 
is a context of sense and nothing else.


  

 One might say that it is encountered wherever what is obscuring it has 
 been sufficiently clarified. It originates perpetually at the centre of a 
 circle whose limits are not discoverable. One shouldn't therefore think of 
 sense as what is copied in the protocol; rather what is copiable is only 
 that which is capable of differentiating one sensible context from another. 


 What else could be capable of differentiating one sensible context from 
 another besides sense? You are saying that sense is not copied, only 
 sense-making is copied. I am saying that nothing is copied except for the 
 ratios of distance between experiences.


 I am only saying, or trying to say, what follows from the assumptions and 
 explicit rules of derivation of a particular theory.


You must know by now though that I have no interest in that theory except 
to show that it is inside out.
 

 I can do no other and no more. 


Why? Can't you set aside CTM for a while to contemplate other possibilities?
 

 Under CTM, what might look like arithmetic, computation and logic from the 
 bird perspective transforms, in terms of those very rules of derivation, 
 into an inter-subjective Multiverse in the frog perspective. In so doing it 
 relies implicitly, as I have suggested, on a notion of consciousness as a 
 transcendent observational invariant.


Why wouldn't arithmetic and computation look like 

Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sunday, February 23, 2014, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 1. Do you agree you are actually a particular age right now today as you
 read this?


 Not Jesse, but yes.

2. Do you agree that I am actually a particular age right now today as I
 write this, whether or not you know what that is?


Yes.


 3. Do you agree that we can both agree on those two ages?


Yes.


 4. Do you agree that if we were at the same location we would be in the
 same present moment?


If we were at the same space and time location, yes.


 5. Since you believe you are actually alive in every moment of your life,
 including every past and future moment, why is this particular moment the
 one you experience yourself in right now?


That's sort of trivial if you look at it the right way. They are all
different versions of me, and I'm the version of me who is writing this at
the moment. Each other version of me would say something similar, that they
are the version in their own here and now, and not any of the other
versions.


 6. Since you no doubt will claim that every one of your moment selves
 experiences itself in its present moment, then how do you explain your
 experience of time flowing from those past moments to the present one? And
 how do you explain that you have no experience of any of your future moment
 selves? If the past and present moments are equivalent, why are they not
 symmetrical in this respect?


Block time is compatible with an arrow of time. As a model, consider a
computer simulation running on two separate computers, A and B. A is
simulating Monday and B is simulating Tuesday. The people simulated on B
remember being the people simulated on A, but not vice versa, even though A
and B are running simultaneously.


 Again I know this conversation won't go anywhere. It's like trying to make
 a logical argument to a cult member.

 And yes, our disagreement is p-time versus block time, because all your
 arguments are basically based on your conviction there is no such thing as
 an actual now, an actual present moment in which you exist and are actually
 a particular age.


There's no special present moment. As an analogy, I feel that I am me, but
there are many other people in the world who feel that they are themselves.
I'm no more special than they are, and their sense of being themselves does
not detract from my sense of being myself.


 If you could just accept that all my many arguments and examples would
 follow logically.

 Last question: Why do you act every minute of every day as if you live in
 a present moment through which clock time flows if it actually doesn't? How
 can your mind be so completely deluded in this respect? Why does everyone
 in the world except a few members of the block universe cult believe this
 and act on it successfully every minute of their lives? Why is everyone in
 the world so deluded except for the block universe cult?


Since proponents of the block universe claim that it creates the effect of
time flowing, this is not an argument against it.

 One more question: Do you agree that if you lived in a block universe that
 you would be completely deterministic with no free will at all, and that
 you would be effectively a pre-programmed zombie?


If the block universe were deterministic, yes. But it need not be
deterministic (from the first person perspective) if it is a branching
multiverse. (And if it is deterministic that doesn't mean there is no free
will, and if there is no free will that doesn't mean we are zombies.)


 One more: If you flash freeze a brain with the exact state of its neural
 circuitry intact would that brain be alive or dead? Would it know what its
 state was?

 Of course not, knowledge, like everything in the universe depends on
 change, on process, on the actual flow of time. A block universe is a
 universe of death, a universe populated entirely by deterministic zombies..


But if the block universe creates the effect of flowing time, as it must if
the idea is not to be summarily dismissed, this isn't an issue.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread LizR

 Last question: Why do you act every minute of every day as if you live in
 a present moment through which clock time flows if it actually doesn't? How
 can your mind be so completely deluded in this respect? Why does everyone
 in the world except a few members of the block universe cult believe this
 and act on it successfully every minute of their lives? Why is everyone in
 the world so deluded except for the block universe cult?


This sounds like someone writing about the Copernican cult about 500
years ago. Why does everyone except for a few members of the Copernican
cult believe that the Earth stays put, and the Sun orbits around it? How
come they act successfully on this basis every minute of their lives? Why
are these cult members so deluded? Etc.

Edgar is following in the long tradition of internet trolls - when you
don't have a sensible argument, resort to ridicule.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
On 23 February 2014 16:37, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:


 But if the block universe creates the effect of flowing time, as it must
 if the idea is not to be summarily dismissed, this isn't an issue.


Would you like to take a small bet? I wager that Edgar will completely
ignore your eminently sensible comments and carry on repeating his
misconceptions for as long as anyone is prepared to pay attention to him.
If Einstein, Minkowski, Newton and so on have failed to convince him, what
chance do you have?

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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread meekerdb

On 2/22/2014 5:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:
No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of consciousness is directly 
entailed by CTM. In fact it is equivalent to the continuing existence of the sensible 
world (i.e. per comp, the world is what is observed). Hence any observer can expect to 
remain centred in the circle of observation, come what may, to speak rather loosely. 
There is a transcendent expectation of a definite continuation (aka no cul-de-sac). This 
expectation is relativised only secondarily in terms of the specifics of some particular 
continuation.


So does your consciousness continue indefinitely into the past?

Brent

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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread LizR
On 23 February 2014 17:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/22/2014 5:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of
 consciousness is directly entailed by CTM. In fact it is equivalent to the
 continuing existence of the sensible world (i.e. per comp, the world is
 what is observed). Hence any observer can expect to remain centred in the
 circle of observation, come what may, to speak rather loosely. There is a
 transcendent expectation of a definite continuation (aka no cul-de-sac).
 This expectation is relativised only secondarily in terms of the specifics
 of some particular continuation.


 So does your consciousness continue indefinitely into the past?

 This would imply there is no initial state of mind - assumed digital, I
assume? - or that every possible mental state has a precursor. Does
computational theory assume this, or can a mind start from a blank state?

Or given that consciousness is not the contents of consciousness, does this
just imply amensia about previous lives? (And maybe that I am he as you
are he as he is me, etc).

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-22 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sunday, February 23, 2014, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 2:05:47 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
 wrote:



 On Saturday, February 22, 2014 12:29:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 20 February 2014 09:24, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

  You're assuming that precise molecular assembly will necessarily
 yield a
  coherent dynamic process, but that may not be the case at all. If
 you put
  random people in the proper places in a baseball diamond, and give
 the one
  in the middle a baseball, they don't necessarily play a baseball
 game.
 
 
  If you're right then there would be something missing, something
  mysterious, and there would be evidence for it much simpler
 experiments than
  complete assembly of a human body. For example, you might be able to
  substitute some chemical on a cell for an equivalent chemical and
 observe
  the cell stop functioning even though everything seems to be
 biochemically
  in order. That would be direct evidence for your theory. It's
 scientifically
  testable.
 
 
  What's missing is the entire history of experiences which relate to
 whatever
  it is that you think you're copying.
 
  We don't exist on the levels of cells or molecules. If there were no
 human
  looking down at cells in a microscope, and we had only the
 microcosmic
  perspective to go from, there would be nothing that could be done to
 build a
  human experience. No configuration of proteins and ion channels is
 going to
  taste like strawberries to any of the molecules or cells. All of
 these
  structures relate only to a particular level of description. If you
 copy the
  sheet music of I Can't Get No Satisfaction you don't know if it is
 the
  Rolling Stones version or the Devo version, and neither could be
 predicted
  or generated purely from the notes.

 That's your theory, but the theory should have some straightforward
 observational consequences. For example, if some of the matter in a
 cell is replaced in a laboratory, then the cell would stop
 functioning. This would confound the scientists because according to
 current theories it ought to function normally provided all the matter
 is there in the right configuration.


 We don't see it at the sub-cellular level, we see it beginning at the
 biological level as tissue-rejection. The richer the experience, the longer
 the history, and the more important it is in defining itself exclusively.
 Biology is more proprietary than chemistry, zoology is more proprietary
 than biology, anthropology is more proprietary than zoology, etc. It's not
 that some material fragment of a cell should be irreplaceable, it's that
 living cells should be easily created from primordial soup. Your theory
 misses the whole other half of the universe which coheres from the top down.

 We can take out small words or skip letters of a sentence and still be
 understood, but we can't understand a sentence as a whole if we don't know
 what the bigger words in it mean.


 Tissue rejection is caused by well understood mechanisms whereby the body
 recognises foreign protein markers on the transplanted tissue. That's the
 only thing you have said above which is close to an observational
 consequence of your theory, and it doesn't support it.


 The body's recognition of foreign protein markers is a lower level
 manifestation of the mismatch of higher level zoological history. It is a
 sign that on this level of description, tissue is not naively exchangeable.
 The public side is a spatial story about bodies nested within bodies
 performing repeating functions. The private side is completely orthogonal.
 It is an phenomenal story about tension and release, identity, etc. The
 public side is a closed circuit, but it is closed by the narrowness of the
 private perspective. The universe fills in the appearance of closure and
 mechanism, just as our visual perception fills in repeating patterns.


The body's recognition of foreign tissue is well understood: the mechanism,
the reasons for it, and how to bypass it for the purpose of organ
transplant. Your theory doesn't add anything to that explanation. Find an
experimental result not consistent with mere biochemistry.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 7:45 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 1:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

   Did the Helsinki Man see Washington and Moscow? Yes.


  In the 3-1 view. Not in the 1-1 view.


 In who's 1-1 view? You'll probably say in The Helsinki Man's, but his
 view is just of Helsinki. Perhaps you mean the future 1 view of the
 Helsinki Man. If so then anybody who can remember having the past 1 view
 of the Helsinki Man would fit that description; so the Helsinki Man will
 see both Washington and Moscow.

  I said that we have to interview all copies.


 Good, then I never want to hear you say again that the Washington Man
 saying that he didn't see Moscow contradicts the claim that the Helsinki
 man will see both Washington AND Moscow.

   I too have discovered a new sort of indeterminacy that involves
 math and it is very very similar to the sort you discovered; I add 2 to the
 number 3 and I add 8 to the number 3. The number 3 can't predict if it will
 end up as a 5 or as a 11. I believe my discovery is just as profound as
 yours. Not very.



   So you accept that step 3 is a discovery?


  I think my discovery is virtually identical to yours and is just as
 profound. Not very.


  So that's it. You blow the candle of another because you are jealous he
 published it and exploit to get something


 What the hell!!? Did you really think I was serious? Did you really think
 I believed the above pap was a major discovery?!



Concerning FPI and step 3, yes its just a step but to me it is not
trivial, especially when UDA is followed through to its concluding
implications and problems in conjunction with steps 7 and 8.

A non-trivial fundamental point here for yours truly, is that determinism
in the mechanist setting of the protocol entails strong form of
first-person subjective indeterminacy. P(Washington) = P(Tokio) =1/2 is
just set out to fix the damn question to explore further implications of
comp, eventually including the search of such distributions of probability
bearing on observable physics given backdrop of a lot of redundant UD work.

The objective probability asserted here at step 3 seems fundamental;
applied to first person subjective outcomes in a deterministic UD setting
providing a foundation for examining self-reference observation constraints
of various types of reasoning machines arising from something as general as
arithmetic/possible logics, and comparing this with our observable physics,
appears as a valid, if overlooked move.

This might be trivial pap to you, but then I'd like to know clearly: why
would such a comparison be trivial or bogus? In other words: how do you
know? Things are obviously not all unexplainable magic, when arithmetic is
effectively applied, nor is everything computable.

For now, I see no reason to not keep trying to grasp at both ends and keep
comparing. If this is trivial to you then I'll grant you my low standards
and taste for pap. But then why further concern yourself with these
questions; being patronizing and insulting? Waste of time by your own
standards of pap it would seem. Go preach elsewhere whatever it is you want
to preach with such furious ambition, maybe? PGC


   John K Clark

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Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Feb 2014, at 19:45, John Clark wrote:



On Sat, Feb 22, 2014 at 1:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


  Did the Helsinki Man see Washington and Moscow? Yes.

 In the 3-1 view. Not in the 1-1 view.

In who's 1-1 view? You'll probably say in The Helsinki Man's,



No. The W-man and the M-man.



but his view is just of Helsinki. Perhaps you mean the future 1  
view of the Helsinki Man. If so then anybody who can remember  
having the past 1 view of the Helsinki Man would fit that  
description; so the Helsinki Man will see both Washington and Moscow.


In the 3-1 views. Not in the 1-1 views.





 I said that we have to interview all copies.

Good, then I never want to hear you say again that the Washington  
Man saying that he didn't see Moscow contradicts the claim that the  
Helsinki man will see both Washington AND Moscow.


In the 3-1 views. Not in the 1-1 view.

I think that with that way or arguing, you don't even convince  
yourself. You continue to play with words, and ignore the details of  
the question, based on the 1-3 distinction.


If the FPI does not exist, provide the algorithm of prediction. W   
M has been refuted. You miss this only by confusing the 3-1 view and  
the 1-view, systematically, in a boring repetition.


Bruno





 I too have discovered a new sort of indeterminacy that involves  
math and it is very very similar to the sort you discovered; I add 2  
to the number 3 and I add 8 to the number 3. The number 3 can't  
predict if it will end up as a 5 or as a 11. I believe my discovery  
is just as profound as yours. Not very.


 So you accept that step 3 is a discovery?

 I think my discovery is virtually identical to yours and is  
just as profound. Not very.


 So that's it. You blow the candle of another because you are  
jealous he published it and exploit to get something


What the hell!!? Did you really think I was serious? Did you really  
think I believed the above pap was a major discovery?!


  John K Clark


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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Feb 2014, at 01:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/22/2014 3:20 PM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
What if Einstein's reference frames ( does anyone else get the  
credit for this term?) function because reality is what I call  
Virtuality? Its the old simulation argument, served up by myself,  
today. Someone who has worked arduously on this concept over the  
last, few, years, is mathematician, Brian Whitworth in New Zealand,  
and if anyone has the time, interest, and patience, to learn about  
his own theory of Virtual Reality (again, Virtuality) I will  
present it here. I  believe it dovetails with the Block  
universe view of how spacetime works and is best measured. But it  
does take both special, and general, relativity as well as the  
quantum, in a very, different, direction. Here is his latest paper,  
dated, Jan 24, 2014. His earlier papers can be downloaded on ARXIV,  
of course, as well as his discussions on the FQXI.


Sincerely,

Mitch

http://brianwhitworth.com/BW-VRT1.pdf


Well right off I see he got the quotation wrong.  It's J.B.S.  
Haldane's, It is my supposition that the universe is not only  
queerer than we imagine, it is queerer than we can imagine.


He complains for two pages that modern physics can't be right  
because it's not comprehensible.  But he never explains what  
comprehensible means or why it disqualifies theories.  I think  
what it really means is like good old Newtonian mechanics.  But  
when explicated it no longer sounds like such a good criterion. He  
writes What quantum theory describes is in every way physically  
impossible - but only under naive Aristotelian and Newtonian physics.


He claims the virtualism is consistent with physics - but which  
physics?  The physics he objects is impossible and  
incomprehensible?  As a matter of fact yes.  That's the physics he  
cites in describing what virtualism Has or Allows.  Notice he  
doesn't use predicts; and that's because virtualism is like  
theism, it has and allows anything at all.


After eight pages of logical non-sequiturs, I lost patience.


Me too. He is quite naive on computation, and on the notion of  
reality. He got also some references wrong but that is traditional. He  
makes also the digital physics error, and of course he uses an  
identity mind/brain which makes no sense in a digital context, as I  
have often argued here.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Feb 2014, at 21:09, LizR wrote to Clark (with the above pap =  
the FPI of step 3):


The above pap is only a small step in an argument (and it only  
reproduces a result obtained in the MWI, anyway).



OK, but the MWI is a big thing, relying on another big thing: QM.

The FPI assumes only the comp theory of mind, and extracts, as PGC  
indicates, a strong form of indeterminacy in a purely deterministic  
framework. That makes QM confirming a simple, (even according to  
Clark) but startling and counter-intuitive consequence of  
computationalism.


That was new, and broke the common brain-mind identity thesis, and is  
basically still ignored by everyone, except on this list and my  
papers, 'course.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Feb 2014, at 06:21, LizR wrote:


On 23 February 2014 17:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 2/22/2014 5:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:
No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of  
consciousness is directly entailed by CTM. In fact it is equivalent  
to the continuing existence of the sensible world (i.e. per comp,  
the world is what is observed). Hence any observer can expect to  
remain centred in the circle of observation, come what may, to  
speak rather loosely. There is a transcendent expectation of a  
definite continuation (aka no cul-de-sac). This expectation is  
relativised only secondarily in terms of the specifics of some  
particular continuation.


So does your consciousness continue indefinitely into the past?

This would imply there is no initial state of mind - assumed  
digital, I assume? - or that every possible mental state has a  
precursor. Does computational theory assume this, or can a mind  
start from a blank state?


It might start from a state of consciousness which is beyond time. Let  
us say the blank state of the universal virgin (non programmed)  
machine.


The []p  t modality makes the world into a non-cul-de-sac world,  
but does not imply an infinite past, or previous computational  
history per se, although this is not entirely excluded for the physics  
in comp.






Or given that consciousness is not the contents of consciousness,  
does this just imply amensia about previous lives? (And maybe that  
I am he as you are he as he is me, etc).


In some sense, perhaps. That can be related somehow.

Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Turning the tables on the doctor

2014-02-22 Thread meekerdb

On 2/22/2014 9:21 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 February 2014 17:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 2/22/2014 5:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:

No, I don't think that follows. The indefinite continuation of 
consciousness is
directly entailed by CTM. In fact it is equivalent to the continuing 
existence of
the sensible world (i.e. per comp, the world is what is observed). Hence any
observer can expect to remain centred in the circle of observation, come 
what may,
to speak rather loosely. There is a transcendent expectation of a definite
continuation (aka no cul-de-sac). This expectation is relativised only 
secondarily
in terms of the specifics of some particular continuation.


So does your consciousness continue indefinitely into the past?

This would imply there is no initial state of mind - assumed digital, I assume? - or 
that every possible mental state has a precursor. Does computational theory assume this, 
or can a mind start from a blank state?


Even if it doesn't, it would seem a remarkable coincidence that everyone seems to be on 
their first consciousness.




Or given that consciousness is not the contents of consciousness,


I see no reason to assume that.

does this just imply amensia about previous lives? (And maybe that I am he as you are 
he as he is me, etc).


Or does it imply that consciousness and memory are intrinsic to certain 
physical processes.

Brent

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