At 3/25/2008 12:20 AM, David W. Fenton wrote:

>On 23 Mar 2008 at 21:55, Owain Sutton wrote:
>
>> (Why notate anything as 2/2, if it's likely to be heard as 2/4?)
>
>This kind of comment makes me crazy.
>
>You notate it as 2/2 because MUSICIANS PLAY IT DIFFERENTLY THAN THEY PLAY 2/4.

Why?  Or should I say how?

That comment makes absolutely no sense to me.

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