Gary, List:

Needless to say, I strongly agree. I would like to revisit what John Sowa
quoted from Peirce in an attempt to support his claim that "'mark' is the
best word for both the might-be and the actual" (
https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-04/msg00095.html).

CSP: Any visible form which, if it were scribed on the phemic sheet would
be an assertion is called a *graph*. If it actually be so scribed, it would
be incorrect to say that the graph *itself* is put upon the sheet. For that
would be an impossibility, since the *graph* itself [is] a mere form, an
abstraction, a "general," or as I call it a "might-be", i.e. something
which might be if conditions were otherwise than they are; and in that
respect it [is] just like a "*word*,"--*any* word, say *camel*. (R
L376:14-15, 1911 Dec 8)


John also proposed the following generalization.

JFS: Any [observable] form which, if it [were to be observed anywhere]
would be [a mark] is called [a mark]. If it actually be so [observed], it
would be incorrect to say that the [mark] itself is [observed]. For that
would be an impossibility, since the [mark] itself [is] a mere form, an
abstraction, a "general", or as I call it a "might be", i.e. something
which might be if conditions were otherwise than they are; and in that
respect it [is] just like a "word", any word, say camel.


However, this *contradicts* John's claim instead of corroborating it, by
explicitly stating that we *cannot* say that what is being observed is the
[mark] itself--we need a *different* word for the embodiment of the [mark],
such as "graph-instance" in lieu of "graph." Alternatively, if "mark" is
the right word for the embodiment, then we need a *different* word for the
form itself.

Moreover, as I have already explained at length (
https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2024-04/msg00096.html), Peirce
explicitly refers to the kind of sign that he is describing as "a
'general,'" thus corresponding to 3ns not 1ns; and his two examples are an
existential graph and the word "camel," both of which he unambiguously
classifies as *types* in other writings, thus necessitants not possibles.
Accordingly, I suggest the following generalization instead.

JAS: Any [observable] form which, if it were [embodied anywhere] would be
[a token] is called a [*type*]. If it actually be so [embodied], it would
be incorrect to say that the [type] *itself* is [embodied]. For that would
be an impossibility, since the [*type*] itself [is] a mere form, an
abstraction, a "general," or as I call it a "[would]-be", i.e. something
which [would] be if conditions were otherwise than they are; and in that
respect it [is] just like a "*word*,"--*any* word, say *camel*.


After all, Peirce *defines* a necessitant "type" as "a definitely
significant Form" and provides *different* words for its existent
embodiments, namely, "tokens" that are "instances" of the type (CP 4.537,
1906). Hence, the quoted passage in R L376 turns out to have no relevance
whatsoever to what we call the *possible* member of this
trichotomy--"tone," "mark," or some other name.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt

On Wed, Apr 17, 2024 at 5:50 PM Gary Richmond <gary.richm...@gmail.com>
wrote:

> John, Jon, Helmut, List,
>
> JFS:
> 1. A hump is a mark of a camel.
> 2. A trunk is a mark of an elephant.
>
> Those two sentences are normal sentences that any English speaker would
> understand, whether or not they had read anything by Peirce.  Now consider
> the following two sentences:
>
> 1. A hump is a tone of a camel.
> 2. A trunk is a tone of an elephant.
>
>
> Compare this to:
>
> GR:
> 1. She preferred the tone of her flute to that of the first flautist in
> the orchestra.
> 2. Her tone of voice changed dramatically when she was angry.
>
> "Those two sentences are normal sentences that any English speaker would
> understand, whether or not they had read anything by Peirce.  Now consider
> the following two sentences:"
>
> 1. She preferred the mark of her flute to that of the first flautist in
> the orchestra.
> 2. Her mark of voice changed dramatically when she was angry.
>
> Again, quoting snippets of Helmut and Jon:  ". . . a mark is an actual
> material sign. . " while "a possible sign. . . is never *itself  *"an
> actual material sign."
>
> To which I added: "Even when 'mark' is used *figuratively* ("mark my
> words" "he made his mark in the art world" "it's a mark of collegiality to
> 'x' ") physical material is brought to mind."
>
> That is the case for both of John's examples: 1. A hump is a mark of a
> camel and 2. A trunk is a mark of an elephant. These are both examples of
> synecdoche, a figure of speech whereas a part represents the whole which is
> the case in both these cases: the whole camel and the whole elephant.
>
> JFS wrote: "I'm glad that he used the example of 'camel' because it
> emphasizes the profound difference between the word 'mark' and the word
> 'tone' as they may be used for the first term in the trichotomy ( ____
> token type)."
>
> There is no "profound difference between the word 'mark' and the word
> 'tone' here" and your claiming -- rather *insisting* -- that there *is*
> only weakens your argument for the use of 'mark' in the trichotomy being
> discussed.
>
> Indeed your consistent insistence that you are right -- no discussion
> needed, your seemingly claiming to be the final arbiter in all Peircean
> terminological matters  -- itself "has no redeeming social or academic
> value whatsoever."   And certainly it is not a collegial stance to take on
> Peirce-L. "Get rid of it."
>
> Best,
>
> Gary
>
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