On 26 Mar 2008 at 7:46, Phil Daley wrote:

> At 3/25/2008 12:20 AM, David W. Fenton wrote:
> 
>  >On 23 Mar 2008 at 21:55, Owain Sutton wrote:
>  >
>  >> (Why notate anything as 2/2, if it's likely to be heard as 2/4?)
>  >
>  >This kind of comment makes me crazy.
>  >
>  >You notate it as 2/2 because MUSICIANS PLAY IT DIFFERENTLY THAN THEY PLAY 
> 2/4.
> 
> Why?  Or should I say how?
> 
> That comment makes absolutely no sense to me.

Haven't you worked with music that is in the "wrong" meter? And run 
onto the problems it causes in getting it performed properly?

I see this all the time in the music I play, where modern editions 
often halve (and quarter) the original note values. It's harder to 
play for anyone who is comfortable in the style.

Christopher gave the example from jazz (sorry I earlier said it was 
Darcy), and it's completely consistent with everything I know about 
the subject.

Mozart began a draft of a movement of one of his string quartets in 
cut time. He then scratched it out and started over in 2/4. While the 
music had the same thematic material, it ended up with a different 
bass line, and a completely different musical texture than what was 
implied in the original.

-- 
David W. Fenton                    http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates       http://dfenton.com/DFA/


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