On Tue, 21 Sep 1999, Jan Nieuwenhuizen wrote:
> On Monday, 20 September 1999, "Shamus" writes:
>
> > Is there some reason why you would
> > want to assume that the bass note is chordal?
>
> You say yourself the 'bass note' (whatever this is: is c the bass note
> in <c e g>, and is there a situation where it is /not/ part of the chord?)
> may be part of the chord. So, not knowing about this bass note thing, I
> simply assumed all pitches would be 'part of the chord'. Seems like
> good reason :-)
Well, you often have things like C/G which means play a C-major chord and
a G as the bass note. In this case the bass note is part of the chord, but
it doesn't have to: F/D. You could, of course, write F6/D, but nobody
does.
harti
--
harti brandt, http://www.fokus.gmd.de/research/cc/cats/employees/hartmut.brandt/private
[EMAIL PROTECTED], [EMAIL PROTECTED]
