I think it's more an issue of the supremacy clause (Art. 6 clause 2), I
would also argue that even if your opinion was upheld that Art. 4 Section 2
(The Citizens of each State shall be entitled to all Privileges and
Immunities of Citizens in the several States.) would apply, and therefore
the state that had the least amount of law would basically be the
nationwide standard.

Then again, I'm not a lawyer either :)




On Sat, Nov 17, 2012 at 2:25 AM, Gruss Gott <grussg...@gmail.com> wrote:

>
> LRS Scout <lrssc...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >
> > Again, thankfully the courts don't agree with you.
> >
>
> True but theirs is a political opinion not a legal one.
>
> Said another way, the 2nd - when written in the 1780s - was not meant
> to apply to the states ... and couldn't until the 1920s when the due
> process clause from 14th (c 1860s) was used to drive the bill of
> rights into the states ... and that's a pretty fuzzy extension.
>
> So basically the 2nd only applies to the states if you buy a fuzzy
> 1920s extension to a 1860s amendment that was never intended for that
> extension, that modifies a 1790s amendment.
>
> For all of the logic of that you might as well just burn the
> Constitution and admit it's all politics.
>
> But you are correct - the politicians have corrupted the court system
> and Constitution to give you what you want (which you would've had
> anyway, without the 14th or the corrupt DP interpretation, given you
> found a state that allowed them).
>
> Call me Old School but I think the 14th DPC interpretation is crap.
> But I'm also not an attorney.  whew!
>
> 

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