On 27 Mar 2008 at 5:54, dhbailey wrote:

> David W. Fenton wrote:
> > On 26 Mar 2008 at 6:39, dhbailey wrote:
> > 
> >> David W. Fenton wrote:
> >>> On 23 Mar 2008 at 21:55, Owain Sutton wrote:
> >>>
> >>>> (Why
> >>>> notate anything as 2/2, if it's likely to be heard as 2/4?)
> >>> This kind of comment makes me crazy.
> >>>
> >>> You notate it as 2/2 because MUSICIANS PLAY IT DIFFERENTLY THAN THE 
> >>> PLAY 2/4.
> >>>
> >>> Certain styles of music make more sense in 2/2 than they would in 4/4 
> >>> or 2/4.
> >> You can really hear a difference in music performed in 2/4 rather than 
> >> 2/2? 
> > 
> > You know perfectly well that's not what I said!
> > 
> [snip]
> 
> But if it's performed differently as you claim, being a sound-based art 
> form, won't there be a difference in the sound?

Well, sure, but not necessarily a sufficient difference for the 
listener to determine which meter is used in the notation.

> By claiming that the musicians will perform music differently [your 
> word] if written in 2/2 from music written in 2/4, then there must be a 
> difference in the sound.  And if there's a difference in the sound, you 
> must be able to hear it.  If you can't hear a difference in the sound, 
> is there really a difference in the way the music is played?

Red herring, again.

> I agree that there is a different psychological aspect to various 
> movements in a multi-movement work, where one duple meter may be 2/4 and 
> another be 2/2, but I still maintain that given the same piece of music 
> with the same metronome indication for the unit of beat, there won't be 
> a difference among competent musicians between two versions of the same 
> piece, one in 2/2 and one in 2/4.
> 
> So we have to agree to disagree.  :-)

Indeed, we do. And I disagree quite vigorously. In fact, I'd say that 
the more competent the musicians, the greater the difference!

-- 
David W. Fenton                    http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates       http://dfenton.com/DFA/


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