Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
It's self-evident that everyone has a present moment, which they will all
agree is now. It's also self-evident that they have a current position,
which everyone will tell you is here.

Hence everyone is at the same time, and in the same place.

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 29 December 2013 16:23, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Brent,

 No, reality just makes a random choice, that's the computation made. But
 the difference between reality math and human QM math is that reality
 actually makes an actual choice, whereas human QM math just gives us the
 probabilities of choices.

 Big difference. Reality does the computation, human math doesn't.

 How is making a random choice the same as doing a computation?

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
Oops apologies to Jason - great minds etc!

I should have read to the end of the thread before I posted... but the
question stands, regardless.


On 29 December 2013 23:34, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:




 On 29 December 2013 16:23, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Brent,

 No, reality just makes a random choice, that's the computation made. But
 the difference between reality math and human QM math is that reality
 actually makes an actual choice, whereas human QM math just gives us the
 probabilities of choices.

 Big difference. Reality does the computation, human math doesn't.

 How is making a random choice the same as doing a computation?


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Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 29 December 2013 13:11, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jason and John,

 If something is random it can't be computed by any deterministic process.
 That's the meaning.

 I thought the digits of pi were random, but computable by a deterministic
process?

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Re: humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are machines,

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 15:40, Craig Weinberg wrote:

humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are  
machines,


Who wrote this?

*any* ideally correct machines is unable to recognize the fact that  
they are machines.


Bruno




I would re-word it as 'Humans are not machines but when they  
introspect on their most mechanical aspects mechanistically, they  
are able to imagine that they could be machines who are unable  
recognize the fact.


I agree that there is an intrinsic limit to Strong AI, but I think  
that the limit is at the starting gate. Since consciousness is the  
embodiment of uniqueness and unrepeatability, there is no almost  
conscious. It doesn't matter how much the artist in the painting  
looks like he is really painting himself in the mirror, or how  
realistic Escher makes the staircase look, those realities are  
forever sculpted in theory, not in the multisense realism.


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Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 16:24, Jason Resch wrote:




On Dec 28, 2013, at 7:04 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net  
wrote:



Jason,

Have you gotten to Part III of my book on Reality yet? It explains  
how all randomness is quantum, and it explains the source of that  
randomness is the lack of any governing deterministic equations  
when the mini-spacetimes that emerge from quantum events have be  
aligned due to linking at common events.




I have not, but my point is there is already a form of randomness we  
know of that does not need quarum mechanics, indeed quantum  
randomness itself may only be a special case of this new type of  
randomness (discovered by Bruno).



Well, thanks. Sometimes I credit Everett, but Everett still assumes  
physicalism and QM, and doesn't see that if comp is used (as it is  
used by him), then the comp phenomenology has to justify the wave  
itself. He has not seen that classical arithmetic implements already  
the 1-indeterminacy, without any use of QM. This I think is new  
indeed. It leads to a MW interpretation, made by the numbers, of  
arithmetic itself. The 1-indeterminacy is a classical cognitive  
phenomenon, but in Everett it is still only a quantum one.
I discovered the 1-indeterminacy by looking at amoebas, and studying  
molecular biology, well before QM. QM will make me doubt of mechanism  
until I discovered Everett. Like many, I do have been brainwashed with  
the collapse.
I certainly agree that Everett subjective indeterminacy is a  
particular (quantum) form of the comp first person indeterminacy. Not  
all Everettian agree with this, note, but most do. Formally it is not  
the same, as a classical self-duplication is not, a priori, a quantum  
superposition. They might become one when in front of the UD, but that  
is what needs more verification and tests.


Bruno






Jason

Separate spaces are dimensionally independent. When they merge via  
common dimensional events there can be no deterministic alignment  
thus randomness arises.


Edgar

On Saturday, December 28, 2013 2:08:32 AM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:40 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:
Replying to Liz and Jason in a new topic as they raised the  
important topic of the source of randomness that deserves a  
separate topic.


As I explain in my book on Reality, all randomness is quantum.  
There simply is no true classical level randomness.


Have you gotten to step 3 in the UDA yet?  It explains how true  
randomness can emerge without assuming QM.


Jason

There is plenty of non-computability which is often mistaken for  
randomness but all true randomness at the classical level  
percolates up from the quantum level.


At the fundamental computational level all computations are exact.  
However the way space can emerge and be dimensionalized from these  
computations is random which is the source of all randomness. This  
quantum level randomness can either be damped out or amplified up  
to the Classical level depending on the information structures  
involved.


To use Liz's example of how do computers generate random numbers,  
they don't in themselves. As Jason points out they draw on sources  
of (quantum) randomness from the environment, but the code the  
computer itself uses contains no randomness as the whole point of  
digital devices is to completely submerge any source of randomness  
because that would pollute the code and/or data.


Of course eventually everything, including computers, is subject to  
randomness and fails


Edgar




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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 16:51, Jason Resch wrote:




On Dec 28, 2013, at 6:09 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



On 28 Dec 2013, at 04:56, Jason Resch wrote:





On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:42 PM, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
 wrote:

Hi Jason,

Any program, and whether or not it ever terminates can be  
translated to a statement concerning numbers in arithmetic. Thus  
mathematical truth captures the facts concerning whether or not  
any program executes forever, and what all of its intermediate  
states are. 


this also captures every instance of random numbers as well.

It is not clear to me what random means in arithmetical truth.

Randomness can appear from the perspectives of observers, but I  
don't see how it can arise in arithmetic.


?

It appears in all numbers written in any base. Most numbers are  
already random (even incompressible).

I guess you know that.


I agree most numbers are incompressible, but I was using random in a  
different sense than the unpredictability of the next digits of the  
number given previous ones.


OK. But in the iterated self-duplication, both form of indeterminacy  
can be mixed.






In the phi_i(j) in the UD, randomness can appear in the many j used  
as input, as we usually dovetail on the function of one variable.  
(but such input can easily be internalized in 0-variable programs).


For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want  
generate only that numbers.


Right, all the random numbers are there, the question is how to  
throw the dart so that it lands on one.


Of course. And here the 1-indetermlinacy provides one answer.





but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers, 0, 1,  
2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite  
incompressible strings, and even all the infinite one (for the 1p  
view, notably).


I think we are using the term in a slightly different sense.   
Certainly any number in the range 1 - N can be considered as a  
random number in that range (as it is a candidate to be output by  
some RNG), but the problem is selecting it in a random (in the sense  
of not-predictable) way.


Yes. here I just point on the fact that random number (with random  
digits) exists.






There was a joke cartoon of some computer code:

int getRandomNumber()
{
  return 4; // this number was determined by a random die roll
}



Lol
Close to my favorite infinite binary random sequence:
...

The term random is very large.





While a number can be interpreted as random once, it might not be  
the second time.


While selecting and using all possibilities is arguably a way to  
achieve randomness (unpredictibilty), (from some points of view) it  
is often not practical nor useful.  Consider encrypting a message  
with all possible keys and sending the recipient all possible  
messages.


Not only might you need to send 2^256 possible ciphertexts but any  
eavesdropper could use the first possible key to decrypt it. This  
achieves randomness from the POV of the cipher, but not for the user  
or the attackers.


In quantum cryptography this is essentially what is done, but it  
requires that the sender and reciever (and attackers) be duplicated  
for each possible key. So they need to be embedded in that larger  
program that provides all possible inputs for it to seem random.  
This is just FPI though, is it not?


Yes.

Bruno





Jason



In that (trivial) sense, arithmetic contains a lot of 3p  
randomness, even perhaps too much. Then 1p randomeness appears too,  
by the 1p indeterminacy (and that one is in the eyes of the machine).


Chaitin's results can also explain why we cannot filter out that 3p  
randomness from arithmetic.


Bruno




What method is deployed to ensure that a program is not just a  
regular random number and not some random number prefixed on a  
real halting program?


It don't see how it makes a difference.


Truth is not a measure zero set, or is it?

I don't understand this question..  Could you clarify?

Jason




On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:09 PM, Jason Resch  
jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:




On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 9:31 PM, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
 wrote:

Hi Jason,

  Could you discuss the trace of the UD that LizR mentioned? How  
is it computed? Could you write an explicit example? I have never  
been able to grok it.



Bruno has written an actual UD in the LISP programming language.   
I will write a simple one in pseudo-code below:


List listOfPrograms = new List[]; # Empty list
int i = 0;
while (true)
{
   # Create a program corresponding to the binary expansion of the  
integer i

   Program P = createProgramFromInteger(i);

   # Add the program to a list of programs we have generated so far
   listOfPrograms.add(P);

   # For each program we have generated that has not halted,  
execute one instruction of 

Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:07, Stephen Paul King wrote:

I agree with what you wrote to Richard. If we then consider  
interactions between multiple separate QM systems, there will be a  
low level where the many are only one and thus the superposition of  
state remains. It can be shown that at the separation level there  
will also be one but it will not be in superposition, it will be  
what decoherence describes. But this high level version is subject  
to GR adjustments and so will not be nice and well behaved.


OK, but I do not assume any physical theory in the derivation that  
physics is a branch of arithmetic.
What you say can make sense in the study of the question that QM/GR,  
or whatever empirically inferred, confirms or refutes comp.


Bruno




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 4:25 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 27 Dec 2013, at 19:52, Richard Ruquist wrote:

I do not know if it matters but quantum mechanics is based on the  
Dirac equation, not Shrodinger's equation



This indeed change nothing. I agree with Jason. QM without collapse  
is many-world.
If there is no collapse, QM (classical or relativistic) entails that  
if I decide if I go to the North or to the South for Holiday and  
base my choice on he usual spin superposition of some electron, I  
(3-1 view) end up being superposed in both South and North, and the  
unicity of my experience can be considered as equivalent with the  
computationalist first person indeterminacy. With comp used here,  
the physical universe is not duplicated, as it simply does not exist  
in any primitive way, so it can be seen as a differentiation of the  
consciousness flux in arithmetic.
With EPR, or better Bell's theorem indeed, it is very hard to keep a  
local physical reality unique in QM. The collapse does not make  
any sense. But there is no need to be realist on many world, as  
there is no world at all, only computations already defined in a  
tiny part of the arithmetical reality. That tiny part of arithmetic  
is quite small compared to the whole arithmetical truth, but still  
something very big compared to a unique local physical cosmos.


Bruno






On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 1:14 PM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com  
wrote:




On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 12:18 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net  
wrote:

Jason,

Neither of the first 2 points you make here seem correct to me but  
you don't express them clearly enough for me to know why you are  
saying what you are saying.


As to the first point, the present moment is self-evident direct  
experience


Do you think the present moment is the only point in time to exist,  
to the exclusion of all others?  If so, please explain how this is  
self-evident.


whereas wave function collapse is an outlandish interpretation of  
quantum equations which has no basis at all in direct experience,


I agree with this.  But then why isn't it also outlandish to  
presume past moment's in time must cease to exist, just because we  
are not in them? It seems to be a needless addition to the theory  
(just like wave function collapse), to keep our concept of what is  
real, limited to that which we are aware of from our particular  
vantage point.


To be clear, the collapse theories say that even though the  
equations of quantum mechanics predict multiple outcomes for  
measurements, they suppose that those other possibilities simply  
disappear, because we (from our vantage point in one branch) did  
not experience those other vantage points in other branches. Hence  
they presume only one is reified, to the exclusion of all others.  
This us-centered thinking is how I see presentism. It says that  
only one point in time is reified, to the exclusion of all others.


or in quantum theory = the actual equations.

If you believe quantum theory is based entirely on the actual  
equations (e.g. the Schrodinger equation), this leads naturally to  
many-worlds. It is only by added additional postulates (such as  
collapse) that you can hope to restrict quantum mechanics to a  
single world. All attempts at this which I have seen seem ad hoc  
and completely unnecessary.


Anyway the theory of decoherence put wave function collapse to rest  
long ago



You need to clarify here. Decoherence is used by some to say when  
collapse happens (without needing observers). Hence, collapse is  
still treated as a real phenomenon (just one not triggered by  
observation). Others, use decoherence in the context of many-worlds  
to justify the appearance of collapse, while maintaining that the  
wave function  never collapses.


If you are saying collapse doesn't happen or is not real, then that  
is de facto many-worlds.



but the self-evident experience

As I said a few posts ago, you cannot use your experience to rule  
out that more than one present exists, and therefore you cannot use  
your experience to rule out that all points in time exist.


of the present moment cannot be falsified by any theory.


Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:16, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 4:54 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 27 Dec 2013, at 17:51, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:11 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 25 Dec 2013, at 18:40, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

Are we not presuming, structure, or a-priori, existence of  
something, doing this processing, this work?



In the UDA we assume a Turing universal, or sigma_1-complete  
physical reality, in some local sense.



Could this Turing universal/sigma_1-complete in a local sense be  
the exact criteria required to define the observations 3- 
experiences of individuals or is it the 1-experiences of  
individuals (observers) in keeping with the definition of an  
observer as the intersection of infinitely many computations?


I think the UDA answers this question. You need Turing universality,  
but also the FPI, which in some sense comes from mechanism, but not  
necessarily universality, which has, here, only an indirect  
relevance in the definition of what is a computation in arithmetic.


I suspect that the FPI results from the underlap or failure to  
reach exact overlap between observers. As if a small part of the  
computations that are observers is not universal. This would  
effectively induce FPI as any one observer would be forever unable  
to exactly match its experience of being in the world with that of  
another.


,














We need this to just explain what is a computer, alias, universal  
machine, alias universal number (implemented or not in a physical  
reality).
Note that we do not assume a *primitive physical reality*. In comp,  
we are a priori agnostic on this. The UDA, still will explains that  
such primitiveness cannot solve the mind-body problem when made  
into a dogma/assumption-of-primitiveness.


It has always seemed to me that UDA cannot solve the mind-body  
problem strictly because it cannot comprehend the existence of  
other minds.


UDA formulates the problem, and show how big the mind-body problem  
is, even before tackling the other minds problem. But something is  
said. In fact it is easy to derive from the UDA the following  
assertions:


comp + explicit non-solipsism entails sharable many words or a core  
linear physical reality.


I do not comprehend this. It is easy for us to see that solipsism  
is false,


?




but how can a computation see anything? I do not understand how it  
is that you can claim that computations will not be solipsistic by  
default.


The 1p is solipsist, but not in a public way, just in the trivial way  
that nobody can see that solipsism is false, as the dream argument  
justifies. Solipsism is irrefutable, and hopefully false.


Now, if you remember the definition of first person plural (which is  
just when different people enter the same annihilation-reconstitution  
box), if we add non solipsism, it means that when machine interact,  
they share the computations. So, the only way to avoid solipsism in  
comp, is that the measure is sharable by interacting machine, and so  
they have to live in a quantum-lile many worlds.










But comp in fact has to justify the non-solipsism, and this is begun  
through the nuance Bp  p versus Bp  Dt. Normally the linearity  
should allow the first person plural in the  Dt nuance case.


Exactly! I am looking forward to the explanation of this  nuance Bp  
 p versus Bp  Dt. :-


Keep in mind that UDA does not solve the problem, but formulate it.  
AUDA go more deep in a solution, and the shape of that solution  
(like UDA actually) provides already information contradicting the  
Aristotelian theology (used by atheists and the main part of  
institutionalized abramanic religion).


Sure. My main worry is that your wonderful result obtains at too  
high a price: the inability to even model interactions and time.



If you show that, you extend the UDA in a full proof refutation of  
comp. Good luck!
I thought this would be easy, but the simplicity of this is  
counterbalanced by the self-referential constraints. On p-sigma_1, we  
get already three arithmetical (quantum) quantizations.


Keep in mind that I offer a problem, not a solution (although I offer  
a path toward it, and some shaping of the possible solutions, notably  
that they belong to (neo)platonism and refute Aristotle).


Bruno







Bruno






Then in AUDA, keeping comp at the meta-level, I eliminate all  
assumptions above very elementary arithmetic (Robinson Arithmetic).


The little and big bangs, including the taxes, and why it hurts is  
derived from basically just


Kxy = x
Sxyz = xz(yz)

or just

x + 0 = x
x + s(y) = s(x + y)

 x *0 = 0
 x*s(y) = x*y + x





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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:30, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:53 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 04:39, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Jason,

  ISTM that the line  For each program we have generated that has  
not halted, execute one instruction of it for each (Program p in  
listOfPrograms) is buggy.


It assumes that the space of programs that do not halt is  
accessible. How?


The space of all programs that do not halt is not Turing accessible.
The space of all programs that do halt is not Turing accessible.

The space of all programs (that do halt of do not halt) *is*  
accessible.


Could you elaborate on this claim. I wish to be sure that I  
understand it. Is it really a space?


It is a recursively enumerable set.





Would it have metrics and topological properties?


As a set, you can endow it with some structure, if you have the  
motivation.








All what happen is that we have no general systematic,  
computational, means to distinguish the programs that halt from the  
programs that does not halt (on their inputs), and that is why the  
universal dovetailer must *dovetail* on the executions of all  
programs.


Not having a general systematic, computational, means to  
distinguish.. has not stopped Nature.


Nor the FPI. Right.




She solves the problem by the evolution of physical worlds.


That's too quick, especially that we don't assume nature.



I propose that physical worlds ARE a form of non-universal  
computation.


Then brain and computers cannot exist in those physical world.





I still think that the UD lives only in Platonia and is timeless and  
static.


That's correct.




Only its projections (to use Plato's cave metaphor) are run as  
physical worlds


OK. The FPI projections. But they are not run, only selected. The  
computation are run, not the projection from inside.


Bruno



if they can survive the challenge of mutual consistency.



Bruno






On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:09 PM, Jason Resch  
jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:




On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 9:31 PM, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
 wrote:

Hi Jason,

  Could you discuss the trace of the UD that LizR mentioned? How  
is it computed? Could you write an explicit example? I have never  
been able to grok it.



Bruno has written an actual UD in the LISP programming language.  I  
will write a simple one in pseudo-code below:


List listOfPrograms = new List[]; # Empty list
int i = 0;
while (true)
{
   # Create a program corresponding to the binary expansion of the  
integer i

   Program P = createProgramFromInteger(i);

   # Add the program to a list of programs we have generated so far
   listOfPrograms.add(P);

   # For each program we have generated that has not halted,  
execute one instruction of it

   for each (Program p in listOfPrograms)
   {
 if (p.hasHalted() == false)
 {
executeOneInstruction(p);
 }
   }

   # Finally, increment i so a new program is generated the next  
time through

   i = i + 1;
}


Any program, and whether or not it ever terminates can be  
translated to a statement concerning numbers in arithmetic. Thus  
mathematical truth captures the facts concerning whether or not any  
program executes forever, and what all of its intermediate states  
are. If these statements are true independently of you and me, then  
the executions of these programs are embedded in arithmetical truth  
and have a platonic existence.  The first, second, 10th,  
1,000,000th, and 10^100th, and 10^100^100th state of the UD's  
execution are mathematical facts which have definite values, and  
all the conscious beings that are instantiated and evolve and write  
books on consciousness, and talk about the UD on their Internet,  
etc. as part of the execution of the UD are there, in the math.


Jason



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:35, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:09 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 04:56, Jason Resch wrote:





On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:42 PM, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
 wrote:

Hi Jason,

Any program, and whether or not it ever terminates can be  
translated to a statement concerning numbers in arithmetic. Thus  
mathematical truth captures the facts concerning whether or not any  
program executes forever, and what all of its intermediate states  
are. 


this also captures every instance of random numbers as well.

It is not clear to me what random means in arithmetical truth.

Randomness can appear from the perspectives of observers, but I  
don't see how it can arise in arithmetic.


?

It appears in all numbers written in any base. Most numbers are  
already random (even incompressible).
I guess you know that. In the phi_i(j) in the UD, randomness can  
appear in the many j used as input, as we usually dovetail on the  
function of one variable. (but such input can easily be internalized  
in 0-variable programs).


OK, I must agree, but can you see how this removes our ability to  
use the natural ordering of the integers as an explanation of the  
appearance of time?


Of the physical time? yes, that is right. That is a consequence of the  
delay invariance of the FPI.  But we can still use it indirectly. It  
is part of the additive-multiplicative structure of the numbers that  
we assume (through the numbers laws).




Since there are multiple and equivalent (as to their properties)  
sequences of integers that have very different orders relative to  
each other, if we use these ordering as our time we would have a  
different dimension of time for every one!


?
On the contrary. As you just said, the appearance of time is not  
dependent on that order.









For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want  
generate only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm  
generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ...  
generates all random finite incompressible strings, and even all the  
infinite one (for the 1p view, notably).


In that (trivial) sense, arithmetic contains a lot of 3p randomness,  
even perhaps too much. Then 1p randomeness appears too, by the 1p  
indeterminacy (and that one is in the eyes of the machine).


Chaitin's results can also explain why we cannot filter out that 3p  
randomness from arithmetic.



Have you had any more thoughts on the book keeping problem we have  
discussed in the past?


Can you remind me? Thanks.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:43, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:30 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 05:27, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Hi LizR and Jason,

  Responding to both of you. I don't understand the claim of  
determinism is random noise is necessary for the computations.  
Turing machines require exact pre-specifiability. Adding noise  
oracles is cheating!


But it exist in arithmetic. Subtracting it would be cheating. the  
silmple counting algorith generates all random finite strings  
(random in the strong Chaitin sense).


Almost all numbers are random, when written in some base. And you  
can define the notion of base *in* arithmetic, so they exist in all  
models of arithmetic. We can't subtract them.


With respect: No! We cannot wait forever (literally) to obtain  
consistency of our data bases in the face of the inability to know  
in advance the arrival time of messages in the network.


  The fact that arithmetic contains all finite (even the random  
ones) strings is an ontological claim. I have no problem with the  
claim. My problem is that we cannot reason as if time does not exist  
when we are trying to construct real computers.


  We have to use different ideas, for example: competition for  
resources! Platonic computers do not compete for resources nor  
change. They are static and fixed eternally...


In God's eyes. We already know that from inside, except for the  
measure problem which remains to be solved, things look very dynamical  
and changing all the times. Bp  p is already a logic of (subjective)  
time. Bp  Dt gives a quantum logic, Bp  Dt  p gives a subjective or  
intuitionist quantum logic full of percepts including a time which can  
be felt.


It is a trivial exercise to show that all diophantine approximation of  
anything physical is emulated in arithmetic, so Platonia contains all  
possible competition on all conceivable resources, and actually  
anything that you can live, or not live, like the collision between  
the Milky Way and Andromeda is emulated statically in arithmetic, and  
lived temporally by its emulated persons.


Platonia is static from outside, not from inside. Arithmetic becomes a  
block universe(s), although it is more like a block-mindscape or a  
block multi-dreams.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 18:10, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:37 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 05:27, LizR wrote:


On 28 December 2013 17:23, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
Jason,

You might be able to theoretically simulate it but certainly not  
compute it in real time which is what reality actually does which  
is my point.


In real time ?! In comp (and many TOEs) time is emergent.


Physical times and subjective time emerge. OK. But let us be honest,  
comp assumes already a sort of time, through the natural order: à,  
1, 2, 3, ...


Then you have all UD-time step of the computations emulated by the UD:

phi_444(6) first step
...
phi_444(6) second step
... ...  (meaning greater delay  
in the UD-time steps).

ph_444(6) third  step
... ... ...
ph_444(6) fourth  step
  ... ...
ph_444(6) fifth step
etc.


This would explain the sequencing of events aspect of time, but it  
does nothing to address the concurrency problem.



Nor dark matter, nor visible matter, nor 

That is the problem I offer to you, as a result of the translation of  
he mind-body problem in arithmetic, enforced by the comp hypothesis.





We need a theory of time that has an explanation of both sequencing  
and transition. I wish you could study GR, say from Penrose's math  
book, and Prof. Hitoshi Kitada's Local Time interpretation of QM.


I did, and we have already discussed this. That can be used to  
progress, may be. If you find that it would be very nice.
Right now, we need to solve much more simpler problem in logic to  
proceed in a way such that we keep into account the communicable/non- 
communicable self-referential constraints, in the way imposed by the  
FPI.





  It gives a nice set of concepts that help solve the problem of  
time: there is no such thing as a global time; there is only local  
time. Local for each individual observer. Synchronizations of these  
local times generates the appearance of global time for a collection  
that is co-moving or (equivalently) have similar inertial frames.


That's physics. But physics is given by a precise equation in comp.   
You are free to use *any* papers and results to solve that equation.  
You need to study logic to make the link properly.


(Of course you can also do physics, without tackling the comp mind- 
body problem. That's what physicists do since a long time)


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 18:32, John Clark wrote:

On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:12 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote
 How many unique 1-views from 1-view are there on planet Earth  
right now?

Bruno Marchal's answer: Bruno Marchal refuses to answer.


 I answered this two times already. The answer is 1.

At last 


No, I just quoted myself there. It was my previous answer.


... a straight answer, the answer is 1. So there is only one unique  
1-view from the 1-view on planet Earth right now;


In the 1-view, yes.
in the 3-view, no. There are 7 billions (assuming a mono-universe, to  
simplified).





that is to say if a one to one correspondence was attempted between  
the infinite set of UNIQUE integers and the set of all the UNIQUE 1- 
views from the 1-view on planet Earth right now only ONE such  
pairing can be made.


From each 1-view. That's right.



So the set of all UNIQUE one views of the one view has only 1  
element in it. Well who is this one, who is he, what's his name?  
I'd love to meet him (or her), can you introduce me?


Look in a mirror. You know better your 1-view than anything else. I  
don't need to present it!







  infinitely many 1-views are all unique from their 1-view.

Yet another straight answer, this time the answer is infinity;  
unfortunately it's a very different answer to the exact same  
question. So is the answer 1 or infinity or your previous answer of  
7 billion?


It is 1 from the personal point of view.
It is 7 billions, in the 3-view of those 1-view.

That explains the 1-indeterminacy, but in a misleading way, as it  
seems to use the ASSA, where comp needs the RSSA. The probability  
makes sense only in term of relative self-duplication, and here we  
might think we give sense to what is the probablity that I am myself  
among all humans, which does not make sense, or at least not in the  
non controversial way when self-duplication is taken into account.




 OK?

No, that is very far from OK.


?





 So what about step 7?

I don't see why anybody should read step 7 of your proof when it  
has already been demonstrated that you throw around terms like the  
1-view from the 1-view that you can't put a number to.


I did it often. You have to read the posts.




If you can't put a number to it you have no clear understanding of it.


I have, so please, proceed, or explain what is wrong. You seem annoyed  
by the fact that I provides always two answer (1 and è billions), but  
that is just because I make clear the need to distinguish the 1p from  
the 3p views, as the indeterminacy bears on the 1p views. If there is  
no indeterminacy, provide the prediction algorithm, and show me that  
it will convince everyone, which includes all possible self-copies.  
Only then you can say that step 3 is refuted.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 18:43, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 12:34 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 07:34, LizR wrote:

On 28 December 2013 19:31, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
 wrote:

Computed how? By what?

I know the answer to this one! To quote Brent -- He proposes to  
dispense with any physical computation and have the UD exist via  
arithmetical realism as an abstract, immaterial computation.


Assuming comp, there is not much choice in the matter. That is the  
point.


I will agree.



Above the substitution level: interaction between universal  
machines, including one apparently sustained from below the  
substitution level by the statistical interference between  
infinities of universal machines getting your actual states.


But the actual states are not just some random string from my  
point of view!



Nor for me. They are state brought by some computation above the S- 
level, and supported by infinitely many computation below the S-level.
The result is indeterminate, but not itself random. In The WM- 
duplication, the result is indeterminate or random, but W or M  
themselves are not random.






The very fact that we can (somewhat) communicate is an important  
fact. There is a selection mechanism: interaction.


That's part of the problem. Showing this.







I don't know how to avoid those infinities without reifying some God- 
of-the-gap or Matter-of-the-gap notion to singularize a computation  
for consciousness, but if that is needed for consciousness, then  
comp is false.


Umm, that is a false choice! The FPI is good enough to do the job  
without resorting to a 'god/matter in the gap solution. The  
singularization of consciousness is easy, as you have shown.


No it is not! There is a lot of work to be done before we have a realm  
in which words like interaction can make sense.






It is the concurrent interaction problem that is not easy.


So let us concentrate on what is more easy first.




I cannot exactly predict your actions and thus can only bet on  
your future states, but I can constrain your possible choices of  
action with my physical behaviors even if the physical world is an  
illusion. The fact that it is a common and persistent illusion makes  
it a ground of commonality from which we can distinguish ourselves 3- 
p wise from each other.


We cannot use physics.







True, you still survive with a digital brain, but no more through  
comp, it is true from comp + some explicit magic to make disappear  
the other realities. You get an irrefutable form of cosmic solipsism.


There is no magic here, there is the SAT problem. Boolean algebras  
do not automatically pop out with global consistency over their  
arguments/propositions. One has to actually physically run a  
physical world to know what it will do. Claiming that it exists in  
Platonia is not a solution.


No, it is a problem. And thanks to the work done, it is (with comp) a  
problem in arithmetic. That is the result.


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Sure the experiment that proves they are in the same present moment is they 
just turn around and shake hands, they just turn around and compare clocks 
to see whether they read the same or not. How difficult is that to 
comprehend? It's what people do every day of their lives.

Edgar



On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:37:03 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:

 It is self-evident and experimentally proved that they can be in the same 
 present moment even if their clock time t values are not simultaneous.

 What is experimentally proven is that two clocks A and B can show 
 different times at the same coordinate time in some inertial frame--and 
 coordinate time itself is defined using some *other* set of physical clocks 
 besides A and B. For example, if we say that at t=5 in our inertial frame A 
 showed a time of 20 seconds and B showed a time of 30 seconds, what this 
 really means is that A was next to a clock C1 when A read 20 and C1 read 5, 
 and B was next to a clock C2 when B read 30 and C2 read 5, with C1 and C2 
 being at rest and synchronized in our inertial frame, so that their 
 readings are used to *define* coordinate time in this frame. All 
 experimentally verifiable statements about time are defined in terms of 
 clock readings of some kind.

 If you think that your statements about P-time are experimentally 
 verifiable, but you think the experiment in question does *not* involve any 
 sort of physical clock (even a naturally-occurring clock like the 
 rotation of the Earth), then can you describe what the experiment would be 
 that shows the two observers to be in the same present moment?

 Jesse


 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Pierz,

 The common universal present moment is defined and measured simply by 
 observers observing they are in the same moment at the same time. It is 
 self-evident and experimentally proved that they can be in the same present 
 moment even if their clock time t values are not simultaneous. And it's not 
 just an event, as some have maintained, its the standard mode of existence 
 of everyone throughout their lives to share the same present moment with 
 others.

 Clocks? We don't need no stinkin clocks! Clocks don't measure P-time, 
 they measure clock time.
 :-)

 P-time doesn't fail. It can't. It is simply impossible for anyone or 
 anything to escape the present moment. That's the basic fact of our 
 existence for goodness sakes! The present moment is the locus, and only 
 locus of reality. Without a present moment there could be no reality. The 
 presence of reality manifests as the present moment

 Your last paragraph fails because it is all about measuring CLOCK time, 
 not P-time. It's irrelevant to the discussion of P-time.

 P-time is the radial dimension of our hyperspherical universe back to the 
 point of the big bang. The surface is our 3-dimensional universe in the 
 present moment which is the locus of reality and all that exists. As the 
 P-time radial dimension extends happening occurs within the present moment 
 and the current state of the universe in continually computed. This is 
 experienced as 'proper time' which is always the same no matter at what 
 rate clock time is running.

 The only way P-time can be measured that I know of is from Omega, the 
 curvature of the universe, from which we can compute the radius = P-time 
 dimension. Anyone know what that equation would be?

 Edgar



 On Saturday, December 28, 2013 8:33:23 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 Everyone else has made excellent, well laid-out arguments against your 
 position Edgar, but I will throw in another perspective. You ask whether 
 two observers 'share the same common present moment'. However you don't 
 define what that means exactly. If I imagine your scenario of two observers 
 who aren't me then of course they seem to share the same moment, regardless 
 of how far apart they are. To say they don't share the same moment would 
 be like saying that one exists and the other doesn't at some point in time, 
 right? But this is really begging the question about what a point in time 
 is. You seem to be relying on an intuitive sense of time that is not bound 
 to anything measurable (the hidden point of my tongue-in-cheek 'U-time'). 
 How need to define what you mean by sharing the same moment and you need 
 to show how it is to be measured. I submit that the only method of making 
 such a determination is by means of something that measures clock time. For 
 example, a clock! And you already agree that clocks will show that the 
 observers don't precisely agree about the simultaneity of events. 

 In fact, to make the whole situation clearer, it is better not to use 
 observers or people as the objects said to share the same common present 
 because observers persist in time and this makes things less clear. 
 Instead, you should ask the same question about a momentary event like a 
 pulse of light from a 

Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 19:30, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Not at all. Decoherence falsifies collapse.



?

That is my point. Decoherence falsifies collapse. Exactly.





Decoherence falsifies many worlds.


Decoherence is just the contagion of superposed states to the observer/ 
environment. It vindicates the many-worlds.


Many-worlds is not an interpretation, but an easy consequence of the  
linearity of the wave, and the linearity of the tensor product.


That is so true, than when the founders got this, they introduces a  
new axiom for the measurement which basically says that quantum  
mechanics is wrong for the observer, to avoid the spreading of the  
superposition. But that is ad hoc, and contradict the idea that  
physicists obeys to physical laws.





With decoherence everything is a wavefunction and those wave  
functions just keep on going and interacting in this single world.


The waves don't interact, and the superposition, by linearity, never  
disappeared, and spread at light speed.


QM-without-collapse = MW.

Explain me with only QM how a branch of the wave could ever disappear.

Then with comp, arithmetic contains all dreams, and QM becomes the  
digital seen from a first person plural points of view. the math  
confirms this up to now. This makes mono-universe still less  
plausible.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:12, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 3:13 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Perhaps; but only for nano second. you real mind overlap on  
sequence of states, with the right probabilities, and for this you  
need the complete run of the UD, because your next moment is  
determioned by the FPI on all computations.


That's a point that bothers me.  It seems that you require a  
completed, realized uncountable inifinity.



Not in the ontology, where I can use only 0 and its successors, and  
the numbers laws (+ and *).


What the theology and physics need from inside is indeed not bound- 
able, and is bigger than anything we can conceive. That is in part a  
reason why I use the term theology. from inside arithmetic, we are  
eventually confronted with some thing very big.


Bruno










Brent

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:19, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 04:36, Stephen Paul King wrote:





I loath Kronecker's claim! It is synonymous to Man is the measure  
of all things.



What is his claim?  I am not familiar with it.

God created the Integers, all else is the invention of man.



man is a measure of all things is a quote from a french  
philosopher (I just forget right now his name) itself taken from a  
greek general, which cut the feet or head of all soldier having not  
the right size (!).  (Sorry for those vague memories, learn this in  
highschool)


Man is the measure of all things. is usually attributed to  
Protagoras (a student of Plato).


Ah! Thanks. Protagoras is also the one asking if virtue are teachable.  
I define a virtue Protagorean when it is not teachable by words, but  
still by practice/example.





Procrustes, who stretched or chopped guests to fit his iron bed, was  
a metal smith, not a general.


OK, I remember! Thanks.








Now, of course, comp saves Kronecker from anthropomorphism, as with  
comp we can say that:
God created the integers, all else is the invention of ...  
integers.


Die ganze Zahl schuf der liebe Gott, alles Übrige ist Menschenwerk
--- Kronecker



Die ganze Zahl schuf der liebe Gott, alles Übrige ist Zahlenwerk

:)

Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

Glad we agree that decoherence falsifies collapse. That's a good start!

But decoherence also falsifies MW. First of all you have to understand what 
a wavefunction is. It's not a physical object. It's a description of a 
physical object in human math. Basically in QM its formulated as the 
'answer' to a question that can be asked about a physical object.

Second, properly understood, there are no 'branches' to a wavefunction. The 
correct interpretation of a wavefunction is not a description of a physical 
object (electron) smeared out in a fixed pre-existing background space 
common to all events, it's a description of how space can dimensionally 
emerge if that particle decoheres with some other particle, in other words 
it's the range of possibilities for the dimensional relationship that would 
occur if it interacted with another particle's wavefunction.

Thus all this occurs not in physical space, but in logical computational 
space. It is only when wavefunctions actually interfere and decohere with 
each other that actual dimensional relationships arise, and therefore a 
point in a dimensional space is created. This is how dimensional spaces 
emerge piecewise from quantum decoherence events.

So you do get many individual spacetime fragments emerging out of logical 
computational space by this process, but they are not separate universes, 
because they in turn continually merge via common events that connect and 
align them. The result of googles of these processes is the simulacrum of 
classical spacetime. It is the origin of physicality from computational 
space.

That's the way it works And this model also unifies GR and QM and 
resolves all quantum 'paradox' at the same time, as well as explaining the 
source of quantum randomness, so it's an excellent model. You really need 
to understand it.

Everett had an insight but since he didn't understand how spacetime emerges 
from, is actually created by, quantum events in computational information 
space, he followed it off into never never land...

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 8:31:38 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Dec 2013, at 19:30, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 

  Not at all. Decoherence falsifies collapse. 


 ? 

 That is my point. Decoherence falsifies collapse. Exactly. 




  Decoherence falsifies many worlds. 

 Decoherence is just the contagion of superposed states to the observer/ 
 environment. It vindicates the many-worlds. 

 Many-worlds is not an interpretation, but an easy consequence of the   
 linearity of the wave, and the linearity of the tensor product. 

 That is so true, than when the founders got this, they introduces a   
 new axiom for the measurement which basically says that quantum   
 mechanics is wrong for the observer, to avoid the spreading of the   
 superposition. But that is ad hoc, and contradict the idea that   
 physicists obeys to physical laws. 




  With decoherence everything is a wavefunction and those wave   
  functions just keep on going and interacting in this single world. 

 The waves don't interact, and the superposition, by linearity, never   
 disappeared, and spread at light speed. 

 QM-without-collapse = MW. 

 Explain me with only QM how a branch of the wave could ever disappear. 

 Then with comp, arithmetic contains all dreams, and QM becomes the   
 digital seen from a first person plural points of view. the math   
 confirms this up to now. This makes mono-universe still less   
 plausible. 

 Bruno 


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 





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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate  
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want  
generate only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm  
generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ...  
generates all random finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base  
6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter  
combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short  
sequences which indeed will depend of the language used (here  
combinators).


Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by  
adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.


It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are  
random in that sense.


Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base,  
but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with  
the number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be  
a compression of that particular number base, for that language, and  
it is part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist  
working for all (small) numbers. Each particular language will have  
some exception on the incompressibility issue. That should be part of  
the role of the variable constant in the general universal definition.


Bruno




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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz,

Reality doesn't seem to have any difficulty computing the results of random 
choices. That's how practically all computations occur. If we assume, or 
define, reality as computational then reality is computing random results 
by definition. It's obviously something that reality math does quite well.

Edgar


On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:34:45 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:




 On 29 December 2013 16:23, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript:wrote:

 Brent,

 No, reality just makes a random choice, that's the computation made. But 
 the difference between reality math and human QM math is that reality 
 actually makes an actual choice, whereas human QM math just gives us the 
 probabilities of choices.

 Big difference. Reality does the computation, human math doesn't.

 How is making a random choice the same as doing a computation? 
  

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jason,

You agree No one is denying the reality of the present, just that it is 
the only reality.

OK, that's immense progress we are making!

So, the present moment does exist, and we agree on that. So now the only 
issue is that you presumably believe in block time, that all other moments 
of time actually exist. If you do then please explain to me why the present 
moment seems so real and privileged and all other moments don't?

And if all other moments in time actually exist do you understand how many 
laws of physics that violates? For one thing the actual mass and energy of 
all those moments must also exist which means there is an enormous 
violation of the conservation of mass-energy.

If you believe in block time you have a lot of explaining away to do!

Edgar

On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:18:50 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Pierz,

 The common universal present moment is defined and measured simply by 
 observers observing they are in the same moment at the same time. It is 
 self-evident and experimentally proved that they can be in the same present 
 moment even if their clock time t values are not simultaneous. And it's not 
 just an event, as some have maintained, its the standard mode of existence 
 of everyone throughout their lives to share the same present moment with 
 others.

 Clocks? We don't need no stinkin clocks! Clocks don't measure P-time, 
 they measure clock time.
 :-)

 P-time doesn't fail. It can't. It is simply impossible for anyone or 
 anything to escape the present moment. That's the basic fact of our 
 existence for goodness sakes! The present moment is the locus, and only 
 locus of reality. Without a present moment there could be no reality. The 
 presence of reality manifests as the present moment


 No one is denying the reality of the present, just that it is the only 
 reality.

 Jason
  


 Your last paragraph fails because it is all about measuring CLOCK time, 
 not P-time. It's irrelevant to the discussion of P-time.

 P-time is the radial dimension of our hyperspherical universe back to the 
 point of the big bang. The surface is our 3-dimensional universe in the 
 present moment which is the locus of reality and all that exists. As the 
 P-time radial dimension extends happening occurs within the present moment 
 and the current state of the universe in continually computed. This is 
 experienced as 'proper time' which is always the same no matter at what 
 rate clock time is running.

 The only way P-time can be measured that I know of is from Omega, the 
 curvature of the universe, from which we can compute the radius = P-time 
 dimension. Anyone know what that equation would be?

 Edgar



 On Saturday, December 28, 2013 8:33:23 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 Everyone else has made excellent, well laid-out arguments against your 
 position Edgar, but I will throw in another perspective. You ask whether 
 two observers 'share the same common present moment'. However you don't 
 define what that means exactly. If I imagine your scenario of two observers 
 who aren't me then of course they seem to share the same moment, regardless 
 of how far apart they are. To say they don't share the same moment would 
 be like saying that one exists and the other doesn't at some point in time, 
 right? But this is really begging the question about what a point in time 
 is. You seem to be relying on an intuitive sense of time that is not bound 
 to anything measurable (the hidden point of my tongue-in-cheek 'U-time'). 
 How need to define what you mean by sharing the same moment and you need 
 to show how it is to be measured. I submit that the only method of making 
 such a determination is by means of something that measures clock time. For 
 example, a clock! And you already agree that clocks will show that the 
 observers don't precisely agree about the simultaneity of events. 

 In fact, to make the whole situation clearer, it is better not to use 
 observers or people as the objects said to share the same common present 
 because observers persist in time and this makes things less clear. 
 Instead, you should ask the same question about a momentary event like a 
 pulse of light from a diode. Do the diodes themselves share the same 
 present moment? Yes, whatever that means! Do the flashes occur 
 simultaneously? Well you know the answer depends on the inertial frame of 
 reference. Substituting a mental event (the thought I am here now) for 
 the light flash, we can see that two thinkers cannot have that thought at 
 an objectively identical moment. All events can be timed using clocks, 
 which after all cold be anything that has a regular cycle. There is nothing 
 in space-time, including mental events, that is not an event that can be 
 timed in this manner. What is confusing you is merely the persistence of 
 the observer and the impossibility of imagining that both 

Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jason,

O, for God's sakes! You believe souls exist? I thought this was supposed to 
be a scientific forum!

Edgar


On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:24:04 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:27 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Richard and Stephen,

 ER=EPR will have a hell of a time explaining the soul since the soul 
 doesn't exist! 

 Edgar



 How do you know it doesn't exist?

 Jason
  



 On Saturday, December 28, 2013 9:58:22 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Stephen Paul King 
 step...@provensecure.com wrote:

 Something to think about: http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/
 2013/12/131205142218.htm#!
  
 Yes. String theory is the great white hope. Lubos Motl even suggests that 
 ER=EPR may explain the concept of the soul.
 http://motls.blogspot.com/2013/12/quantum-gravity-and-afterlife.html 



 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 5:53 PM, Liz R liz...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Saturday, 28 December 2013 06:18:26 UTC+13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

  
 Many worlds is probably the most outlandishly improbable theory of all 
 time, and should have been laughed out of existence as soon as it was 
 proposed. Do


 Fortunately, science is not decided on what seems probable to humans, or 
 we would never have realised that there is anything except the Earth and 
 some lights in the sky. The MWI is very far from the most outlandishly 
 improbable theory of all time, I can name a dozen ontological theories that 
 are more outlandish without even asking WIkipedia, such as the idea that 
 the world was created by the shenannigans of various gods.

 you actually understand what it says or implies? Basically that every 
 quantum event that ever occured in the history of the universe spawns an 
 entire new universe of all its possible outcomes and every event in every 
 one of those new universes does the same. This immediately exponentially 
 escalates in the first few minutes of the universe into uncountable new 
 universes and has been expanding exponentially ever since over 14.7 billion 
 years! Just try to calculate the


 The MWI is a straight interpretation of

 ...

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:40, John Mikes wrote:


Dear Bruno, when you wrote:

...arithmetic  number's dreams = physics

OK? Physics is based on experience, but not on human one.
And experiences are based on arithmetic/computer-science...

for the 'unbiased reader ' you started to seem (pardon me!)   
incoherent.
That entire unfinishable series 'how an adult person can be atheist'  
seems

overgrown and I wanted to put down my opinion, when Edgar cut me short
with his remark that first: we need an identification for whatever  
we call: god.


He is right. We need some definition, or some semi-axiomatic.  I have  
often explained what I mean by the term God. It is the  
transcendental reality responsible for our consciousness, and  
experiences. I can add typical axioms, like the fact that is has no  
name, and that shit happens when we invoke it, etc.
The point of the discussion is that we might change the definition, in  
different ways possible.






Our semantics is premature and insufficient, based on that PARTIAL  
stuff we

may know at all and formulating FINAL conclusions upon them.


Well, in science, no conclusion is ever final, be it on God, the moon,  
the boson or even the numbers. We can just hope people agrees enough  
with a theory to be interested in its theorems.





Ifelt some remark of yours agreeing with me (agnosticism).


Yes, I think that science is agnostic on all ontological commitment,  
beyond the terms it assumes for the need of solving a problem.





My idrentification for what many people call god is known to this  
list:
infinite complexity - not better than anyone else's: it is MY  
belief.


OK. No problem. Arithmetical truth is already infinitely complex, for  
any machines, so with comp, your definition can satisfy the axioms  
above, and the machines!








Just to continue MY opinion: whatever we experienc (think?) is HUMAN  
stuff,


Even Mammal stuff. Even Earthly creature. I fact, I am afraid we  
borrow already all prejudices and limitations of the Löbian entities,  
in fact of all finite (locally) machines ...




humanly experienced and thought within human logic, even if we refer  
to some
universal machine 'logic' and 'experience': those are adjusted to  
our human ways

of thinking.


This might be just  adjusted for John-Mikean thinking.

In fact it is because we adjust our theories that they can be shown  
wrong, and then we change them.


You cannot use human to limit our knowledge a priori, or you just  
show a prejudice against all humans.


All we, or any creature, can do, is to make clear the theory, and the  
means to test it. If wrong we change it.
Only bad philosophers pretend to know the truth, or to have final  
conclusion or solution.


Then I like to quote Chardin, saying that we are not human beings  
having from time to time divine experiences, but we are divine beings  
having from time to time human experiences.


Bruno





On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 4:30 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 27 Dec 2013, at 16:34, Richard Ruquist wrote:


Bruno,

I have to say that basing reality on the first person experience  
(or whatever) of humans
strikes me as being no different from basing wave collapse on human  
consciousness.


I agree with you, but I don't do that. The fundamental theory is  
elementary arithmetic. Experiences are explained by computer science  
(mainly machine's self-reference and the modal nuances existing by  
incompleteness).


True: the physical reality comes from the experience, but this is  
based on the FPI which relies on an objective domain, which comes  
from arithmetic, not experience. So we have, roughly put:


arithmetic  number's dreams = physics

OK? Physics is based on experience, but not on human one. And  
experiences are based on arithmetic/computer-science.


Bruno



Sorry for a naive question but that seems tio be my role on this  
list.

Richard


On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:12 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 24 Dec 2013, at 19:39, John Clark wrote:

On Tue, Dec 24, 2013 at 4:04 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:

 He did answer and did it correctly,

 I somehow missed that post. What number did Bruno give?


I quote myself:
 That's a great answer but unfortunately it's NOT a answer to  
the question John Clark asked, the question never asked anything  
about  the 3p view, it was never mentioned. So John Clark will  
repeat the question for a fifth time: how many first person  
experiences viewed from their first person points of view does  
Bruno Marchal believe exists on planet Earth right now?


1  (I already answered this, note)


No you did not.

 from the 1-view, the 1-view is always unique.


That's real nice, but it wasn't the question.

How many unique integers are there in the first 7 billion integers?
John Clark's answer: 7 billion.

How many unique 1-views from 1-view are there on planet Earth  
right now?

Bruno Marchal's answer: Bruno 

Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Dec 2013, at 23:15, John Mikes wrote:


List:
Is there a 'well' acceptable definition for R A N D O M? (my non- 
Indo-European mothertongue has no word expressing
the meaning - if I got it right. My 2nd mothertongue (German) calls  
it exbeliebig = kind of: whatever I like)
My position as far as I got the right semantic meaning would be: non- 
explainable by circumstances leading to it, what
is an agnostic marvel since in the next second I may learn HOW to  
explain and that would be the end of randomity.


Unless we have a explanation of what we cannot explain it. That is the  
case in the self-duplication. We can predict that, whoever copy I will  
feel to be, I will not being able to explain why I feel that one in  
particular, nor anyone can ever explain it.
But this is a first person, subjective, but objectively real, type of  
randomness.



Then incompressibility is also useful to define an objective form of  
randomness, provable in some case.


Bruno




I accept one (nonscientific?) random-use: in math puzzles the take  
any number - however many of these are joking.
I had some discussion with Russell and he was willing to molify his  
brisk 'random' into a 'conditional' random within the

circumstances of the topic.

John Mikes


On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:40 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net  
wrote:
Replying to Liz and Jason in a new topic as they raised the  
important topic of the source of randomness that deserves a separate  
topic.


As I explain in my book on Reality, all randomness is quantum. There  
simply is no true classical level randomness. There is plenty of non- 
computability which is often mistaken for randomness but all true  
randomness at the classical level percolates up from the quantum  
level.


At the fundamental computational level all computations are exact.  
However the way space can emerge and be dimensionalized from these  
computations is random which is the source of all randomness. This  
quantum level randomness can either be damped out or amplified up to  
the Classical level depending on the information structures involved.


To use Liz's example of how do computers generate random numbers,  
they don't in themselves. As Jason points out they draw on sources  
of (quantum) randomness from the environment, but the code the  
computer itself uses contains no randomness as the whole point of  
digital devices is to completely submerge any source of randomness  
because that would pollute the code and/or data.


Of course eventually everything, including computers, is subject to  
randomness and fails


Edgar




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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Pierz,

A lot of meat in your post. Thanks! I'll answer most of your questions

Yes, observers observe they are in the same present moment by the 
simultaneity of events. Exactly, but the important point is that is the 
simultaneity of actual events, not of clock time readings. Observers can 
simultaneously shake hands even if their clocks have different clock times 
(their clocks are not simultaneous). Actual versus clock time simultaneity. 
Two completely different things!

That's the absolutely critical point to understanding my thesis.

ACTUAL simultaneity (2 observers shaking hands) IS self-evident. Do you 
dispute that? You can't...

The experiment that proves my thesis is the hand shaking. Absolute 
incontrovertible proof of actual simultaneity.

That is how to operationalize P-time. By actual simultaneity. It CANNOT be 
measured by clock time as proven above.


The P-time now of Caesar is long gone. Unfortunately for you, you can only 
share the same NOW as Edgar, not Caesar! :-)

Yes, P-seconds should be calculable from Omega. Differences from the clock 
time age of the universe can account for things like inflation, Hubble 
expansion etc. 

However please note that the whole notion of 'the ~14.7 billion year age of 
the universe', of an age of the universe, that is the same for all 
observers means that cosmology DOES accept the notion of a single common 
universal present moment since cosmology assumes that age of he universe is 
going to be the same anywhere in the universe for every observer.

That's very important confirmation of the notion of a single common 
universal present moment. Cosmology accepts my thesis of a common universal 
present moment of existence.

Edgar





On Sunday, December 29, 2013 12:35:01 AM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:


 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 2:19:57 PM UTC+11, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Pierz,

 The common universal present moment is defined and measured simply by 
 observers observing they are in the same moment at the same time.

  
 How do they observe that they are in the same moment except by the 
 simultaneity of events in their perceived time-space environment?

  

 It is self-evident

  
 really?  It is anything but self-evident that different moments in clock 
 time are the same moment. I don't even know what what means. Sure it's 
 'self-evident' that the now I experience is present everywhere. But that 
 self-evident truth was qualified by relativity, which was the actual great 
 leap forward in our understanding of time. 

 and experimentally proved 


 again - really? You can't even tell me how to measure P-time so I fail 
 to see how any experiment has or can prove such a thing. If this is 
 physical, scientific theory as opposed to a metaphysical speculation about 
 the eternal Now a la Eckhart Tolle, then you *must* be able to provide 
 some means of measuring your proposed physical quantity or entity. Again I 
 ask: how will you prove this sharing of a moment other than by blustering 
 that it is self-evident?
  

 that they can be in the same present moment even if their clock time t 
 values are not simultaneous. And it's not just an event, as some have 
 maintained, its the standard mode of existence of everyone throughout their 
 lives to share the same present moment with others.

 Clocks? We don't need no stinkin clocks! Clocks don't measure P-time, 
 they measure clock time.
 :-)

 P-time doesn't fail.


 The *concept* of P-time fails as far as physics goes, as far as I can 
 tell, because you can't operationalize it. You can only make exasperated 
 noises that no-one else gets it except you despite it's being so obvious. 
  

 It can't. It is simply impossible for anyone or anything to escape the 
 present moment. That's the basic fact of our existence for goodness sakes! 
 The present moment is the locus, and only locus of reality. Without a 
 present moment there could be no reality. The presence of reality manifests 
 as the present moment


 Fine so far as it goes. The Now is ever-present and unchanging while 
 phenomena, including clocks, move through it as it were. In some sense, all 
 things happen Now and nothing will ever occur anywhere except Now and we 
 all share it. That's the Now of Eckart Tolle's The Power of Now. The 
 problem is when you try to insist that this is a concept relevant to 
 physics. Let me ask: do I share the Now with you as you were an hour ago? 
 Do I share the same now as Caesar at the moment of his death? In the 
 metaphysical sense, maybe. But not in any way that is relevant to physics 
 and measured time. *Which moment are we sharing if not a moment we can 
 measure with a clock? If you just say the current present moment, for 
 goodness sake! you are merely demonstrating that your concept is a 
 tautology.


 Your last paragraph fails because it is all about measuring CLOCK time, 
 not P-time. It's irrelevant to the discussion of P-time.

 P-time is the radial dimension of our hyperspherical 

Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 00:28, Jesse Mazer wrote:


Jason Resch wrote:
indeed quantum randomness itself may only be a special case of this  
new type of randomness (discovered by Bruno).


I don't think Bruno claims to have discovered the notion that there  
can be first-person randomness even in a universe which is  
deterministic from a third-person perspective (like a universe  
defined by the universal dovetailer), he just integrates it into the  
rest of his ideas in a novel way. The first person to discover this  
idea may be Hugh Everett III, who is quoted in http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-everett/#6 
 saying of his interpretation of QM that the formal theory is  
objectively continuous and causal, while subjectively discontinuous  
and probabilistic (this quote is from 1973, but I suspect one could  
find quotes from his original 1957 thesis that explicitly or  
implicitly suggest this idea of subjective randomness despite the  
determinism of wavefunction evolution governed by the Schroedinger  
equation).


OK. But Everett did not see that we get this from just self- 
duplication, and that this entails we have a many world  
interpretation of arithmetic, in which we have to justify the wave and  
physics. He still has to assume QM to have its sort of subjective  
probability. The comp FPI is conceptually more general, as it does not  
assume any physics at all. Everett indeterminacy can be seen as a  
particular case of FPI, if we assume the wave and if we reify it for  
consciousness (what UDA) prevents us to do.


Bruno





Jesse


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:24 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com  
wrote:



On Dec 28, 2013, at 7:04 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net  
wrote:



Jason,

Have you gotten to Part III of my book on Reality yet? It explains  
how all randomness is quantum, and it explains the source of that  
randomness is the lack of any governing deterministic equations  
when the mini-spacetimes that emerge from quantum events have be  
aligned due to linking at common events.




I have not, but my point is there is already a form of randomness we  
know of that does not need quarum mechanics, indeed quantum  
randomness itself may only be a special case of this new type of  
randomness (discovered by Bruno).


Jason

Separate spaces are dimensionally independent. When they merge via  
common dimensional events there can be no deterministic alignment  
thus randomness arises.


Edgar

On Saturday, December 28, 2013 2:08:32 AM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:40 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:
Replying to Liz and Jason in a new topic as they raised the  
important topic of the source of randomness that deserves a  
separate topic.


As I explain in my book on Reality, all randomness is quantum.  
There simply is no true classical level randomness.


Have you gotten to step 3 in the UDA yet?  It explains how true  
randomness can emerge without assuming QM.


Jason

There is plenty of non-computability which is often mistaken for  
randomness but all true randomness at the classical level  
percolates up from the quantum level.


At the fundamental computational level all computations are exact.  
However the way space can emerge and be dimensionalized from these  
computations is random which is the source of all randomness. This  
quantum level randomness can either be damped out or amplified up  
to the Classical level depending on the information structures  
involved.


To use Liz's example of how do computers generate random numbers,  
they don't in themselves. As Jason points out they draw on sources  
of (quantum) randomness from the environment, but the code the  
computer itself uses contains no randomness as the whole point of  
digital devices is to completely submerge any source of randomness  
because that would pollute the code and/or data.


Of course eventually everything, including computers, is subject to  
randomness and fails


Edgar




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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 02:26, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Stephen,

In a sense that's correct, they are actions and the actions are the  
computations, but they aren't physical, at least in the usual sense.


Computations are not physical. I agree. They are arithmetical notion.

But I can't understand what is meant by actions are computation, or  
reality computes, etc.


I have the feeling that you are using the term computation in some  
non standard sense.






This is closely related to the idea that 'everything is its  
information only' which I cover in Part V of my book. We could  
equally say that 'everything is its computation only, and the  
computation is the thing'.


I have no problem with that, it's a good way to express it.


I am not sure. Stephen has already defended the idea that a physical  
object simulates itself, based on a similar confusion. That does not  
make sense if we use the terms computation or emulations (exact  
simulations)  with their standard definition in math.


The notion of physical computation is worse. It is easy to believe  
that it exists, like physical computer and brains exist, but it is a  
hell of a difficulty to define them, and even more so if we want  
physical computation to be defined without using the mathematical  
notion of computation.


Bruno





Edgar



On Saturday, December 28, 2013 8:03:50 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King  
wrote:

Dear Edgar,


   Have you considered the possibility that the physical actions of  
matter and energy in the universe *ARE* the computations? If so,  
what problem did you have with this idea?



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:00 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

Brent,

What we need to understand here is that the actual equations of  
reality math that compute reality DO produce exact results. They  
have to because events actually happen. But the human math equations  
of decoherence etc. only produce probabilistic results. This is a  
good example of how reality math and human math are different. The  
Omnes/Everett interpretations mistakenly apply only to the human  
equations which are just descriptions, not actuators. E.g. Everett  
assumes that the human quantum equations somehow calculate reality  
but they don't, and therefore he falsely assumes an interpretation  
of the human math equations has something to do with reality but it  
doesn't. Therefore they have nothing to do with actual reality and  
in particular MWI doesn't apply to the actual math of reality and  
thus doesn't apply to actual reality.


Edgar




On Saturday, December 28, 2013 7:33:20 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:
On 12/28/2013 4:25 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 Brent,

 You are implying there is some difficulty in calculating specific  
decoherence results
 yet the people who are performing experiments in decoherence have  
no such problem in
 calculating them with no reference at all to either of your  
interpretations or choosing
 between them... The math works just fine in our single world and  
produces predictable

 results...

But it produces probabilities.  And the experiments confirm that the  
measured values are
random with the distribution predicted.  But each measurement only  
produces one of the
probable values.  So the question is how do you get from the  
probabilities, which is what
QM+decoherence predicts, to actual realized unique values?  Omnes  
just says what do you
expect QM is a probabilistic theory.  Everett says they all happen  
every time with
different values and we 'happen' every time as observers with  
correlated experiences.


What do you say?

Brent

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Bruno,

   I think that you are reading too much into what I wrote. Interleaving.


On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 7:07 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 28 Dec 2013, at 17:07, Stephen Paul King wrote:

 I agree with what you wrote to Richard. If we then consider interactions
 between multiple separate QM systems, there will be a low level where the
 many are only one and thus the superposition of state remains. It can be
 shown that at the separation level there will also be one but it will not
 be in superposition, it will be what decoherence describes. But this high
 level version is subject to GR adjustments and so will not be nice and
 well behaved.


 OK, but I do not assume any physical theory in the derivation that
 physics is a branch of arithmetic.


Can we safely assume anything about what one observer may have as
perceptions? Could the perceptions, however they may be define, include
some means to distinguish one entity from another within those
perceptions. A crude physics theory might be equivalent to some method
for an observer to make predictions of the content of its perceptions,
assuming some form of memory is possible...



 What you say can make sense in the study of the question that QM/GR, or
 whatever empirically inferred, confirms or refutes comp.


I do not think that comp can be empirically refuted in the experimental
sense of hard science! It addresses questions that are deeper than
physics.




 Bruno



 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 4:25 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 27 Dec 2013, at 19:52, Richard Ruquist wrote:

 I do not know if it matters but quantum mechanics is based on the Dirac
 equation, not Shrodinger's equation



 This indeed change nothing. I agree with Jason. QM without collapse is
 many-world.
 If there is no collapse, QM (classical or relativistic) entails that if I
 decide if I go to the North or to the South for Holiday and base my choice
 on he usual spin superposition of some electron, I (3-1 view) end up being
 superposed in both South and North, and the unicity of my experience can be
 considered as equivalent with the computationalist first person
 indeterminacy. With comp used here, the physical universe is not
 duplicated, as it simply does not exist in any primitive way, so it can be
 seen as a differentiation of the consciousness flux in arithmetic.
 With EPR, or better Bell's theorem indeed, it is very hard to keep a
 local physical reality unique in QM. The collapse does not make any
 sense. But there is no need to be realist on many world, as there is no
 world at all, only computations already defined in a tiny part of the
 arithmetical reality. That tiny part of arithmetic is quite small compared
 to the whole arithmetical truth, but still something very big compared to a
 unique local physical cosmos.

 Bruno





 On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 1:14 PM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.comwrote:




 On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 12:18 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.netwrote:

 Jason,

 Neither of the first 2 points you make here seem correct to me but you
 don't express them clearly enough for me to know why you are saying what
 you are saying.

 As to the first point, the present moment is self-evident direct
 experience


 Do you think the present moment is the only point in time to exist, to
 the exclusion of all others?  If so, please explain how this is
 self-evident.


 whereas wave function collapse is an outlandish interpretation of
 quantum equations which has no basis at all in direct experience,


 I agree with this.  But then why isn't it also outlandish to presume
 past moment's in time must cease to exist, just because we are not in them?
 It seems to be a needless addition to the theory (just like wave function
 collapse), to keep our concept of what is real, limited to that which we
 are aware of from our particular vantage point.

 To be clear, the collapse theories say that even though the equations of
 quantum mechanics predict multiple outcomes for measurements, they suppose
 that those other possibilities simply disappear, because we (from our
 vantage point in one branch) did not experience those other vantage points
 in other branches. Hence they presume only one is reified, to the exclusion
 of all others. This us-centered thinking is how I see presentism. It says
 that only one point in time is reified, to the exclusion of all others.


 or in quantum theory = the actual equations.


 If you believe quantum theory is based entirely on the actual equations
 (e.g. the Schrodinger equation), this leads naturally to many-worlds. It is
 only by added additional postulates (such as collapse) that you can hope to
 restrict quantum mechanics to a single world. All attempts at this which I
 have seen seem ad hoc and completely unnecessary.


 Anyway the theory of decoherence put wave function collapse to rest
 long ago



 You need to clarify here. Decoherence is used by some to say when
 collapse happens (without 

Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 11:37, LizR wrote:


On 29 December 2013 13:11, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
Jason and John,

If something is random it can't be computed by any deterministic  
process. That's the meaning.


I thought the digits of pi were random, but computable by a  
deterministic process?



Well, this is just a question of vocabulary, and we have to agree on  
some definition.


Empirically, we know that pi pass the statistical test of normality,  
and so it is random in that sense (but this is empirical, and the  
question of pi being normal is an open problem in math).


Of course the digit are computable, and so pi is not random, in the  
incompressibility sense.


random is just a fuzzy terms which can have different meaning in  
different context. Passing normality test is a weak notion of  
randomness, compatible with computable. Being incompressible is a  
stronger form of randomness. The second notion implies the first, but  
the first does not imply the second, like pi illustrates indeed.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: God or not?

2013-12-29 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:26 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I use Platonism, where God == Truth.


So God is my dog just took a dump.

 God is not that much a bad name.


It is a VERY bad name if someone sincerely wishes to avoid confusion and
wants to use language honestly. Never mind what you write here at least be
honest with yourself and ask do I really want to avoid confusion?. Do I
really want to use language honestly? If so then it would be better to say
it's true that my dog just took a dump.

  John K Clark

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Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch



On Dec 29, 2013, at 4:37 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:


On 29 December 2013 13:11, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
Jason and John,

If something is random it can't be computed by any deterministic  
process. That's the meaning.


I thought the digits of pi were random, but computable by a  
deterministic process?


The digits themselves are thought to be uniformily distributed, but  
they are of course completely deterministic, as well as compressible  
(since a short program can generate them).


So it meets at most one of the three definitions for random that I gave.

Jason



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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 1:53 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 With Quantum Mechanics NOTHING is a wave function, that is to say no
 observable quantity is. The wave function is a calculation device of no
 more reality than lines of longitude and latitude. If you want to talk
 about reality you've got to SQUARE the wave function, and even then all you
 get is a probability not a certainty; not only that but the wave function
 contains imaginary numbers so 2 different wave functions can yield the
 exact same probability when you square it.


  Sure, I agree if you want to define 'things' as decoherence


I define a thing as anything observable; it's what most people mean when
they say something like concrete reality.

 rather than the wave functions that decohere to produce them. That's
 standard QM. I'm just using common parlance.


Quantum Mechanics can be formulated in a way that makes no use of wave
functions whatsoever, in fact that was the way  Heisenberg originally did
it. It was only 6 months later that Schrodinger came up with his wave
equation. Both methods come up with the exact same probability prediction
and which method used in the calculation is entirely a matter of personal
taste. And there is no arguing in matters of taste.

 But this is irrelevant to my points.


Your point was everything is a wavefunction and your point was about as
far from the truth as it's possible to get.

  John K Clark

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch



On Dec 29, 2013, at 8:17 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:


Jason,

You agree No one is denying the reality of the present, just that  
it is the only reality.


OK, that's immense progress we are making!

So, the present moment does exist, and we agree on that. So now the  
only issue is that you presumably believe in block time, that all  
other moments of time actually exist. If you do then please explain  
to me why the present moment seems so real and privileged and all  
other moments don't?


It is kind of like how here seems privledged to me compared to other  
theres. I realize other theres exist too, and are no less real  
than the one here I happen to be in. It is only my experience in  
this location that makes the location feel more real than others.


I start from this and extend all the same reasoning to this time vs.  
other times which I do not happen to be in.




And if all other moments in time actually exist do you understand  
how many laws of physics that violates?


None do far as I am aware.  Einstein came to believe in eternalism in  
years following his discovery of relativity.


For one thing the actual mass and energy of all those moments must  
also exist which means there is an enormous violation of the  
conservation of mass-energy.


Energy and mass remain constant from one moment to the next. No energy  
is created or destroyed in the block view.





If you believe in block time you have a lot of explaining away to do!


If you have any more questions you think are difficult for blick time  
to answer I would be happy to see them.


Allow me ask you a question about presentism: What evidence is there  
that past points in time cease to exist?


Jason



Edgar

On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:18:50 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

Pierz,

The common universal present moment is defined and measured simply  
by observers observing they are in the same moment at the same time.  
It is self-evident and experimentally proved that they can be in the  
same present moment even if their clock time t values are not  
simultaneous. And it's not just an event, as some have maintained,  
its the standard mode of existence of everyone throughout their  
lives to share the same present moment with others.


Clocks? We don't need no stinkin clocks! Clocks don't measure P- 
time, they measure clock time.

:-)

P-time doesn't fail. It can't. It is simply impossible for anyone or  
anything to escape the present moment. That's the basic fact of our  
existence for goodness sakes! The present moment is the locus, and  
only locus of reality. Without a present moment there could be no  
reality. The presence of reality manifests as the present moment


No one is denying the reality of the present, just that it is the  
only reality.


Jason


Your last paragraph fails because it is all about measuring CLOCK  
time, not P-time. It's irrelevant to the discussion of P-time.


P-time is the radial dimension of our hyperspherical universe back  
to the point of the big bang. The surface is our 3-dimensional  
universe in the present moment which is the locus of reality and all  
that exists. As the P-time radial dimension extends happening occurs  
within the present moment and the current state of the universe in  
continually computed. This is experienced as 'proper time' which is  
always the same no matter at what rate clock time is running.


The only way P-time can be measured that I know of is from Omega,  
the curvature of the universe, from which we can compute the radius  
= P-time dimension. Anyone know what that equation would be?


Edgar



On Saturday, December 28, 2013 8:33:23 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:
Everyone else has made excellent, well laid-out arguments against  
your position Edgar, but I will throw in another perspective. You  
ask whether two observers 'share the same common present moment'.  
However you don't define what that means exactly. If I imagine your  
scenario of two observers who aren't me then of course they seem to  
share the same moment, regardless of how far apart they are. To say  
they don't share the same moment would be like saying that one  
exists and the other doesn't at some point in time, right? But this  
is really begging the question about what a point in time is. You  
seem to be relying on an intuitive sense of time that is not bound  
to anything measurable (the hidden point of my tongue-in-cheek 'U- 
time'). How need to define what you mean by sharing the same  
moment and you need to show how it is to be measured. I submit that  
the only method of making such a determination is by means of  
something that measures clock time. For example, a clock! And you  
already agree that clocks will show that the observers don't  
precisely agree about the simultaneity of events.


In fact, to make the whole situation clearer, it is better not to  
use observers 

Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch



On Dec 29, 2013, at 8:19 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:


Jason,

O, for God's sakes! You believe souls exist?


I do. I think many accepted and leading theories in science suggest  
that the soul for lack of a better word. It is that each of us has  
that feels and experiences, it is immaterial, it transcends the  
physics of this universe, in that it can travel between universes,  
it is immortal, eternal, and it can even experience reincarnation,  
ressurection to realms of unlimited freedom (heavens, paradises,  
nirvana), and can even unite with a superior being (divine union,  
moksha).


In short, many of the mystics and various religious ideas appear to be  
correct given our current sciebtific understanding, and purely  
atheistic and materialistic views of science are, as a consequence,  
wrong.


I don't expect you to take all these claims at face value, as each  
requires substantial explanation. I am, however, in the process of  
writing a book that explains each of these concepts in more detail and  
shows exactly how each idea follows durectly from different well- 
established scientific theories.



I thought this was supposed to be a scientific forum!



Who is to say that souls are not amendble to scientific investigation?

Why must all scientific theories necessarily be silent on such matters?

Jason



Edgar


On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:24:04 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:27 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

Richard and Stephen,

ER=EPR will have a hell of a time explaining the soul since the soul  
doesn't exist!


Edgar



How do you know it doesn't exist?

Jason



On Saturday, December 28, 2013 9:58:22 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Stephen Paul King  
step...@provensecure.com wrote:
Something to think about: http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013/12/131205142218.htm# 
!
Yes. String theory is the great white hope. Lubos Motl even suggests  
that ER=EPR may explain the concept of the soul.

http://motls.blogspot.com/2013/12/quantum-gravity-and-afterlife.html


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 5:53 PM, Liz R liz...@gmail.com wrote:
On Saturday, 28 December 2013 06:18:26 UTC+13, Edgar L. Owen  wrote:

Many worlds is probably the most outlandishly improbable theory of  
all time, and should have been laughed out of existence as soon as  
it was proposed. Do


Fortunately, science is not decided on what seems probable to  
humans, or we would never have realised that there is anything  
except the Earth and some lights in the sky. The MWI is very far  
from the most outlandishly improbable theory of all time, I can name  
a dozen ontological theories that are more outlandish without even  
asking WIkipedia, such as the idea that the world was created by the  
shenannigans of various gods.


you actually understand what it says or implies? Basically that  
every quantum event that ever occured in the history of the universe  
spawns an entire new universe of all its possible outcomes and every  
event in every one of those new universes does the same. This  
immediately exponentially escalates in the first few minutes of the  
universe into uncountable new universes and has been expanding  
exponentially ever since over 14.7 billion years! Just try to  
calculate the


The MWI is a straight interpretation of
...
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Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

I want to try to state my model of how spacetime is created by quantum 
events more clearly and succinctly.

Begin by Imagining a world in which everything is computational. In 
particular where the usually imagined single pre-existing dimensional 
spacetime background does NOT exist.

Now consider how we can get a spacetime to emerge from the computations in 
a way that conceptually unifies GR and QM, eliminates all quantum 
'paradoxes', and explains the source of quantum randomness in the world.

There is an easy straightforward way though it takes a little effort to 
understand, and one must first set aside some common sense notions about 
reality.

 Assume a basic computation that occurs is the conservation of particle 
properties in any particle interaction in comp space. 

The conservation of particle properties essentially takes the amounts of 
all particle properties of incoming particles and redistributes them among 
the outgoing particles in every particle interaction.

The results of such computational events is that the particle properties of 
all outgoing particles of every event are interrelated. They have to be to 
be conserved in toto. This is called 'entanglement'. The outgoing particles 
of every event are always entangled on the particle properties conserved in 
that event.

Now some particle properties (spin, mass, energy) are dimensional particle 
properties. These are entangled too by particle interaction events. In 
other words, all dimensional particle properties between the outgoing 
particles of every event are interrelated. They have to be for them to be 
conserved. These relationships are exact. They must be to satisfy the 
conservation laws.

Now assume every such dimensional entanglement effectively creates 
a spacetime point, defined as a dimensional interrelationship.

Now assume those particles keep interacting with other particles. The 
result will be an ever expanding network of dimensional interrelationships 
which in effect creates a mini spacetime manifold of dimensional 
interrelations.

Now assume a human observer at the classical level which is continuously 
involved in myriads of particle interaction (e.g. millions of photons 
impinging on its retina). The effect will be that all those continuous 
particle events will result in a vast network of dimensional 
interrelationships that is perceived by the human observer as a classical 
spacetime.

He cannot observe any actual empty space because it doesn't actually exist. 
All that he can actually observe is actual events with dimensional 
relationships to him. Now the structure that emerges, due to the math of 
the particle property conservation laws in aggregate, is consistent and 
manifests at the classical level as the structure of our familiar 
spacetime. 

But this, like all aspects of the classical 'physical' world, is actually a 
computational illusion. This classical spacetime doesn't actually exist. It 
must be continually maintained by myriads of continuing quantum events or 
it instantly vanishes back into the computational reality from which it 
emerged.


Now an absolutely critical point in understand how this model conceptually 
unifies GR and QM and eliminates quantum paradox is that every 
mini-spacetime network that emerges from quantum events is absolutely 
independent of all others (a completely separate space) UNTIL it is linked 
and aligned with other networks through some common quantum event. When 
that occurs, and only then, all alignments of both networks are resolved 
into a single spacetime common to all its elements.

E.g. in the spin entanglement 'paradox'. When the particles are created 
their spins are exactly equal and opposite to each other, but only in their 
own frame in their own mini spacetime. They have to be to obey the 
conservation laws. That is why their orientation is unknowable to a human 
observer in his UNconnected spacetime frame of the laboratory.

However when the spin of one particle is measured that event links and 
aligns the mini-spacetime of the particles with the spacetime of the 
laboratory and that makes the spin orientations of both particles aligned 
with that of the laboratory and thereafter the spin orientation of the 
other particle will always be found equal and opposite to that of the first.

There is no FTL communication, there is no 'non-locality', there is no 
'paradox'. It all depends on the recognition that the spin orientations of 
the particles exist in a completely separate unaligned spacetime fragment 
from that of the laboratory until they are linked and aligned via a 
measurement event.

Edgar

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jason,

O, for God's sakes. No wonder you believe in block time, MW, the 
nonexistence of the present moment and the tooth fairy!;-)

Just wait till I present my theory of consciousness!

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 12:04:31 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Dec 29, 2013, at 8:19 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript: 
 wrote:

 Jason,

 O, for God's sakes! You believe souls exist? 


 I do. I think many accepted and leading theories in science suggest that 
 the soul for lack of a better word. It is that each of us has that feels 
 and experiences, it is immaterial, it transcends the physics of this 
 universe, in that it can travel between universes, it is immortal, 
 eternal, and it can even experience reincarnation, ressurection to realms 
 of unlimited freedom (heavens, paradises, nirvana), and can even unite with 
 a superior being (divine union, moksha). 

 In short, many of the mystics and various religious ideas appear to be 
 correct given our current sciebtific understanding, and purely atheistic 
 and materialistic views of science are, as a consequence, wrong.

 I don't expect you to take all these claims at face value, as each 
 requires substantial explanation. I am, however, in the process of writing 
 a book that explains each of these concepts in more detail and shows 
 exactly how each idea follows durectly from different well-established 
 scientific theories.

 I thought this was supposed to be a scientific forum!


 Who is to say that souls are not amendble to scientific investigation? 

 Why must all scientific theories necessarily be silent on such matters?

 Jason


 Edgar


 On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:24:04 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:27 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Richard and Stephen,

 ER=EPR will have a hell of a time explaining the soul since the soul 
 doesn't exist! 

 Edgar



 How do you know it doesn't exist?

 Jason
  



 On Saturday, December 28, 2013 9:58:22 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Stephen Paul King 
 step...@provensecure.com wrote:

 Something to think about: 
 http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013/12/131205142218.htm#!
 http://www.sciencedaily.com/r

 ...

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 14:52, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

Glad we agree that decoherence falsifies collapse. That's a good  
start!


But decoherence also falsifies MW.


Non collapse = many-worlds, to me. If I make a quantum choice, by QM,  
I will put myself in a superposition and execute the two alternative  
of the experience. If one of the two terms disappears, there is  
collapse.




First of all you have to understand what a wavefunction is. It's not  
a physical object.


QM is the assumption that particles and fields follows some wave  
equation. If you doubt that the physical reality is described by the  
wave, you doubt QM. And this has nothing to do with the interpretation  
of QM.






It's a description of a physical object in human math.


You confuse the theories and what the theory are intended for.





Basically in QM its formulated as the 'answer' to a question that  
can be asked about a physical object.


That's like defining an atom by the set of experimental set up capable  
of analysing it.


Then you refer all the times to a reality, and I still don't know what  
you assume.






Second, properly understood, there are no 'branches' to a  
wavefunction.


Relatively to some observable, there are. What is your semantic of a  
quantum decision?





The correct interpretation of a wavefunction is not a description of  
a physical object (electron) smeared out in a fixed pre-existing  
background space common to all events, it's a description of how  
space can dimensionally emerge if that particle decoheres with some  
other particle, in other words it's the range of possibilities for  
the dimensional relationship that would occur if it interacted with  
another particle's wavefunction.


That's not so bad way to see the things, perhaps. It looks like  
explaining gravity through quantum entanglements. I am OK with this.  
In physics (which I don't assume any theory, as a constraints in the  
mind-body problem).

In no way this makes alternate realities in oblivion.





Thus all this occurs not in physical space, but in logical  
computational space. It is only when wavefunctions actually  
interfere and decohere with each other that actual dimensional  
relationships arise, and therefore a point in a dimensional space is  
created. This is how dimensional spaces emerge piecewise from  
quantum decoherence events.


So you do get many individual spacetime fragments emerging out of  
logical computational space by this process, but they are not  
separate universes, because they in turn continually merge via  
common events that connect and align them. The result of googles of  
these processes is the simulacrum of classical spacetime. It is the  
origin of physicality from computational space.


That's the way it works And this model also unifies GR and QM  
and resolves all quantum 'paradox' at the same time, as well as  
explaining the source of quantum randomness, so it's an excellent  
model. You really need to understand it.


Everett had an insight but since he didn't understand how spacetime  
emerges from, is actually created by, quantum events in  
computational information space, he followed it off into never never  
land...



What are your assumptions, and what is your equation or theorem?

Bruno






Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 8:31:38 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 Dec 2013, at 19:30, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Not at all. Decoherence falsifies collapse.


?

That is my point. Decoherence falsifies collapse. Exactly.




 Decoherence falsifies many worlds.

Decoherence is just the contagion of superposed states to the  
observer/

environment. It vindicates the many-worlds.

Many-worlds is not an interpretation, but an easy consequence of the
linearity of the wave, and the linearity of the tensor product.

That is so true, than when the founders got this, they introduces a
new axiom for the measurement which basically says that quantum
mechanics is wrong for the observer, to avoid the spreading of the
superposition. But that is ad hoc, and contradict the idea that
physicists obeys to physical laws.




 With decoherence everything is a wavefunction and those wave
 functions just keep on going and interacting in this single world.

The waves don't interact, and the superposition, by linearity, never
disappeared, and spread at light speed.

QM-without-collapse = MW.

Explain me with only QM how a branch of the wave could ever disappear.

Then with comp, arithmetic contains all dreams, and QM becomes the
digital seen from a first person plural points of view. the math
confirms this up to now. This makes mono-universe still less
plausible.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 15:19, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Jason,

O, for God's sakes! You believe souls exist? I thought this was  
supposed to be a scientific forum!



I guess *you* take seriously some theory of soul, to be so sure that  
it does not exist, or could not have any sense.


soul is often used to denote the first person part of the person  
(owning body (and bodies)).


With computationalism, you can somehow save your soul on a disk. Of  
course, in term of the first person, you only save the abstract  
ability to manifest yourself in the local environment.


The soul is the mental private subjective space.

It is also, arguably, the knower.

Bruno




Edgar


On Saturday, December 28, 2013 11:24:04 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 10:27 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

Richard and Stephen,

ER=EPR will have a hell of a time explaining the soul since the soul  
doesn't exist!


Edgar



How do you know it doesn't exist?

Jason



On Saturday, December 28, 2013 9:58:22 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:



On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Stephen Paul King  
step...@provensecure.com wrote:
Something to think about: http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013/12/131205142218.htm# 
!
Yes. String theory is the great white hope. Lubos Motl even suggests  
that ER=EPR may explain the concept of the soul.

http://motls.blogspot.com/2013/12/quantum-gravity-and-afterlife.html


On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 5:53 PM, Liz R liz...@gmail.com wrote:
On Saturday, 28 December 2013 06:18:26 UTC+13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Many worlds is probably the most outlandishly improbable theory of  
all time, and should have been laughed out of existence as soon as  
it was proposed. Do


Fortunately, science is not decided on what seems probable to  
humans, or we would never have realised that there is anything  
except the Earth and some lights in the sky. The MWI is very far  
from the most outlandishly improbable theory of all time, I can name  
a dozen ontological theories that are more outlandish without even  
asking WIkipedia, such as the idea that the world was created by the  
shenannigans of various gods.


you actually understand what it says or implies? Basically that  
every quantum event that ever occured in the history of the universe  
spawns an entire new universe of all its possible outcomes and every  
event in every one of those new universes does the same. This  
immediately exponentially escalates in the first few minutes of the  
universe into uncountable new universes and has been expanding  
exponentially ever since over 14.7 billion years! Just try to  
calculate the


The MWI is a straight interpretation of
...

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Dec 2013, at 17:14, John Clark wrote:

On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:26 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 I use Platonism, where God == Truth.

So God is my dog just took a dump.


Oh! I hope your dog is OK.




 God is not that much a bad name.

It is a VERY bad name if someone sincerely wishes to avoid confusion  
and wants to use language honestly. Never mind what you write here  
at least be honest with yourself and ask do I really want to avoid  
confusion?.


Yes. In science we have just to agree on axioms, or semi-axioms.





Do I really want to use language honestly? If so then it would be  
better to say it's true that my dog just took a dump.



When you say it's true that my dog just took a dump, you tell me  
something about your dog.


When I said God == Truth I said, in a context of TOE search, guided by  
the comp hypothesis, something on both God and Truth. The nuance will  
remains, as God = Truth is probably worse than a G* minus G  
sentence. It is not a theorem of machine, only in his computationalist  
(yet non computable) meta-theology.


Take a machine or number m. I define the theology of m by the set of  
Gödel numbers of all the true arithmetical sentences having m has  
parameter (true in the standard model). I define the science of m by  
the set of Gödel numbers of all the arithmetical sentences having m  
has parameter that m can prove relatively to hypothetical universal  
numbers.


Read the Plotinus paper if you want to see an arithmetical  
interpretation of Plotinus, and its testability in the  
computationalist case.


You don't need to believe in anything to understand the relations, and  
to understand that we can have a non Aristotelian view of reality,  
which is still rationalist, yet more open to well, surprise(s) in the  
theological studies.


Bruno




  John K Clark





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Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 2:37 AM, LizR wrote:
On 29 December 2013 13:11, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net mailto:edgaro...@att.net 
wrote:


Jason and John,

If something is random it can't be computed by any deterministic process. 
That's the
meaning.

I thought the digits of pi were random, but computable by a deterministic 
process?


Different definitions of random.

Brent

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

To answer your last question please refer to the new topic I just started 
Another stab at how spacetime emergences computationally or something 
like that. I forget exactly how I titled it...

Best,
Edgar

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 12:36:05 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 29 Dec 2013, at 14:52, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Bruno,

 Glad we agree that decoherence falsifies collapse. That's a good start!

 But decoherence also falsifies MW. 


 Non collapse = many-worlds, to me. If I make a quantum choice, by QM, I 
 will put myself in a superposition and execute the two alternative of the 
 experience. If one of the two terms disappears, there is collapse.



 First of all you have to understand what a wavefunction is. It's not a 
 physical object. 


 QM is the assumption that particles and fields follows some wave equation. 
 If you doubt that the physical reality is described by the wave, you doubt 
 QM. And this has nothing to do with the interpretation of QM.




 It's a description of a physical object in human math. 


 You confuse the theories and what the theory are intended for. 





 Basically in QM its formulated as the 'answer' to a question that can be 
 asked about a physical object.


 That's like defining an atom by the set of experimental set up capable of 
 analysing it.

 Then you refer all the times to a reality, and I still don't know what you 
 assume. 




 Second, properly understood, there are no 'branches' to a wavefunction.


 Relatively to some observable, there are. What is your semantic of a 
 quantum decision? 




 The correct interpretation of a wavefunction is not a description of a 
 physical object (electron) smeared out in a fixed pre-existing background 
 space common to all events, it's a description of how space can 
 dimensionally emerge if that particle decoheres with some other particle, 
 in other words it's the range of possibilities for the dimensional 
 relationship that would occur if it interacted with another particle's 
 wavefunction.


 That's not so bad way to see the things, perhaps. It looks like explaining 
 gravity through quantum entanglements. I am OK with this. In physics (which 
 I don't assume any theory, as a constraints in the mind-body problem).
 In no way this makes alternate realities in oblivion.




 Thus all this occurs not in physical space, but in logical computational 
 space. It is only when wavefunctions actually interfere and decohere with 
 each other that actual dimensional relationships arise, and therefore a 
 point in a dimensional space is created. This is how dimensional spaces 
 emerge piecewise from quantum decoherence events.

 So you do get many individual spacetime fragments emerging out of logical 
 computational space by this process, but they are not separate universes, 
 because they in turn continually merge via common events that connect and 
 align them. The result of googles of these processes is the simulacrum of 
 classical spacetime. It is the origin of physicality from computational 
 space.

 That's the way it works And this model also unifies GR and QM and 
 resolves all quantum 'paradox' at the same time, as well as explaining the 
 source of quantum randomness, so i

 ...

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate computationally a random 
number, and that is right, if we want generate only that numbers. but a simple 
counting algorithm generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... 
generates all random finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible? 6999500235148668 in base 6999500235148669 is 
just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter combinators to 
generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences which indeed 
will depend of the language used (here combinators).


Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by adding some constant, 
which will depend of the universal language.


It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are random in 
that sense.

Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base, but if you allow 
change of base, you will need to send the base with the number in the message. If you 
fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a compression of that particular number base, for 
that language, and it is part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist 
working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only holds in 
the limit.

Brent

Each particular language will have some exception on the incompressibility issue. That 
should be part of the role of the variable constant in the general universal definition.


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 5:59 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Liz,

Reality doesn't seem to have any difficulty computing the results of random choices. 
That's how practically all computations occur. If we assume, or define, reality as 
computational then reality is computing random results by definition. It's obviously 
something that reality math does quite well.


It's not Church-Turing, but it might be the way the world works.

Brent

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 6:10 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Liz,

No, it is clear that your here is not the same as mine because you are not here. However 
it is quite clear that you absolutely must be doing something in the exact same present 
moment that I write this sentence. That is the present moment that we share.


No, that's not clear at all.  Since you and Liz are not in the same place and the speed of 
light is the same in all inertial frames, there exist a whole range of Liz's moments which 
may correspond to your moment depending on which moving frame is arbitrarily chosen to 
determine simultaneity.




Do you somehow imagine that there is some gap in your time line that takes you out of 
existence as I write this sentence? If there isn't then you must agree we do share a 
common present moment...


But it is not uniquely defined.

Brent



Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:27:45 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

It's self-evident that everyone has a present moment, which they will all 
agree is
now. It's also self-evident that they have a current position, which 
everyone will
tell you is here.

Hence everyone is at the same time, and in the same place.

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 8:14 AM, John Clark wrote:
On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 11:26 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 I use Platonism, where God == Truth.



I know what truth means as an attribute of a sentence.  But I don't know what Truth 
means?  The set of all true sentences...including This sentence is not in the set of true 
sentences.?


Brent
When Herod asked Jesus what truth was, Jesus replied that truth was every word that 
proceeded from the mouth of God. Perhaps he should have said that truth was a provisional 
reification of the most useful model.

   --- Anne O'Reilly



So God is my dog just took a dump.

 God is not that much a bad name.


It is a VERY bad name if someone sincerely wishes to avoid confusion and wants to use 
language honestly. Never mind what you write here at least be honest with yourself and 
ask do I really want to avoid confusion?. Do I really want to use language honestly? 
If so then it would be better to say it's true that my dog just took a dump.


  John K Clark




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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread John Clark
On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:08 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote

  Are faster-than-light influences involved?


   No.


That means you think things are local.

 2. When it is determined whether or not Schrodinger's cat is alive or
 dead?


   The cat is always either dead or alive. It's just a matter of someone
 making a measurement to find out.


That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a
fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
or both MUST be wrong. And yes I know that's crazy, but complain to the
universe not to me. Your ideas are not crazy, and that is exactly why
they're wrong. If I were making a universe I'd make it your way too, but
unfortunately Yehowah got the job not me.

  John K Clark

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread Stephen Paul King
Hi Edgar,

  I like Kevin Knuth's theory of emergent space time. It is far more simple 
and does not need to get into quantum aspects other than a basic notion of 
an observer. An observer is a simple entity whose state is changed as the 
result of an observation/interaction: A nice video of one of his talks can 
be found on the Perimeter Institute website.

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 12:16:28 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All,

 I want to try to state my model of how spacetime is created by quantum 
 events more clearly and succinctly.

 Begin by Imagining a world in which everything is computational. In 
 particular where the usually imagined single pre-existing dimensional 
 spacetime background does NOT exist.

 Now consider how we can get a spacetime to emerge from the computations in 
 a way that conceptually unifies GR and QM, eliminates all quantum 
 'paradoxes', and explains the source of quantum randomness in the world.

 There is an easy straightforward way though it takes a little effort to 
 understand, and one must first set aside some common sense notions about 
 reality.

  Assume a basic computation that occurs is the conservation of particle 
 properties in any particle interaction in comp space. 

 The conservation of particle properties essentially takes the amounts of 
 all particle properties of incoming particles and redistributes them among 
 the outgoing particles in every particle interaction.

 The results of such computational events is that the particle properties 
 of all outgoing particles of every event are interrelated. They have to be 
 to be conserved in toto. This is called 'entanglement'. The outgoing 
 particles of every event are always entangled on the particle properties 
 conserved in that event.

 Now some particle properties (spin, mass, energy) are dimensional particle 
 properties. These are entangled too by particle interaction events. In 
 other words, all dimensional particle properties between the outgoing 
 particles of every event are interrelated. They have to be for them to be 
 conserved. These relationships are exact. They must be to satisfy the 
 conservation laws.

 Now assume every such dimensional entanglement effectively creates 
 a spacetime point, defined as a dimensional interrelationship.

 Now assume those particles keep interacting with other particles. The 
 result will be an ever expanding network of dimensional interrelationships 
 which in effect creates a mini spacetime manifold of dimensional 
 interrelations.

 Now assume a human observer at the classical level which is continuously 
 involved in myriads of particle interaction (e.g. millions of photons 
 impinging on its retina). The effect will be that all those continuous 
 particle events will result in a vast network of dimensional 
 interrelationships that is perceived by the human observer as a classical 
 spacetime.

 He cannot observe any actual empty space because it doesn't actually 
 exist. All that he can actually observe is actual events with dimensional 
 relationships to him. Now the structure that emerges, due to the math of 
 the particle property conservation laws in aggregate, is consistent and 
 manifests at the classical level as the structure of our familiar 
 spacetime. 

 But this, like all aspects of the classical 'physical' world, is actually 
 a computational illusion. This classical spacetime doesn't actually exist. 
 It must be continually maintained by myriads of continuing quantum events 
 or it instantly vanishes back into the computational reality from which it 
 emerged.


 Now an absolutely critical point in understand how this model conceptually 
 unifies GR and QM and eliminates quantum paradox is that every 
 mini-spacetime network that emerges from quantum events is absolutely 
 independent of all others (a completely separate space) UNTIL it is linked 
 and aligned with other networks through some common quantum event. When 
 that occurs, and only then, all alignments of both networks are resolved 
 into a single spacetime common to all its elements.

 E.g. in the spin entanglement 'paradox'. When the particles are created 
 their spins are exactly equal and opposite to each other, but only in their 
 own frame in their own mini spacetime. They have to be to obey the 
 conservation laws. That is why their orientation is unknowable to a human 
 observer in his UNconnected spacetime frame of the laboratory.

 However when the spin of one particle is measured that event links and 
 aligns the mini-spacetime of the particles with the spacetime of the 
 laboratory and that makes the spin orientations of both particles aligned 
 with that of the laboratory and thereafter the spin orientation of the 
 other particle will always be found equal and opposite to that of the first.

 There is no FTL communication, there is no 'non-locality', there is no 
 'paradox'. It all depends on the recognition that the spin orientations of 
 the particles 

Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 06:16, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Begin by Imagining a world in which everything is computational. In
 particular where the usually imagined single pre-existing dimensional
 spacetime background does NOT exist.


How would this work? What is doing this computing, and how and where is it
doing it? Computation is generally considered to be a time-based operation,
a series of rule-governed state transitions. It also appears to require
some form of space (e.g. Turing's infinite tape and state table) in which
the machine state and the input and output are to be stored. The only way I
know of to not assume space and time as a fundamental background is Bruno's
idea that computation can be made to operate indexically inside
arithmetical realism. Are you proposing something like that? If so, please
elaborate. One cannot just imagine a world in which everything is
computational - to have an ontology based on computation, one needs a
framework which starts from the nature of computation and explains how it
can be instantiated without any supporting structures (like time or
hardware).

Once you've explained and justified this initial assumption, we can proceed
to the next step in your argument.

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Re: All randomness is quantum...

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
Well OK, but that's *one* way in which randomness isn't quantum.


On 30 December 2013 07:59, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 2:37 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 29 December 2013 13:11, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jason and John,

  If something is random it can't be computed by any deterministic
 process. That's the meaning.

   I thought the digits of pi were random, but computable by a
 deterministic process?


 Different definitions of random.


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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 6:15 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Cramer's transactional interpretation is non-local.

   Not really.  It's slower-than-light, but retro.


If you can reach the finish line of a race before you even hear the
starting gun I'd say you're pretty damn fast.

From Wikipedia:

The transactional interpretation of quantum mechanics is explicitly
non-local [...]  As such it incorporates the non-locality demonstrated by
the Bell test experiments and eliminates the observer dependent reality
that plagues the Copenhagen Interpretation

  John K Clark

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
Not quite, violations of Bell's inequality can also be explained by time
symmetry (Huw Price and John Bell, private communications).


On 30 December 2013 09:05, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:08 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote

   Are faster-than-light influences involved?


   No.


 That means you think things are local.

  2. When it is determined whether or not Schrodinger's cat is alive or
 dead?


   The cat is always either dead or alive. It's just a matter of someone
 making a measurement to find out.


 That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a
 fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
 that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
 or both MUST be wrong. And yes I know that's crazy, but complain to the
 universe not to me. Your ideas are not crazy, and that is exactly why
 they're wrong. If I were making a universe I'd make it your way too, but
 unfortunately Yehowah got the job not me.

   John K Clark



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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz,

Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the 
universal processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the 
computations compute dimensional space and CLOCK time.

There doesn't have to be any notion of physical space for computations to 
take place within. The take place in a purely pre-dimensional logical 
space. They are not running on any physical computer.

Edgar

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 3:25:01 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 30 December 2013 06:16, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net javascript:wrote:

 Begin by Imagining a world in which everything is computational. In 
 particular where the usually imagined single pre-existing dimensional 
 spacetime background does NOT exist.


 How would this work? What is doing this computing, and how and where is it 
 doing it? Computation is generally considered to be a time-based operation, 
 a series of rule-governed state transitions. It also appears to require 
 some form of space (e.g. Turing's infinite tape and state table) in which 
 the machine state and the input and output are to be stored. The only way I 
 know of to not assume space and time as a fundamental background is Bruno's 
 idea that computation can be made to operate indexically inside 
 arithmetical realism. Are you proposing something like that? If so, please 
 elaborate. One cannot just imagine a world in which everything is 
 computational - to have an ontology based on computation, one needs a 
 framework which starts from the nature of computation and explains how it 
 can be instantiated without any supporting structures (like time or 
 hardware).

 Once you've explained and justified this initial assumption, we can 
 proceed to the next step in your argument.



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
I think I've read enough to be fairly sure that Mr Owen doesn't understand
the problem. Brent just stated it uneqivocally. There is no unique mapping
from one observer's present moments to another's, or to put it another way,
there are an infinite number of equally valid mappings. It took scientists
a while to get their head around this (Eddington said sometime around 1910
that only 3 people understood it, or rather than he couldn't think who the
third one was, iirc) But we've now had 108 years in which to grasp this
fact, it checks out in countless experiments, it's built into the design of
the GPS system - there is no unique present moment.

(Another way to look at it is that the present moment is a hyperslice
through space-time, and the slices that go through a given event can be
oriented at various angles to the light cone of that event.)



On 30 December 2013 08:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 6:10 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz,

  No, it is clear that your here is not the same as mine because you are
 not here. However it is quite clear that you absolutely must be doing
 something in the exact same present moment that I write this sentence. That
 is the present moment that we share.


 No, that's not clear at all.  Since you and Liz are not in the same place
 and the speed of light is the same in all inertial frames, there exist a
 whole range of Liz's moments which may correspond to your moment depending
 on which moving frame is arbitrarily chosen to determine simultaneity.



  Do you somehow imagine that there is some gap in your time line that
 takes you out of existence as I write this sentence? If there isn't then
 you must agree we do share a common present moment...


 But it is not uniquely defined.

 Brent



  Edgar



 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:27:45 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 It's self-evident that everyone has a present moment, which they will all
 agree is now. It's also self-evident that they have a current position,
 which everyone will tell you is here.

  Hence everyone is at the same time, and in the same place.

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 9:16 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

All,

I want to try to state my model of how spacetime is created by quantum events more 
clearly and succinctly.


Begin by Imagining a world in which everything is computational. In particular where the 
usually imagined single pre-existing dimensional spacetime background does NOT exist.


Now consider how we can get a spacetime to emerge from the computations in a way that 
conceptually unifies GR and QM, eliminates all quantum 'paradoxes', and explains the 
source of quantum randomness in the world.


There is an easy straightforward way though it takes a little effort to understand, and 
one must first set aside some common sense notions about reality.


 Assume a basic computation that occurs is the conservation of particle properties in 
any particle interaction in comp space.


The conservation of particle properties essentially takes the amounts of all particle 
properties of incoming particles and redistributes them among the outgoing particles in 
every particle interaction.


The results of such computational events is that the particle properties of all outgoing 
particles of every event are interrelated. They have to be to be conserved in toto. This 
is called 'entanglement'. The outgoing particles of every event are always entangled on 
the particle properties conserved in that event.


Now some particle properties (spin, mass, energy) are dimensional particle properties. 
These are entangled too by particle interaction events. In other words, all dimensional 
particle properties between the outgoing particles of every event are interrelated. They 
have to be for them to be conserved. These relationships are exact. They must be to 
satisfy the conservation laws.


Now assume every such dimensional entanglement effectively creates a spacetime point, 
defined as a dimensional interrelationship.


Dimensional seems to have just been thrown in with no real meaning.  What is needed is 
an operational definition of interval between two such point.




Now assume those particles keep interacting with other particles. The result will be an 
ever expanding network of dimensional interrelationships which in effect creates a mini 
spacetime manifold of dimensional interrelations.


But you need to show the definition of interval produces a 3+1 spacetime.



Now assume a human observer at the classical level which is continuously involved in 
myriads of particle interaction (e.g. millions of photons impinging on its retina). The 
effect will be that all those continuous particle events will result in a vast network 
of dimensional interrelationships that is perceived by the human observer as a classical 
spacetime.


He cannot observe any actual empty space because it doesn't actually exist. All that he 
can actually observe is actual events with dimensional relationships to him. Now the 
structure that emerges, due to the math of the particle property conservation laws in 
aggregate, is consistent and manifests at the classical level as the structure of our 
familiar spacetime.


But this, like all aspects of the classical 'physical' world, is actually a 
computational illusion. This classical spacetime doesn't actually exist. It must be 
continually maintained by myriads of continuing quantum events or it instantly vanishes 
back into the computational reality from which it emerged.



Now an absolutely critical point in understand how this model conceptually unifies GR 
and QM and eliminates quantum paradox is that every mini-spacetime network that emerges 
from quantum events


Hold it!?  A mini-spacetime network consists of interaction events that must be related in 
some way to form a network.  So how can the network be abosultely independent of other 
networks?  They might even share some of the same events.


is absolutely independent of all others (a completely separate space) UNTIL it is linked 
and aligned with other networks through some common quantum event. When that occurs, and 
only then, all alignments of both networks are resolved into a single spacetime common 
to all its elements.


This requires that the intervals between events arise or be induced and that they form a 
3+1 spacetime.  What are the dynamics of this process?


Brent



E.g. in the spin entanglement 'paradox'. When the particles are created their spins are 
exactly equal and opposite to each other, but only in their own frame in their own mini 
spacetime. They have to be to obey the conservation laws. That is why their orientation 
is unknowable to a human observer in his UNconnected spacetime frame of the laboratory.


However when the spin of one particle is measured that event links and aligns the 
mini-spacetime of the particles with the spacetime of the laboratory and that makes the 
spin orientations of both particles aligned with that of the laboratory and thereafter 
the spin orientation of the other particle will always be found equal and opposite to 
that of 

Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 3:29 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 violations of Bell's inequality can also be explained by time symmetry
 (Huw Price and John Bell, private communications).


I have no idea what that private communication is, but I do know that time
is NOT symmetric.

  John K Clark

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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 9:36 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Dec 2013, at 14:52, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

Glad we agree that decoherence falsifies collapse. That's a good start!

But decoherence also falsifies MW.


Non collapse = many-worlds, to me. If I make a quantum choice, by QM, I will put myself 
in a superposition and execute the two alternative of the experience. If one of the two 
terms disappears, there is collapse.





First of all you have to understand what a wavefunction is. It's not a physical 
object.


QM is the assumption that particles and fields follows some wave equation.


Or matrix equation or path integral equations.

Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John,

No. See the explanation in my new topic Another shot at how spacetime 
emerges from computational reality and you will (hopefully) see why those 
problems are avoided...

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 3:05:24 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:08 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote

   Are faster-than-light influences involved?


   No.


 That means you think things are local. 

  2. When it is determined whether or not Schrodinger's cat is alive or 
 dead?


   The cat is always either dead or alive. It's just a matter of someone 
 making a measurement to find out.


 That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a 
 fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment 
 that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism 
 or both MUST be wrong. And yes I know that's crazy, but complain to the 
 universe not to me. Your ideas are not crazy, and that is exactly why 
 they're wrong. If I were making a universe I'd make it your way too, but 
 unfortunately Yehowah got the job not me.

   John K Clark





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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
 computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate
 only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers,
 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite
 incompressible strings,


 How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base
 6999500235148669 is just 10.



  You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
 combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
 This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences
 which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

  Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by adding
 some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

  It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are
 random in that sense.

  Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base, but
 if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the number
 in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a compression
 of that particular number base, for that language, and it is part of
 incompressibility theory that no definition exist working for all (small)
 numbers.


 Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only
 holds in the limit.

 Brent



Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2 digit
numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit
numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter
string, another shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't
keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of
them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some
strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible
compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller
than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are
tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while
making (the vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.

Jason



  Each particular language will have some exception on the
 incompressibility issue. That should be part of the role of the variable
 constant in the general universal definition.

  Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate 
computationally a
random number, and that is right, if we want generate only that numbers. 
but a
simple counting algorithm generating all numbers, 0, 1, 2,  
6999500235148668,
... generates all random finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible? 6999500235148668 in base
6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter 
combinators to
generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences 
which
indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by adding 
some
constant, which will depend of the universal language.

It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are 
random in
that sense.

Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base, but if 
you
allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the number in the
message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a compression of that
particular number base, for that language, and it is part of 
incompressibility
theory that no definition exist working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only 
holds in the
limit.

Brent



Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2 digit numbers than 1 
digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit numbers, and so on.  For any string 
you can represent using a shorter string, another shorter string must necessarily be 
displaced.  You can't keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't 
enough of them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some 
strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible compressed messages 
(with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller than the average size of all 
uncompressed messages.


The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are tailored to 
represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while making (the vast majority 
of) other messages slightly larger.


A good explanation.  But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size 
doesn't imply that any particular number is incompressible.  So isn't it the case that 
every finite number string is compressible in some algorithm?  So there's no sense to 
saying 6999500235148668 is random, but 11 is not, except relative to some 
given compression algorithm.


Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 3:05 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:08 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote

   Are faster-than-light influences involved?


   No.


 That means you think things are local.

  2. When it is determined whether or not Schrodinger's cat is alive or
 dead?


   The cat is always either dead or alive. It's just a matter of someone
 making a measurement to find out.


 That means you think things are realistic, and that means  I know for a
 fact your thinking is wrong, not crazy but wrong. We know from experiment
 that Bell's inequality is violated, and that means that locality or realism
 or both MUST be wrong.


Or measurements are multi-valued.  MWI has both locality and realism.

Of course it is still crazy. :-)

Jason


 And yes I know that's crazy, but complain to the universe not to me. Your
 ideas are not crazy, and that is exactly why they're wrong. If I were
 making a universe I'd make it your way too, but unfortunately Yehowah got
 the job not me.

   John K Clark



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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

  To that I would add the purely epistemic non-intepretation of Peres
 and Fuchs.


 No interpretation needed -- I can interpret this in two ways, one way
 is to just take the math and equations literally (this leads to Everett),
 the other is shut up and calculate, which leads no where really.







  2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either dead or
 alive. It's just a matter of someone making a measurement to find out.


  So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is neither
 alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely alive or definitely
 dead?  If you, (and I think you are), saying that the cat is always
 definitely alive or definitely dead, then about about the radioactive atom?
 Is it ever in a state of being decayed and not decayed? If you say no, it
 sounds like you are denying the reality of the superposition, which some
 interpretations do, but then this leads to difficulties explaining how
 quantum computers work (which require the superposition to exist).


  Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in one basis
 is a superposition in another.


  Can you provide a concrete example where some system can
 simultaneously be considered to be both in a superposition and not?  Is
 this like the superposition having collapsed for Wigner's friend while
 remaining for Wigner before he enters the room?



  ?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a complete
 set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.


  So then when is the system not in a superposition?


  When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.


  What makes it incoherent though?


 If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/= rho,
 it's incoherent.

 But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which any given
 pure state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a 'deadalive' basis in
 which Schrodinger's cat can be represented just like a spin-up state is a
 superposition is a spin-left basis.


So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y axis,
and then the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying themselves
continuously into diverging states (under MWI)?  Even though these states
only weakly interfere, are they not still superposed (that is, the
particles involved in a simultaneous combination of possessing many
different states for their properties)?



   An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a
 superposition according to MWI. It is just that the person doing the
 measurement is now also caught up in that superposition.

  The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move everything
 back into the same state it was originally for all the possible diverged
 states, which should practically never happen for a superposition that has
 leaked into the environment.


 In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a mixture
 because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the Hamiltonian.
 Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the system+instrument to
 approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be interpreted as giving
 classical probabilities.


Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one have to
consider the wave function of the universe and consider it all the way into
the past?

In any case, returning to the original point that began this tangent, do
agree that QM interpretations which are anti-realist (or deny the reality
of the superposition) are unable to describe where the intermediate
computations that produce the answer to a quantum computation, take place?

What would Fuchs say about quantum computation?

Jason

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Brent and Jason,

  I think that this is an important idea: the relationship between
compression algorithms and numbers. It does not look like a simple
one-to-one and onto map!


On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
 computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate
 only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers,
 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite
 incompressible strings,


 How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base
 6999500235148669 is just 10.



  You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
 combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
 This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences
 which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

  Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by
 adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

  It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are
 random in that sense.

  Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base,
 but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the
 number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a
 compression of that particular number base, for that language, and it is
 part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist working for all
 (small) numbers.


  Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only
 holds in the limit.

 Brent



  Brent,

  It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2
 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit
 numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter
 string, another shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't
 keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of
 them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some
 strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible
 compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller
 than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

  The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are
 tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while
 making (the vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.


 A good explanation.  But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a
 given size doesn't imply that any particular number is incompressible.  So
 isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible in some
 algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is random, but
 11 is not, except relative to some given compression algorithm.

 Brent

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
 computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate
 only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers,
 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite
 incompressible strings,


 How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base
 6999500235148669 is just 10.



  You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
 combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
 This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences
 which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

  Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by
 adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

  It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are
 random in that sense.

  Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base,
 but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the
 number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a
 compression of that particular number base, for that language, and it is
 part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist working for all
 (small) numbers.


  Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only
 holds in the limit.

 Brent



  Brent,

  It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2
 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit
 numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter
 string, another shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't
 keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of
 them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some
 strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible
 compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller
 than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

  The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are
 tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while
 making (the vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.


 A good explanation.


Thanks.


 But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size doesn't
 imply that any particular number is incompressible.


That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to be of
no relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a number of very
small strings map directly to very large ones.


   So isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible in
 some algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is random,
 but 11 is not, except relative to some given compression
 algorithm.


Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If you
consider the size of the minimum string and algorithm together, necessary
to represent some number, you will find there are some patterns of data
that are more compressible than others.  In your previous example with base
6999500235148668, you would need to include both that base, and the string
10 in order to encode 6999500235148669.  For the majority of numbers, you
will find the Kolmogorov complexity of the number to almost always be on
the order of the number of digits in that number.  The exceptions like
11 are few and far between.

Jason

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:03 PM, Stephen Paul King 
stephe...@provensecure.com wrote:

 Dear Brent and Jason,

   I think that this is an important idea: the relationship between
 compression algorithms and numbers. It does not look like a simple
 one-to-one and onto map!


Stephen,

For any loss-less (full-fidelity) compression algorithm, the mapping is
one-to-one.  There are other compression algorithms, like jpeg or mp3 which
are lossy (they discard some information in the process), and hence they
are many-to-one.

Jason

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:


To that I would add the purely epistemic non-intepretation of 
Peres
and Fuchs.

No interpretation needed -- I can interpret this in two ways, one 
way
is to just take the math and equations literally (this leads to 
Everett),
the other is shut up and calculate, which leads no where really.




2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either 
dead
or alive. It's just a matter of someone making a 
measurement to
find out.


So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is neither
alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely alive or
definitely dead?  If you, (and I think you are), saying that 
the cat
is always definitely alive or definitely dead, then about about 
the
radioactive atom? Is it ever in a state of being decayed and not
decayed? If you say no, it sounds like you are denying the 
reality
of the superposition, which some interpretations do, but then 
this
leads to difficulties explaining how quantum computers work 
(which
require the superposition to exist).


Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in one
basis is a superposition in another.


Can you provide a concrete example where some system can 
simultaneously
be considered to be both in a superposition and not?  Is this like 
the
superposition having collapsed for Wigner's friend while remaining 
for
Wigner before he enters the room?



?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a complete 
set of
basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.


So then when is the system not in a superposition?


When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.


What makes it incoherent though?


If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/= rho, 
it's incoherent.

But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which any given 
pure
state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a 'deadalive' basis in which
Schrodinger's cat can be represented just like a spin-up state is a 
superposition is
a spin-left basis.


So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y axis, and then the 
spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying themselves continuously into diverging 
states (under MWI)?  Even though these states only weakly interfere, are they not still 
superposed (that is, the particles involved in a simultaneous combination of possessing 
many different states for their properties)?


Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a superposition of states of the form 
|x0,x1,... where each xi is either +x, -x, +y, or -y.  And per the Bucky Ball, Young's 
slit experiment, the spins don't have to observed by anyone.  If the silver atom just goes 
thru the Stern-Gerlach apparatus and hits the laboratory wall, the superposition is still 
created.  If it just goes out the window and into space...it's not so clear.





An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a superposition
according to MWI. It is just that the person doing the measurement is now 
also
caught up in that superposition.

The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move everything 
back into
the same state it was originally for all the possible diverged states, 
which should
practically never happen for a superposition that has leaked into the 
environment.


In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a mixture 
because the
evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the Hamiltonian.  Decoherence makes 
the
submatrix corresponding to the system+instrument to approximate a mixture.  
That's
why it can be interpreted as giving classical probabilities.


Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one have to consider the wave 
function of the universe and consider it all the way into the past?


I suppose the universe could have started in a mixed state, but most cosmologists would 
invoke Ockham and assume it started in a pure state - which, assuming only unitary 
evolution, means it's still in a pure state.  Of course since inflation there can be 

Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate 
only
that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers, 
0, 1,
2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite incompressible
strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible? 6999500235148668 in base
6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter 
combinators
to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences 
which
indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by 
adding some
constant, which will depend of the universal language.

It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are 
random
in that sense.

Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base, 
but if
you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the 
number in
the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a compression 
of that
particular number base, for that language, and it is part of 
incompressibility
theory that no definition exist working for all (small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only 
holds in
the limit.

Brent



Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2 digit 
numbers
than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit numbers, and so 
on.
 For any string you can represent using a shorter string, another shorter 
string
must necessarily be displaced.  You can't keep replacing things with shorter
strings because there aren't enough of them, so as a side-effect, every 
compression
strategy must represent some strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average 
size of
all possible compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never 
be
smaller than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are 
tailored to
represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while making (the 
vast
majority of) other messages slightly larger.


A good explanation.


Thanks.

But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size doesn't 
imply that
any particular number is incompressible.


That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to be of no relevance. 
 In such a case, you can of course have a number of very small strings map directly to 
very large ones.


  So isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible in 
some
algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is random, but
11 is not, except relative to some given compression algorithm.


Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If you consider the size 
of the minimum string and algorithm together, necessary to represent some number, you 
will find there are some patterns of data that are more compressible than others.  In 
your previous example with base 6999500235148668, you would need to include both that 
base, and the string 10 in order to encode 6999500235148669.


But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the base used to write it 
down? Did I have to write down And this is in base 10 to show that 6999500235148668 is 
random?  There seems to be an equivocation here on computing a number and computing a 
representation of a number.


 For the majority of numbers, you will find the Kolmogorov complexity of the number to 
almost always be on the order of the number of digits in that number.  The exceptions 
like 11 are few and far between.


1 looks a lot messier in base 9.

Berent

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Richard,

It is true I entered university aged 15 and earned my BS in math and 
physics with honors and a minor in philosophy aged 18. I never claimed to 
be a genius though.
:-)

And Richard, thanks again for the invite to the group! It's a good forum to 
try to clarify the presentation of my ideas Nothing does that better 
than sharp criticism

Best,
Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:02:51 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 all,
 According to Mr. Qwen, he was a child genius.
 On every other list he has appeared the genius still.
 So I thought I should subject him to this list.
 Thanks for coming through.
 Richard


 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:55 PM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Pierz,

If block time is actual and something actually exists in past times then 
the energy must actually exist there and be real also. Thus a new universe 
of energy is being created at every new moment of time. Energy is not being 
converted from one form to another but stored in each moment of past time. 
Block time does violate conservation of energy. I know there are ways 
people try to weasel out of this but they are not convincing.

Block time is simply not possible, and as I've pointed out before SR and 
the associated STc Principle conclusively falsify it. Not only that no one 
who accepts the block time nonsense has been able to come up with any 
convincing physics based reason why we exist in a present moment, or even 
seem to exist in a present moment, since you don't believe there actually 
is one.

Best,
Edgar




On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

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Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-29 Thread freqflyer07281972
Might I respectfully suggest the following:

1) That when you have an obvious intuition or brilliant stroke of insight 
that goes against a century or more of insight from the most distinguished 
physicists and

2) That when you are unable to operationalize your intuition in such a way 
that other people could perform an experiment to see what you are saying is 
true and that it does in fact go against the received wisdom then...

You might reconsider the merit of your originally amazing intuition and ask 
yourself if you might not in fact be in error and/or suffering from a bit 
of self-deception. Yes, it does seem quite obvious and self-evident 
that we all share a single present, I absolutely and utterly agree with you 
here. However, I also appreciate the various thought experiments put 
forward by Einstein originally and now by other (quite sharp) people on 
this list pointing out how this intuition simply cannot be true. These 
thought experiments have later become actual experiments whose results have 
agreed, not with our incredibly clear and obvious intuition, but with the 
very counter-intuitive predictions that Einstein provided.

I'm not going to hash out more examples. I don't think it's necessary. I've 
included some links you might want to read at the end. What I think is 
happening though is you might be deceiving yourself a bit in thinking that 
you are so brilliant in arriving at insights that absolutely no one else 
has come to, and you are kind of starting to come across like this 
guy.http://www.timecube.com/ 

If you really want to understand behavior of the physical world we live in 
(or apparently physical, but actually computational, a la Bruno), maybe try 
these links out: 

http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/srelwhat.html

http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/synchronizing.html

http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/time_dil.html

Peace out,

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

  To that I would add the purely epistemic non-intepretation of Peres
 and Fuchs.


 No interpretation needed -- I can interpret this in two ways, one way
 is to just take the math and equations literally (this leads to Everett),
 the other is shut up and calculate, which leads no where really.







  2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either dead or
 alive. It's just a matter of someone making a measurement to find out.


  So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is neither
 alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely alive or definitely
 dead?  If you, (and I think you are), saying that the cat is always
 definitely alive or definitely dead, then about about the radioactive 
 atom?
 Is it ever in a state of being decayed and not decayed? If you say no, it
 sounds like you are denying the reality of the superposition, which some
 interpretations do, but then this leads to difficulties explaining how
 quantum computers work (which require the superposition to exist).


  Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in one
 basis is a superposition in another.


  Can you provide a concrete example where some system can
 simultaneously be considered to be both in a superposition and not?  Is
 this like the superposition having collapsed for Wigner's friend while
 remaining for Wigner before he enters the room?



  ?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a complete
 set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.


  So then when is the system not in a superposition?


  When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.


  What makes it incoherent though?


  If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/= rho,
 it's incoherent.

 But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which any
 given pure state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a 'deadalive'
 basis in which Schrodinger's cat can be represented just like a spin-up
 state is a superposition is a spin-left basis.


  So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y
 axis, and then the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying themselves
 continuously into diverging states (under MWI)?  Even though these states
 only weakly interfere, are they not still superposed (that is, the
 particles involved in a simultaneous combination of possessing many
 different states for their properties)?


 Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a superposition of
 states of the form |x0,x1,... where each xi is either +x, -x, +y, or -y.
 And per the Bucky Ball, Young's slit experiment, the spins don't have to
 observed by anyone.  If the silver atom just goes thru the Stern-Gerlach
 apparatus and hits the laboratory wall, the superposition is still
 created.  If it just goes out the window and into space...it's not so clear.





   An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a
 superposition according to MWI. It is just that the person doing the
 measurement is now also caught up in that superposition.

  The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move
 everything back into the same state it was originally for all the possible
 diverged states, which should practically never happen for a superposition
 that has leaked into the environment.


  In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a mixture
 because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the Hamiltonian.
 Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the system+instrument to
 approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be interpreted as giving
 classical probabilities.


  Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one have to
 consider the wave function of the universe and consider it all the way into
 the past?


 I suppose the universe could have started in a mixed state, but most
 cosmologists would invoke Ockham and assume it started in a pure state -
 which, assuming only unitary evolution, means it's still in a pure state.
 Of course since inflation there can be entanglements across event horizons,
 so FAPP that creates mixed states.



  In any case, returning to the original point that began this tangent, do
 agree that QM interpretations which are anti-realist (or deny the reality
 of the superposition) are unable to describe where the intermediate
 computations that produce the answer to a quantum computation, take place?


 They take place in a quantum computer.


And the quantum computer is a coherent, long-lived 

Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread freqflyer07281972
In order for criticism to be effective, the one being criticized must be 
willing to see his errors, something I think you have long ago given up. 

I'm afraid there is no help for you, my friend.

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:11:59 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Richard,

 It is true I entered university aged 15 and earned my BS in math and 
 physics with honors and a minor in philosophy aged 18. I never claimed to 
 be a genius though.
 :-)

 And Richard, thanks again for the invite to the group! It's a good forum 
 to try to clarify the presentation of my ideas Nothing does that better 
 than sharp criticism

 Best,
 Edgar



 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:02:51 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 all,
 According to Mr. Qwen, he was a child genius.
 On every other list he has appeared the genius still.
 So I thought I should subject him to this list.
 Thanks for coming through.
 Richard


 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:55 PM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread freqflyer07281972
ALL HAIL TIME CUBE!! http://www.timecube.com/

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:35:10 PM UTC-5, freqflyer07281972 wrote:

 In order for criticism to be effective, the one being criticized must be 
 willing to see his errors, something I think you have long ago given up. 

 I'm afraid there is no help for you, my friend.

 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:11:59 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Richard,

 It is true I entered university aged 15 and earned my BS in math and 
 physics with honors and a minor in philosophy aged 18. I never claimed to 
 be a genius though.
 :-)

 And Richard, thanks again for the invite to the group! It's a good forum 
 to try to clarify the presentation of my ideas Nothing does that better 
 than sharp criticism

 Best,
 Edgar



 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:02:51 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 all,
 According to Mr. Qwen, he was a child genius.
 On every other list he has appeared the genius still.
 So I thought I should subject him to this list.
 Thanks for coming through.
 Richard


 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:55 PM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it 
 violates conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting 
 poor comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you 
 suspected early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he 
 asked if you ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his 
 basic 
 error of logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore 
 there is a universal common present moment. Obviously that does not 
 necessarily follow but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's 
 written a book - self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of 
 seriously questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: 
 have a brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a 
 wrong revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason 
 that 
 every rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a 
 misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

 --
 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google 
 Groups Everything List group.
 To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send 
 an email to everything-li...@googlegroups.com.
 To post to this group, send email to everyth...@googlegroups.com.
 Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list.
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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:42 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
 computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate
 only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers,
 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite
 incompressible strings,


 How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base
 6999500235148669 is just 10.



  You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
 combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
 This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences
 which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

  Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by
 adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

  It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are
 random in that sense.

  Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base,
 but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the
 number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a
 compression of that particular number base, for that language, and it is
 part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist working for all
 (small) numbers.


  Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only
 holds in the limit.

 Brent



  Brent,

  It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2
 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit
 numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter
 string, another shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't
 keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of
 them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some
 strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible
 compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller
 than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

  The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are
 tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while
 making (the vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.


  A good explanation.


  Thanks.


  But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size doesn't
 imply that any particular number is incompressible.


  That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to be
 of no relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a number of very
 small strings map directly to very large ones.


   So isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible in
 some algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is random,
 but 11 is not, except relative to some given compression
 algorithm.


  Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If you
 consider the size of the minimum string and algorithm together, necessary
 to represent some number, you will find there are some patterns of data
 that are more compressible than others.  In your previous example with base
 6999500235148668, you would need to include both that base, and the string
 10 in order to encode 6999500235148669.


 But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the base
 used to write it down? Did I have to write down And this is in base 10 to
 show that 6999500235148668 is random?  There seems to be an equivocation
 here on computing a number and computing a representation of a number.



A number containing regular patterns in some base, will also contain
regular patterns in some other base (even if they are not obvious to us),
compression algorithms are good at recognizing them.

The text of this sentence may not seem very redundant, but english text can
generally be compressed somewhere between 20% - 30% of its original size.
 If you convert a number like 555 to base 2, its patterns should
be more evident in the pattern of bits.


For the majority of numbers, you will find the Kolmogorov complexity
 of the number to almost always be on the order of the number of digits in
 that number.  The exceptions like 11 are few and far between.


 1 looks a lot messier in base 9.



base 10: 111
base 9: 7355531854711617707
base 2: 011010110111010110101011001010000100011100

In base 9, there is a high proportion of 7's compared to other digits. In
base 2, the sequence '110' seems more common than 

Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 3:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:


To that I would add the purely epistemic 
non-intepretation of
Peres and Fuchs.

No interpretation needed -- I can interpret this in two ways, 
one
way is to just take the math and equations literally (this 
leads to
Everett), the other is shut up and calculate, which leads no 
where
really.




2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always 
either
dead or alive. It's just a matter of someone making a
measurement to find out.


So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is
neither alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely
alive or definitely dead?  If you, (and I think you are),
saying that the cat is always definitely alive or definitely
dead, then about about the radioactive atom? Is it ever in a
state of being decayed and not decayed? If you say no, it
sounds like you are denying the reality of the 
superposition,
which some interpretations do, but then this leads to
difficulties explaining how quantum computers work (which
require the superposition to exist).


Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate 
in one
basis is a superposition in another.


Can you provide a concrete example where some system can
simultaneously be considered to be both in a superposition and 
not?
 Is this like the superposition having collapsed for Wigner's 
friend
while remaining for Wigner before he enters the room?



?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a 
complete
set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.


So then when is the system not in a superposition?


When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.


What makes it incoherent though?


If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/= rho, 
it's
incoherent.

But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which any 
given pure
state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a 'deadalive' basis in 
which
Schrodinger's cat can be represented just like a spin-up state is a
superposition is a spin-left basis.


So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y axis, 
and then
the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying themselves continuously 
into
diverging states (under MWI)?  Even though these states only weakly 
interfere, are
they not still superposed (that is, the particles involved in a simultaneous
combination of possessing many different states for their properties)?


Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a superposition of 
states of
the form |x0,x1,... where each xi is either +x, -x, +y, or -y.  And per 
the Bucky
Ball, Young's slit experiment, the spins don't have to observed by anyone.  
If the
silver atom just goes thru the Stern-Gerlach apparatus and hits the 
laboratory wall,
the superposition is still created.  If it just goes out the window and into
space...it's not so clear.





An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a 
superposition
according to MWI. It is just that the person doing the measurement is 
now also
caught up in that superposition.

The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move 
everything back
into the same state it was originally for all the possible diverged 
states,
which should practically never happen for a superposition that has 
leaked into
the environment.


In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a mixture
because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the Hamiltonian. 
Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the system+instrument to

approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be interpreted as giving 

Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 3:49 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:42 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want 
generate
only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all
numbers, 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random
finite incompressible strings,


How can a finite string be incompressible? 6999500235148668 in base
6999500235148669 is just 10.



You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short 
sequences
which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by 
adding
some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, 
are
random in that sense.

Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some 
base, but
if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the
number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a
compression of that particular number base, for that language, and 
it is
part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist working 
for all
(small) numbers.


Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory 
only
holds in the limit.

Brent



Brent,

It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2 
digit
numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit 
numbers,
and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter string, 
another
shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't keep 
replacing
things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of them, so as a
side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some strings by 
larger
ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible compressed messages 
(with
some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller than the average size 
of all
uncompressed messages.

The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are 
tailored
to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while making 
(the
vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.


A good explanation.


Thanks.

But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size 
doesn't imply
that any particular number is incompressible.


That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to be of no
relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a number of very small 
strings
map directly to very large ones.

  So isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible 
in some
algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is random, 
but
11 is not, except relative to some given compression 
algorithm.


Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If you 
consider the
size of the minimum string and algorithm together, necessary to represent 
some
number, you will find there are some patterns of data that are more 
compressible
than others.  In your previous example with base 6999500235148668, you 
would need
to include both that base, and the string 10 in order to encode 
6999500235148669.


But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the base 
used to
write it down? Did I have to write down And this is in base 10 to show 
that
6999500235148668 is random?  There seems to be an equivocation here on 
computing a
number and computing a representation of a number.



A number containing regular patterns in some base, will also contain regular patterns in 
some other base (even if they are not obvious to us), compression algorithms are good at 
recognizing them.


The text of this sentence may not seem very redundant, but english text can generally be 
compressed somewhere between 20% - 30% of 

Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious 
dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake! 
Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're just theories!
:-)

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

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Re: Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 12:57, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 Well Mr. Owen used the 101 crackpot dictionary... he knows the truth
 (since so long) and we are the dumbest people on earth... but by a miracle
 (that only he knows) he feel compelled to overwhelm us with his truth and
 his patronizing vocabulary... why ?


To Prove Einstein Wrong! perhaps? That used to be a huge cottage industry
back in, I think, the 50s and 60s - everyone with half a theory was sure
they could explain where Albert had slipped up. (One of them was even
immortalised in the works of James Blish, I think it was the Haertel
overdrive, which embarrassingly turned out to not swallow Einstein whole
as Blish said in one of his novels after all, although it was a handy SF
device even so.)

I must admit I thought we'd moved on, now, to a new fad -- the Prove
Global Warming Wrong! cottage industry.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 12:03, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 PS: You can blame me for Roger as well.

 You're a wicked, wicked man!

But fear not, you bring 'em on and the assembled brainpower around here
will shoot them down.

(Must.resist.schadenfreude.)

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 11:55, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:

 Obviously that does not necessarily follow but Mr Owen has invested so
 much in his idea (he's written a book - self-published one might assume)
 that he is incapable of seriously questioning it any more.


Sigh. That was my first assumption, but I hesitated to say it aloud because
it's rather sad to be caught in the prior investment fallacy - God knows
I staying in a bad marriage for a long time because of it, before finally
waking up to reality and cutting my losses.

PS

I might just take this opportunity to apologise to Andrew Soltau for having
only managed to read about 1 chapter of *his* book. Had we but world enough
and time, I know, my coyness would be no crime. But all the time I seem to
hear time's winged chariot drawing near - which is an inducement to skip
all but the very best-presented of theories, and even those get short
thrift (I'm still only half way through David Deutsch's Beginning Of
Infinity and with one or two caveats I worship his ideas).

Although I also admit I have done several *Times* crosswords in the last
week. Some difficult-to-grasp ideas are just too tempting, like this one...

Swapped rounds from his severance! (10)

PS if anyone can tell me the answer to that clue (which I admit is one of
mine) you will get a CIGAR! :-)

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 13:02, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

 Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious
 dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake!
 Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're just theories!

 Pot, kettle... !



The last refuge of the forum poster who can't convince everyone that he's*
right is to start attacking the motives of his opponents and to accuse them
of lacking a sense of humour. Carry on in this direction much further and
you will be in contravention of Godwin's Law, and no one will take you
seriously ever again.

*PS sorry guys buy it does seem to usually be a he, at least in my
experience.

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Liz,

 Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the
 universal processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the
 computations compute dimensional space and CLOCK time.

 So an external time dimension is required.

So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less
computations...I'll try.

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Re: humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are machines,

2013-12-29 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:42:20 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Dec 2013, at 15:40, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 humans are machines unable to recognize the fact that they are machines,


 Who wrote this?

 *any* ideally correct machines is unable to recognize the fact that they 
 are machines.


Just someone on a Facebook thread, I forget who. 

Anyone who says yes to the doctor then cannot be an ideally correct machine.

Craig
 


 Bruno



 I would re-word it as 'Humans are not machines but when they introspect on 
 their most mechanical aspects mechanistically, they are able to imagine 
 that they could be machines who are unable recognize the fact.

 I agree that there is an intrinsic limit to Strong AI, but I think that 
 the limit is at the starting gate. Since consciousness is the embodiment of 
 uniqueness and unrepeatability, there is no almost conscious. It doesn't 
 matter how much the artist in the painting looks like he is really painting 
 himself in the mirror, or how realistic Escher makes the staircase look, 
 those realities are forever sculpted in theory, not in the multisense 
 realism.

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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

All,

Once we accept the obvious observable fact that we share a common present 
moment when we are together we need to take the next step and establish 
that we also share a common present moment when we are separated in space. 
Only if we can prove that can we establish that the present moment is 
universal, that the same present moment is shared across the universe.

Obviously we cannot establish this by direct observation due to the finite 
speed of light, but it is easy to prove with the following argument.

Step 1: Two observers stand together with the same clock times on their 
watches and shake hands. By direct observation they confirm they share both 
the same actual present moment time, and the same clock time. 

Step 2: One observer makes a 1 year space flight at relativistic 
acceleration while the other remains where he was. During this period both 
observers continuously exist in their own actual present moment, and their 
clocks appear to progress at a constant proper time rate.

Step 3. The traveling observer returns and shakes hands with the observer 
who remained behind. Again, by direct observation they both confirm they 
both share the exact same actual present moment time but their clock times 
are no longer the same. Their actual present moment times are the same, but 
their clock times are not simultaneous.

At this point it is obvious that actual present time and clock time are two 
different things. Both observers confirm this by direct observation.

Now the question is can we confirm that both observers also shared the 
exact same actual present times during their separation in space? Yes we 
can and the argument is simple. Both observer's actual present times and 
their clock times were continuous during the 1 year they were separated. 
There was always both some actual present moment and some actual clock 
time. During the separation period each observer was always continuously 
extant in time as both actual present time and clock time progressed.

Now since both observers started at the same present moment of time and 
ended at the same actual present moment of time and since each observer 
always had some present moment during the separation it is obvious that at 
every point in each observer's actual present time there must have been a 
corresponding point in the other observer's actual present time. In every 
point in each observer's actual present moment the other observer must have 
been doing something at the same actual present moment time. This is 
because there was never a gap in either observer's present moment, a moment 
when they didn't exist in their present moment, thus there must be a one to 
one mapping of actual present moments even when the observers were 
separated.

Think of two points on a sheet of graph paper, one vertically above the 
other. Join the points by one straight vertical line and one curved line 
which will be of greater length. The vertical grids will correspond to the 
passage of present moment P-time while the different lengths along the 
lines will correspond to their clock times. Note that while clock time 
passes at different rates on the two lines, P-time, the vertical distance 
between the grids, passes at the same rate across both lines. And there is 
ALWAYS a corresponding point on both lines that represents the same present 
moment time where the lines are intersected by the same grid line.

Thus there is always a common present moment no matter how observers may be 
separated in space.

This is also confirmed by the fact that the observers left from the same 
actual present moment and returned to the same actual present moment. The 
observer who traveled has a clock that reads less than a year passed while 
the observer who stayed behind has a clock that tells him a year has passed 
BUT their actual present moments are simultaneous (because they can 
observably confirm that by shaking hands both before and after the trip) 
and thus must also always have been simultaneous during the period of 
separation.

This conclusively proves that observers inhabit the exact same actual 
present moment both when they are at the same place and when they are 
separated in space. Thus we must conclude there is a common universal 
present moment that all observers inhabit, and thus that that common 
universal present moment is the only moment anything exists in, that it is 
the only locus of reality.

This conclusively proves that there are two kinds of time, clock time which 
is measured by clocks, and the actual universal present time moment 
(P-time) that is common to all observers, and that clock time and P-time 
are only synchronous in non-relativistic situations. Clock times vary with 
relativistic circumstance but P-time doesn't. It remains simultaneous for 
all observers in all circumstances. Everything continually inhabits the 
same actual P-time present moment.

I don't think the argument can be expressed much clearer and more 

Re: Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 4:07 PM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 12:57, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com 
mailto:allco...@gmail.com wrote:


Well Mr. Owen used the 101 crackpot dictionary... he knows the truth (since 
so long)
and we are the dumbest people on earth... but by a miracle (that only he 
knows) he
feel compelled to overwhelm us with his truth and his patronizing 
vocabulary... why ?


To Prove Einstein Wrong! perhaps? That used to be a huge cottage industry back in, I 
think, the 50s and 60s - everyone with half a theory was sure they could explain where 
Albert had slipped up. (One of them was even immortalised in the works of James Blish, I 
think it was the Haertel overdrive, which embarrassingly turned out to not swallow 
Einstein whole as Blish said in one of his novels after all, although it was a handy SF 
device even so.)


I must admit I thought we'd moved on, now, to a new fad -- the Prove Global Warming 
Wrong! cottage industry.


Except there's a lot more money to be made in that endeavor. Comparable to Prove 
cigarettes don't cause cancer.  There were no corporations with a stake in proving 
relativity wrong.


Brent

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread freqflyer07281972
Far from it, really;-) I assure you, I wish you no burning at any stakes, 
whether literal or figurative. You are perfectly entitled to be as 
incorrect as you wish, especially in an area as solidly established as 
relativistic physics.

It's just that (a ma parte, at least), I feel a bit bad for you, because 
you seem really deluded and you are kind of embarrassing yourself with your 
(wrong) insistence that no one gets you. I think we all get what you are 
saying (i.e. understand the ideas that words you use are trying to convey). 
All of the sentence strings you use are well-formed. It's just that the 
picture they create in logical space doesn't correspond with the physical 
reality we happen to inhabit. That's all. It's not a matter of being 
persecuted because of dogma. It's just that, if you bothered to review the 
relevant literature, you'd see that you were wrong. 

But as I said before, and as you are showing again, I don't think there is 
any hope for you because you refuse to see things as they are. 

One thing to be said in your favor: at least what you say is refutable, 
unlike Roger Clough, whose ideas are so vacuous and anodyne that they can't 
even be dignified by calling them wrong. 

Cheers! 

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 7:02:05 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

 Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious 
 dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake! 
 Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're just theories!
 :-)

 Edgar



 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote:

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.



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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 4:37 PM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 13:02, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net mailto:edgaro...@att.net 
wrote:


Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer,

Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious 
dogma to you
and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake! Lighten up 
guys and
take a deep breath, they're just theories!

Pot, kettle... !


I've found Edgar's responses to be courteous and impersonal - even if wrongheaded on the 
question of time.  But something like his idea of deriving space from quantum events may 
be fruitful.  It's been considered before, but never really worked out.  I don't think he 
can do it because done properly it would also derive time from event relations, but I'd 
like to know how he proposes to get space (aka dimensional relations) from events.


Brent





The last refuge of the forum poster who can't convince everyone that he's* right is to 
start attacking the motives of his opponents and to accuse them of lacking a sense of 
humour. Carry on in this direction much further and you will be in contravention of 
Godwin's Law, and no one will take you seriously ever again.


*PS sorry guys buy it does seem to usually be a he, at least in my experience.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
Once more unto the breach...

On 30 December 2013 14:19, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Step 1: Two observers stand together with the same clock times on their
 watches and shake hands. By direct observation they confirm they share both
 the same actual present moment time, and the same clock time.

 Step 1 is an event in space time. We can agree that the observers to a
good approximation share the same present moment at that event.


 Step 2: One observer makes a 1 year space flight at relativistic
 acceleration while the other remains where he was. During this period both
 observers continuously exist in their own actual present moment, and their
 clocks appear to progress at a constant proper time rate.


Step 2 involves the observers taking different paths through space time.
Their present moments exist for them but can't be shown by any experiment
to be the same (in fact the concept is meaningless during this step).


 Step 3. The traveling observer returns and shakes hands with the observer
 who remained behind. Again, by direct observation they both confirm they
 both share the exact same actual present moment time but their clock times
 are no longer the same. Their actual present moment times are the same, but
 their clock times are not simultaneous.

 Step 3 is an event in space time. It occurs at a 4 dimensional point. We
can agree that the observers to a good approximation share the same present
moment at that event.


 At this point it is obvious that actual present time and clock time are
 two different things. Both observers confirm this by direct observation.


No it isn't, and no they don't. One has aged less than the other, and
observes that he has arrived at this event (say) one year after their last
meeting, yet oddly this corresponds to a point two years after their last
meeting for the other guy. They observe that their present moments, have
become disconnected. Space-guy's present moment is now a year behind
Earth-guy's, and if they had had the mouths of wormholes with them on their
travels they might even be able to exploit this different to travel through
time (though that's rather speculative).

I wait the hand waving refutation - which will only involve words, rather
than maths or diagrams - with tired resignation.

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Re: Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-29 Thread LizR
On 30 December 2013 14:22, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 4:07 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 30 December 2013 12:57, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

  Well Mr. Owen used the 101 crackpot dictionary... he knows the truth
 (since so long) and we are the dumbest people on earth... but by a miracle
 (that only he knows) he feel compelled to overwhelm us with his truth and
 his patronizing vocabulary... why ?


  To Prove Einstein Wrong! perhaps? That used to be a huge cottage
 industry back in, I think, the 50s and 60s - everyone with half a theory
 was sure they could explain where Albert had slipped up. (One of them was
 even immortalised in the works of James Blish, I think it was the Haertel
 overdrive, which embarrassingly turned out to not swallow Einstein whole
 as Blish said in one of his novels after all, although it was a handy SF
 device even so.)

  I must admit I thought we'd moved on, now, to a new fad -- the Prove
 Global Warming Wrong! cottage industry.


 Except there's a lot more money to be made in that endeavor.  Comparable
 to Prove cigarettes don't cause cancer.  There were no corporations with
 a stake in proving relativity wrong.

 Absolutely, yet a lot of people with no personal (monetary) stake in the
outcome are joining in, even so, and presumably for the same reason - to
fix their personal cognitive dissonance between the world as it is and as
they'd like it to be.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi Brent,

No conserved doesn't mean all the energy of every moment remains in that 
moment which is somehow still real. What it means is that when it is 
recomputed in every moment none of it is lost.

The only energy that exists exists in the present moment, and it is always 
(in the same frame) conserved in that moment.

If past moments in block time are real then the energy, and everything else 
that existed in those moments, must still be real and actual, and that does 
violate conservation.

Edgar



On Sunday, December 29, 2013 6:34:02 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 3:18 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
  
 Pierz, 

  If block time is actual and something actually exists in past times then 
 the energy must actually exist there and be real also. Thus a new universe 
 of energy is being created at every new moment of time. Energy is not being 
 converted from one form to another but stored in each moment of past time. 
 Block time does violate conservation of energy. I know there are ways 
 people try to weasel out of this but they are not convincing.
  

 You don't seem to grasp what conserved means.  It means the conserved 
 quantity is the same at different times - not that it is zero in the past 
 and future and non-zero now.

  
  Block time is simply not possible, and as I've pointed out before SR and 
 the associated STc Principle conclusively falsify it. Not only that no one 
 who accepts the block time nonsense has been able to come up with any 
 convincing physics based reason why we exist in a present moment, or even 
 seem to exist in a present moment
  

 Choose a moment, a spacelike surface, in the block universe.  Inspect the 
 brain of person at this surface.  There will be complex structures that 
 remember earlier, but not later, moments in the block universe.  Consider a 
 slightly later moment along the world line of that brain.  There will be 
 new structures corresponding to information from the past light cone. 
 That's why the brain thinks there's a present moment - it got some new (to 
 it) information that makes that moment different from all the previous ones.

 Brent

  , since you don't believe there actually is one.

  Best,
 Edgar

  
  

 On Sunday, December 29, 2013 5:55:09 PM UTC-5, Pierz wrote: 

 Agreed, Liz. His bizarre misunderstandings about block time (it violates 
 conservation of energy) and sundry other statements exhibiting poor 
 comprehension of modern physics reveal him to be exactly what you suspected 
 early on: a crackpot. The question he put to you in which he asked if you 
 ceased to exist at one point on his timeline reveals his basic error of 
 logic. Everything must exist simultaneously with me, therefore there is a 
 universal common present moment. Obviously that does not necessarily follow 
 but Mr Owen has invested so much in his idea (he's written a book - 
 self-published one might assume) that he is incapable of seriously 
 questioning it any more. I guess there are two routes to genius: have a 
 brilliant, revolutionary idea and convince the world, or have a wrong 
 revolutionary idea and armour yourself so heavily against reason that every 
 rebuttal merely reinforces your own view that you are a misunderstood 
 visionary. Ad hominem. Mea culpa.

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

I give a detailed answer to your question in my new topic on Another shot 
of how spacetime emerges from computational reality.

Best,
Edgar

On Sunday, December 29, 2013 8:36:55 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 4:37 PM, LizR wrote:
  
  On 30 December 2013 13:02, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net 
 javascript:wrote:

 Pierz, Liz and Frequent Flyer, 

  Jeez, you guys, this seems to be becoming a matter of sacred religious 
 dogma to you and someone who doesn't agree deserves to burned at the stake! 
 Lighten up guys and take a deep breath, they're just theories!

   Pot, kettle... !
   

 I've found Edgar's responses to be courteous and impersonal - even if 
 wrongheaded on the question of time.  But something like his idea of 
 deriving space from quantum events may be fruitful.  It's been considered 
 before, but never really worked out.  I don't think he can do it because 
 done properly it would also derive time from event relations, but I'd like 
 to know how he proposes to get space (aka dimensional relations) from 
 events.

 Brent

   
  
  
  The last refuge of the forum poster who can't convince everyone that 
 he's* right is to start attacking the motives of his opponents and to 
 accuse them of lacking a sense of humour. Carry on in this direction much 
 further and you will be in contravention of Godwin's Law, and no one will 
 take you seriously ever again.

  *PS sorry guys buy it does seem to usually be a he, at least in my 
 experience.

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Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 4:41 PM, LizR wrote:
On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net mailto:edgaro...@att.net 
wrote:


Liz,

Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the universal
processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the computations 
compute
dimensional space and CLOCK time.

So an external time dimension is required.

So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less 
computations...I'll try.


This shouldn't be any harder than imagining Bruno's Turing machine computing 
everything...including space and time.


Brent

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Re: Dear Edgar Owen

2013-12-29 Thread John Mikes
I don't intend to play DA or Defense just muse about the 'firmness' of  a
temporary scientific belief (even supportable by tests using instruments
- or theories - based on the acceptability of those beliefs). There were
'centuries' with scientific belief of the Geocentric pattern - when
Copernicus thought differently, introducing 'centuries of heliocentrism-'
until Hubble came up with brand new ideas leading to a 'firm' scientific
belief of a Big Bang based cosmology. And it MAY go on and on.
No one tried to try the 'new' to be subject to the experimental proof of
the old.

I am not on Edgar's side, I am agnostic. Physical law and other
conventional science make only 'practical' sense to me - they are
facilitating the development of an (almost) fitting new technology - I
dislike 'thought experiments' and human logic based proof applied to new
systems/ideas about the 'totality'.

The R. Rosen 'model' of the world - the limited ensemble of the presently
knowables - is part of the wider totality of (as I like to call it)
Infinite Complexity of Everything. We have no way to learn more than
included within the model and the format is adjusted to our limited mental
capabilities: accordingly the 'infinite' may look(?) quite different. Yet
it has it's effect on the
In-Model ensemble.  We are part of the World, not above it, so our logic
and thinking may be partial as well. We 'use' practical conclusions - yet
should not draw final and universal ones on a totality we don't know. Call
it Scientific humility.

I like 'fresh' ideas penetrate the List (with more flesh, maybe, not only
hints to in my book references).

Respectfully (as a list-member since the last millennium)

John M


On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 6:31 PM, freqflyer07281972 
thismindisbud...@gmail.com wrote:

 Might I respectfully suggest the following:

 1) That when you have an obvious intuition or brilliant stroke of
 insight that goes against a century or more of insight from the most
 distinguished physicists and

 2) That when you are unable to operationalize your intuition in such a way
 that other people could perform an experiment to see what you are saying is
 true and that it does in fact go against the received wisdom then...

 You might reconsider the merit of your originally amazing intuition and
 ask yourself if you might not in fact be in error and/or suffering from a
 bit of self-deception. Yes, it does seem quite obvious and self-evident
 that we all share a single present, I absolutely and utterly agree with you
 here. However, I also appreciate the various thought experiments put
 forward by Einstein originally and now by other (quite sharp) people on
 this list pointing out how this intuition simply cannot be true. These
 thought experiments have later become actual experiments whose results have
 agreed, not with our incredibly clear and obvious intuition, but with the
 very counter-intuitive predictions that Einstein provided.

 I'm not going to hash out more examples. I don't think it's necessary.
 I've included some links you might want to read at the end. What I think is
 happening though is you might be deceiving yourself a bit in thinking that
 you are so brilliant in arriving at insights that absolutely no one else
 has come to, and you are kind of starting to come across like this 
 guy.http://www.timecube.com/

 If you really want to understand behavior of the physical world we live in
 (or apparently physical, but actually computational, a la Bruno), maybe try
 these links out:

 http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/srelwhat.html

 http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/synchronizing.html

 http://galileoandeinstein.physics.virginia.edu/lectures/time_dil.html

 Peace out,

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Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread meekerdb

On 12/29/2013 5:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

All,

All,

Once we accept the obvious observable fact that we share a common present moment when we 
are together we need to take the next step and establish that we also share a common 
present moment when we are separated in space. Only if we can prove that can we 
establish that the present moment is universal, that the same present moment is shared 
across the universe.


Obviously we cannot establish this by direct observation due to the finite speed of 
light, but it is easy to prove with the following argument.


Step 1: Two observers stand together with the same clock times on their watches and 
shake hands. By direct observation they confirm they share both the same actual present 
moment time, and the same clock time.


And that the clock's run at the same rate.  Right?



Step 2: One observer makes a 1 year space flight at relativistic acceleration while the 
other remains where he was. During this period both observers continuously exist in 
their own actual present moment, and their clocks appear to progress at a constant 
proper time rate.


Step 3. The traveling observer returns and shakes hands with the observer who remained 
behind. Again, by direct observation they both confirm they both share the exact same 
actual present moment time but their clock times are no longer the same. Their actual 
present moment times are the same, but their clock times are not simultaneous.


This is confusing being at the same event with measuring the same duration.  Of course 
they are at the same event.  But they are different durations away from their previous 
shared event.




At this point it is obvious that actual present time and clock time are two different 
things. Both observers confirm this by direct observation.


Now the question is can we confirm that both observers also shared the exact same actual 
present times during their separation in space? Yes we can and the argument is simple. 
Both observer's actual present times and their clock times were continuous during the 1 
year they were separated. There was always both some actual present moment and some 
actual clock time. During the separation period each observer was always continuously 
extant in time as both actual present time and clock time progressed.


Now since both observers started at the same present moment of time and ended at the 
same actual present moment of time and since each observer always had some present 
moment during the separation it is obvious that at every point in each observer's actual 
present time there must have been a corresponding point in the other observer's actual 
present time. In every point in each observer's actual present moment the other observer 
must have been doing something at the same actual present moment time. This is because 
there was never a gap in either observer's present moment, a moment when they didn't 
exist in their present moment, thus there must be a one to one mapping of actual present 
moments even when the observers were separated.


But there is no *unique* one-to-one mapping.  In Newtonian physics there was.  But in 
special relativity the one-to-one mapping depends on the choice of inertial frame and the 
speed of light is the same in every frame so there is no preferred inertial frame.




Think of two points on a sheet of graph paper, one vertically above the other. Join the 
points by one straight vertical line and one curved line which will be of greater 
length. The vertical grids will correspond to the passage of present moment P-time while 
the different lengths along the lines will correspond to their clock times. Note that 
while clock time passes at different rates on the two lines, P-time, the vertical 
distance between the grids, passes at the same rate across both lines. And there is 
ALWAYS a corresponding point on both lines that represents the same present moment time 
where the lines are intersected by the same grid line.


There is no unique point that is at the same time.  It is arbitrary up to a choice of 
reference frame.  I have suggested that the CMB can provide a preferred reference frame so 
long as the universe is isotropic and homogeneous.  But this introduces other problems. 
(1) We're not on a preferred frame (2) clocks run at different rates because of the 
expansion of the universe.




Thus there is always a common present moment no matter how observers may be separated in 
space.


This is also confirmed by the fact that the observers left from the same actual present 
moment and returned to the same actual present moment. The observer who traveled has a 
clock that reads less than a year passed while the observer who stayed behind has a 
clock that tells him a year has passed BUT their actual present moments are simultaneous 
(because they can observably confirm that by shaking hands both before and after the 
trip) and thus must also always have been simultaneous during the period of 

Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Brent,

   I have a persisting question. How is is that we can get away with using
verbs (implying actions) when we are describing timeless entities?


On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 8:59 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 4:41 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Liz,

  Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the
 universal processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the
 computations compute dimensional space and CLOCK time.

   So an external time dimension is required.

  So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less
 computations...I'll try.


 This shouldn't be any harder than imagining Bruno's Turing machine
 computing everything...including space and time.

 Brent

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Re: What are wavefunctions?

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 6:52 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 3:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 2:01 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 1:47 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 6:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 8:32 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:45 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sat, Dec 28, 2013 at 7:12 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/27/2013 10:31 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

  To that I would add the purely epistemic non-intepretation of
 Peres and Fuchs.


 No interpretation needed -- I can interpret this in two ways, one
 way is to just take the math and equations literally (this leads to
 Everett), the other is shut up and calculate, which leads no where 
 really.







  2. Determined by which observer? The cat is always either dead or
 alive. It's just a matter of someone making a measurement to find out.


  So are you saying that before the measurement the cat is neither
 alive nor dead, both alive and dead, or definitely alive or definitely
 dead?  If you, (and I think you are), saying that the cat is always
 definitely alive or definitely dead, then about about the radioactive 
 atom?
 Is it ever in a state of being decayed and not decayed? If you say no, it
 sounds like you are denying the reality of the superposition, which some
 interpretations do, but then this leads to difficulties explaining how
 quantum computers work (which require the superposition to exist).


  Superposition is just a question of basis.  An eigenstate in one
 basis is a superposition in another.


  Can you provide a concrete example where some system can
 simultaneously be considered to be both in a superposition and not?  Is
 this like the superposition having collapsed for Wigner's friend while
 remaining for Wigner before he enters the room?



  ?? Every pure state can be written as a superposition of a complete
 set of basis states - that's just Hilbert space math.


  So then when is the system not in a superposition?


  When it's an incoherent mixture of pure states.


  What makes it incoherent though?


  If the density matrix is not a projection operator, i.e. rho^2 =/= rho,
 it's incoherent.

 But really I just meant that in theory there is a basis in which any
 given pure state is just (1,0,0,...).  In theory there is a 'deadalive'
 basis in which Schrodinger's cat can be represented just like a spin-up
 state is a superposition is a spin-left basis.


  So if someone keeps alternating between measuring the spin on the y
 axis, and then the spin on the x axis, are they not multiplying themselves
 continuously into diverging states (under MWI)?  Even though these states
 only weakly interfere, are they not still superposed (that is, the
 particles involved in a simultaneous combination of possessing many
 different states for their properties)?


  Right, according to Everett, the world state becomes a superposition of
 states of the form |x0,x1,... where each xi is either +x, -x, +y, or -y.
 And per the Bucky Ball, Young's slit experiment, the spins don't have to
 observed by anyone.  If the silver atom just goes thru the Stern-Gerlach
 apparatus and hits the laboratory wall, the superposition is still
 created.  If it just goes out the window and into space...it's not so
 clear.





   An electron in a superposition, when measured, is still in a
 superposition according to MWI. It is just that the person doing the
 measurement is now also caught up in that superposition.

  The only thing that can destroy this superposition is to move
 everything back into the same state it was originally for all the possible
 diverged states, which should practically never happen for a superposition
 that has leaked into the environment.


  In Everett's interpretation a pure state can never evolve into a
 mixture because the evolution is via a Hermitian operator, the
 Hamiltonian.  Decoherence makes the submatrix corresponding to the
 system+instrument to approximate a mixture.  That's why it can be
 interpreted as giving classical probabilities.


  Are there pure states in Everett's interpretation? Doesn't one have to
 consider the wave function of the universe and consider it all the way into
 the past?


  I suppose the universe could have started in a mixed state, but most
 cosmologists would invoke Ockham and assume it started in a pure state -
 which, assuming only unitary evolution, means it's still in a pure state.
 Of course since inflation there can be entanglements across event horizons,
 so FAPP that creates mixed states.



  In any case, returning to the original point that began this tangent,
 do agree that QM interpretations which are anti-realist (or deny the
 reality of the superposition) are unable to describe where the intermediate
 computations that produce the answer to a quantum 

Re: Another stab at the universal present moment - a gedanken..

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 8:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 All,

 All,

 Once we accept the obvious observable fact that we share a common present
 moment when we are together we need to take the next step and establish
 that we also share a common present moment when we are separated in space.
 Only if we can prove that can we establish that the present moment is
 universal, that the same present moment is shared across the universe.

 Obviously we cannot establish this by direct observation due to the finite
 speed of light, but it is easy to prove with the following argument.

 Step 1: Two observers stand together with the same clock times on their
 watches and shake hands. By direct observation they confirm they share both
 the same actual present moment time, and the same clock time.

 Step 2: One observer makes a 1 year space flight at relativistic
 acceleration while the other remains where he was. During this period both
 observers continuously exist in their own actual present moment, and their
 clocks appear to progress at a constant proper time rate.

 Step 3. The traveling observer returns and shakes hands with the observer
 who remained behind. Again, by direct observation they both confirm they
 both share the exact same actual present moment time but their clock times
 are no longer the same. Their actual present moment times are the same, but
 their clock times are not simultaneous.


They can interact, despite being in different times, because the time
dimension is length-contracted to be zero-length (as they are travelling
through the proper time dimension at the speed of light).

Any photon's now is forever, so photons emitted by the electrons of
someone in a different time, still interact with the electrons of the
person whose hand they are shaking even though they're in a later time.

Jason


 At this point it is obvious that actual present time and clock time are
 two different things. Both observers confirm this by direct observation.

 Now the question is can we confirm that both observers also shared the
 exact same actual present times during their separation in space? Yes we
 can and the argument is simple. Both observer's actual present times and
 their clock times were continuous during the 1 year they were separated.
 There was always both some actual present moment and some actual clock
 time. During the separation period each observer was always continuously
 extant in time as both actual present time and clock time progressed.

 Now since both observers started at the same present moment of time and
 ended at the same actual present moment of time and since each observer
 always had some present moment during the separation it is obvious that at
 every point in each observer's actual present time there must have been a
 corresponding point in the other observer's actual present time. In every
 point in each observer's actual present moment the other observer must have
 been doing something at the same actual present moment time. This is
 because there was never a gap in either observer's present moment, a moment
 when they didn't exist in their present moment, thus there must be a one to
 one mapping of actual present moments even when the observers were
 separated.

 Think of two points on a sheet of graph paper, one vertically above the
 other. Join the points by one straight vertical line and one curved line
 which will be of greater length. The vertical grids will correspond to the
 passage of present moment P-time while the different lengths along the
 lines will correspond to their clock times. Note that while clock time
 passes at different rates on the two lines, P-time, the vertical distance
 between the grids, passes at the same rate across both lines. And there is
 ALWAYS a corresponding point on both lines that represents the same present
 moment time where the lines are intersected by the same grid line.

 Thus there is always a common present moment no matter how observers may
 be separated in space.

 This is also confirmed by the fact that the observers left from the same
 actual present moment and returned to the same actual present moment. The
 observer who traveled has a clock that reads less than a year passed while
 the observer who stayed behind has a clock that tells him a year has passed
 BUT their actual present moments are simultaneous (because they can
 observably confirm that by shaking hands both before and after the trip)
 and thus must also always have been simultaneous during the period of
 separation.

 This conclusively proves that observers inhabit the exact same actual
 present moment both when they are at the same place and when they are
 separated in space. Thus we must conclude there is a common universal
 present moment that all observers inhabit, and thus that that common
 universal present moment is the only moment anything exists in, that it is
 the only locus of reality.

 This conclusively proves that there are 

Re: Another shot at how spacetime emerges from computational reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 9:40 PM, Stephen Paul King 
stephe...@provensecure.com wrote:

 Dear Brent,

I have a persisting question. How is is that we can get away with using
 verbs (implying actions) when we are describing timeless entities?


In the same way we can say that y increases as x increases, in the graph of
y = 2x + 7

Jason


 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 8:59 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 4:41 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 30 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Liz,

  Good questions. The computations take place in P-time which is the
 universal processor cycle in which they execute. The results of the
 computations compute dimensional space and CLOCK time.

   So an external time dimension is required.

  So imagine a universe with a time dimension and some space-less
 computations...I'll try.


 This shouldn't be any harder than imagining Bruno's Turing machine
 computing everything...including space and time.

 Brent

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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-29 Thread Jason Resch
On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 6:58 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 3:49 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 5:42 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 12/29/2013 2:08 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 4:51 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 1:28 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




 On Sun, Dec 29, 2013 at 2:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/29/2013 5:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 28 Dec 2013, at 22:23, meekerdb wrote:

  On 12/28/2013 4:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 For a long time I got opponent saying that we cannot generate
 computationally a random number, and that is right, if we want generate
 only that numbers. but a simple counting algorithm generating all numbers,
 0, 1, 2,  6999500235148668, ... generates all random finite
 incompressible strings,


 How can a finite string be incompressible?  6999500235148668 in base
 6999500235148669 is just 10.



  You can define a finite string as incompressible when the shorter
 combinators to generate it is as lengthy as the string itself.
 This definition is not universal for a finite amount of short sequences
 which indeed will depend of the language used (here combinators).

  Then you can show that such a definition can be made universal by
 adding some constant, which will depend of the universal language.

  It can be shown that most (finite!) numbers, written in any base, are
 random in that sense.

  Of course, 10 is a sort of compression of any string X in some base,
 but if you allow change of base, you will need to send the base with the
 number in the message. If you fix the base, then indeed 10 will be a
 compression of that particular number base, for that language, and it is
 part of incompressibility theory that no definition exist working for all
 (small) numbers.


  Since all finite numbers are small, I think this means the theory only
 holds in the limit.

 Brent



  Brent,

  It is easy to see with the pigeon hole principal.  There are more 2
 digit numbers than 1 digit numbers, and more 3 digit numbers than 2 digit
 numbers, and so on.  For any string you can represent using a shorter
 string, another shorter string must necessarily be displaced.  You can't
 keep replacing things with shorter strings because there aren't enough of
 them, so as a side-effect, every compression strategy must represent some
 strings by larger ones.  In fact, the average size of all possible
 compressed messages (with some upper-bound length n) can never be smaller
 than the average size of all uncompressed messages.

  The only reason compression algorithms are useful is because they are
 tailored to represent some class of messages with shorter strings, while
 making (the vast majority of) other messages slightly larger.


  A good explanation.


  Thanks.


  But just because you cannot compress all numbers of a given size
 doesn't imply that any particular number is incompressible.


  That is true if you consider the size of the compression program to be
 of no relevance.  In such a case, you can of course have a number of very
 small strings map directly to very large ones.


   So isn't it the case that every finite number string is compressible
 in some algorithm?  So there's no sense to saying 6999500235148668 is
 random, but 11 is not, except relative to some given
 compression algorithm.


  Right, but this leads to the concept of Kolmogorov complexity. If you
 consider the size of the minimum string and algorithm together, necessary
 to represent some number, you will find there are some patterns of data
 that are more compressible than others.  In your previous example with base
 6999500235148668, you would need to include both that base, and the string
 10 in order to encode 6999500235148669.


  But that seems to make the randomness of a number dependent on the base
 used to write it down? Did I have to write down And this is in base 10 to
 show that 6999500235148668 is random?  There seems to be an equivocation
 here on computing a number and computing a representation of a number.



  A number containing regular patterns in some base, will also contain
 regular patterns in some other base (even if they are not obvious to us),
 compression algorithms are good at recognizing them.

  The text of this sentence may not seem very redundant, but english text
 can generally be compressed somewhere between 20% - 30% of its original
 size.  If you convert a number like 555 to base 2, its patterns
 should be more evident in the pattern of bits.


 For the majority of numbers, you will find the Kolmogorov complexity
 of the number to almost always be on the order of the number of digits in
 that number.  The exceptions like 11 are few and far between.


  1 looks a lot messier in base 9.



  base 10: 111
  base 9: 7355531854711617707
 base 2: 

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