RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Berg, Thomas C.
Alan, I take your point, but would the objection to a statement and its 
symbolic effect be based on non-establishment rather than free exercise?  A 
non-establishment argument seems quite plausible in your hypo where the 
statement, X is a false faith, is a facially religious assertion, but is it 
plausible if the criticism is just of a group's temporal activities?  When the 
San Francisco board of supervisors adopted the resolution condemning groups 
that oppose homosexuality and the groups sued to challenge the resolution, did 
they state a free exercise as well as a non-establishment claim?  Nearly all of 
the court's serious discussion was on the Establishment Clause.  See American 
Family Assn. v. San Francisco, 277 F.3d 1114 (9th Cir. 2002).
 
Tom



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Brownstein, Alan
Sent: Fri 8/1/2008 12:34 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Tom, I tend to agree with you and Doug, but I think your description of Bowen 
v. Row is broader than the the way I would characterize it -- although the 
difference may be hair splitting. I think the idea behind Bowen v Roy isn't 
that a litigant can't challenge how the government has acted in its own 
operations, but that a litigant can't challenge how the government has acted in 
its own operations to avoid a kind of spiritual harm that has no real or 
secular world ramifications. I'm not certain that we can never challenge what 
the government calls its own laws. If the government used language in a law 
that stigmatized a particular religion -- an exemption or accommodation made 
available for members of false faiths (who use peyote in religious ceremonies 
or observe Saturday as the Sabbath) -- we might insist that the government 
change the language it uses to describe the accommodation because of the 
symbolic or status harm that it causes. But the alleged harm that results fr!
 om being indirectly associated with the mark of the beast is different.

I think that the government is acting in its own sphere in Lyng, but it is also 
doing something to the Native Americans' ability to practice their faith that 
has a tangible, secular dimension to it -- and that distinguishes it from, and 
makes it  a more difficult case than, Bowen v. Roy where the harm can only be 
understood in spiritual terms.

Alan Brownstein
UC Davis School of Law


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Berg, Thomas C. [EMAIL 
PROTECTED]
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:55 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Eugene, I think one can cut the cases the way you did; but one can also cut 
them the way I and Doug suggested.  To satisfy the Roys' objection to providing 
the social security number, the government would have had to let them do 
something different (not provide the number).  To satisfy Sherrod's objection, 
all the government has to do is renumber the statute; then it can require him 
to do exactly the same thing (pay the money).  In that sense, Sherrod's 
objection is not to what he's being required to do, but to how the government 
has acted in its own operations (how it numbers a statute).  I think that this 
characterization, bringing the case within Roy, is preferable because it 
explains the intuition that the government should win without resting on the 
problematic rationales that (a) the government must/can show a compelling 
interest/ least restrictive means in this instance -- i.e. it would be really 
hard to renumber this statute -- or (b) the claim is insincere or a mist!
 aken scriptural interpretation.  Doesn't this eliminate the seeming puzzle in 
the case without creating any problems?

My point overlaps with Doug's -- a regime allowing free exercise objections to 
what the government calls its laws is not manageable -- but it's narrower.  I 
think that Nothwest Indian v. Lyng can be seen as the government doing 
something to the Native Americans, and not just as acting in its own sphere.

Tom Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law (Minneapolis)




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Thu 7/31/2008 5:57 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
government to have a section 666

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be right.
But I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an objection
to any behavior demanded of him and an objection to the government's
behavior.  As I understand it, his objection is to both, or rather to
the latter through the former.  He says, I object to your demanding
that I go along with these things that are pursuant to 42 USC 666.
He's not just saying that there's something wrong with the government's
keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying that he refuses to go
along with what the government demands of him, because the demand is
made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting to the
government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the objection to
what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in what
remained of Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.
 
Eugene




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



I understand that difference. It shows that the line is not
perfectly clean.  few lines are.

But fundamentally, this guy's religious objection is not to any
behavior demanded of him.  It is to the government's behavior.  He says,
I'll pay my child support if you the government renumber your
statutes.  It is the government's behavior that has to change to put
him in compliance with his alleged religious beliefs, not his own
behavior.  Government wants him to pay $X to his wife, and he says he is
perfectly willing to pay $X to his wife.  But first, the government has
to do something that he says is required by his religion.  

That is the essence of Lyng and Bowen.  He is not trying to
insulate his own behavior from regulation; he is trying to control the
government's behavior.

 

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is
that the
 internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't
required to
 actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs
(the
 government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's
social security
 number, and five Justices took the view that the government
indeed had a
 constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought
that the
 government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually
harmful.

 Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's
bad for the
 government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it
violates
 his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
 Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section
777, then
 he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed
its
 internal procedures, but because the action that he would be
required to
 do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the
number of
 the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

 Eugene

 Tom Berg writes:

 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a
 matter of the government's internal procedures like the
 assignment of a social security number in Roy?  If
 renumbering the provision would meet the objection, then the
 objection seems separable from the payment requirement itself
 and thus (arguably) concerns an internal government matter.
 It's not clear how much the Roy principle applies to RFRAs,
 but this might be the explanation for rejecting his claim
 that fits best into the previous law.
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Eric Rassbach
Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at what the specific 
religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That has the virtue of focusing 
the court's analysis while avoiding the vice of a forbidden centrality 
analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail, 513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).



In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious exercise that he can 
claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo Nation case currently before 
the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I think the Navajo have a stronger 
claim than Sherrod does, since they have described specific religious exercises 
that are burdened by the government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be 
sprayed on mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies.



Re Tom's question earlier, if San Francisco passed a law (rather than a 
resolution) saying Santeria is a false religion then I think the 9th Circuit 
said in AFA v SF that it might have decided it the other way.  And under Lukumi 
it seems fairly clear that any such law would give rise to a colorable Free 
Exercise claim based on intentional discrimination.




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be right.  But 
I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an objection to any 
behavior demanded of him and an objection to the government's behavior.  As 
I understand it, his objection is to both, or rather to the latter through the 
former.  He says, I object to your demanding that I go along with these things 
that are pursuant to 42 USC 666.  He's not just saying that there's something 
wrong with the government's keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying 
that he refuses to go along with what the government demands of him, because 
the demand is made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting to 
the government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the objection to 
what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in what remained of 
Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.

Eugene

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

I understand that difference. It shows that the line is not perfectly clean.  
few lines are.

But fundamentally, this guy's religious objection is not to any behavior 
demanded of him.  It is to the government's behavior.  He says, I'll pay my 
child support if you the government renumber your statutes.  It is the 
government's behavior that has to change to put him in compliance with his 
alleged religious beliefs, not his own behavior.  Government wants him to pay 
$X to his wife, and he says he is perfectly willing to pay $X to his wife.  But 
first, the government has to do something that he says is required by his 
religion.

That is the essence of Lyng and Bowen.  He is not trying to insulate his own 
behavior from regulation; he is trying to control the government's behavior.



Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
 internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
 actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
 government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
 number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
 constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
 government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

 Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
 government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it violates
 his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
 Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section 777, then
 he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed its
 internal procedures, but because the action that he would be required to
 do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the number of
 the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

 Eugene

 Tom Berg writes:

 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a
 matter of the government's internal procedures like the
 assignment of a social security number in Roy

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Conkle, Daniel O.
Actually, I think the same combined elements were present in Bowen, even with 
the social security number already in the government's hands - the claimant 
objected to participating in the program by applying for and receiving benefits 
that would, in his view, rob the child's soul because the government would be 
using a social security number and not her name.  So, in effect, he was  
objecting to what was being demanded of him - applying for at least receiving 
benefits, cashing checks, using the money, etc. - in light of what the 
government was doing internally.  Right?

That said, I think Doug's explanation of the internal operations cases is quite 
cogent.

Dan Conkle
***
Daniel O. Conkle
Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
Indiana University School of Law
Bloomington, Indiana  47405
(812) 855-4331
fax (812) 855-0555
e-mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]
***


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be right.  But 
I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an objection to any 
behavior demanded of him and an objection to the government's behavior.  As 
I understand it, his objection is to both, or rather to the latter through the 
former.  He says, I object to your demanding that I go along with these things 
that are pursuant to 42 USC 666.  He's not just saying that there's something 
wrong with the government's keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying 
that he refuses to go along with what the government demands of him, because 
the demand is made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting to 
the government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the objection to 
what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in what remained of 
Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.

Eugene

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666


I understand that difference. It shows that the line is not perfectly clean.  
few lines are.

But fundamentally, this guy's religious objection is not to any behavior 
demanded of him.  It is to the government's behavior.  He says, I'll pay my 
child support if you the government renumber your statutes.  It is the 
government's behavior that has to change to put him in compliance with his 
alleged religious beliefs, not his own behavior.  Government wants him to pay 
$X to his wife, and he says he is perfectly willing to pay $X to his wife.  But 
first, the government has to do something that he says is required by his 
religion.

That is the essence of Lyng and Bowen.  He is not trying to insulate his own 
behavior from regulation; he is trying to control the government's behavior.



Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
 internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
 actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
 government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
 number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
 constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
 government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

 Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
 government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it violates
 his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
 Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section 777, then
 he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed its
 internal procedures, but because the action that he would be required to
 do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the number of
 the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

 Eugene

 Tom Berg writes:

 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a
 matter of the government's internal procedures like the
 assignment of a social security number in Roy?  If
 renumbering the provision would meet the objection, then the
 objection seems separable from the payment requirement itself
 and thus (arguably) concerns

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is enough like
Bowen v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it seems to there
is a specific religious exercise being burdened, in the sense of a
specific religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to violate:  He
thinks it's wrong for him to comply with orders issued under the
Beast-numbered section, just as Thomas thought it was wrong for him to
work on producing munitions, or Sherbert thought it was wrong for her to
work on Saturdays.  It's true that this is interference with a negative
command (don't participate in Beast-authorized things) and not a
positive command (do perform this particular ritual), but that
distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?
 
Eugene




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at what
the specific religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That has the
virtue of focusing the court's analysis while avoiding the vice of a
forbidden centrality analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail, 513
F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).

 

In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious exercise
that he can claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo Nation
case currently before the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I think
the Navajo have a stronger claim than Sherrod does, since they have
described specific religious exercises that are burdened by the
government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be sprayed on
mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies. 

 

Re Tom's question earlier, if San Francisco passed a law (rather
than a resolution) saying Santeria is a false religion then I think
the 9th Circuit said in AFA v SF that it might have decided it the other
way.  And under Lukumi it seems fairly clear that any such law would
give rise to a colorable Free Exercise claim based on intentional
discrimination.

 

 

 

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

 

Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be
right.  But I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an
objection to any behavior demanded of him and an objection to the
government's behavior.  As I understand it, his objection is to both,
or rather to the latter through the former.  He says, I object to your
demanding that I go along with these things that are pursuant to 42 USC
666.  He's not just saying that there's something wrong with the
government's keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying that he
refuses to go along with what the government demands of him, because the
demand is made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting
to the government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the
objection to what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in
what remained of Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.

 

Eugene



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

I understand that difference. It shows that the line is
not perfectly clean.  few lines are.

But fundamentally, this guy's religious objection is not
to any behavior demanded of him.  It is to the government's behavior.
He says, I'll pay my child support if you the government renumber your
statutes.  It is the government's behavior that has to change to put
him in compliance with his alleged religious beliefs, not his own
behavior.  Government wants him to pay $X to his wife, and he says he is
perfectly willing to pay $X to his wife.  But first, the government has
to do something that he says is required by his religion.  

That is the essence of Lyng and Bowen.  He is not trying
to insulate his own behavior from regulation; he is trying to control
the government's behavior.

 

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my
sense is that the
 internal procedures point there was that the Roys
weren't required to
 actually do anything that violated their religious
beliefs (the
 government had

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Conkle, Daniel O.
As Eugene suggests, I think the burden, in reality, is indeed no different than 
in other contexts.  What's different is the unmanageability of such claims, so 
it's something of a legal fiction to say that there is no burden.  Better, 
perhaps, to say that there is no *constitutionally cognizable* burden, which is 
language the Supreme Court itself has used, if I'm not mistaken.

Dan Conkle
***
Daniel O. Conkle
Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
Indiana University School of Law
Bloomington, Indiana  47405
(812) 855-4331
fax (812) 855-0555
e-mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]
***





From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 11:42 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is enough like Bowen 
v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it seems to there is a 
specific religious exercise being burdened, in the sense of a specific 
religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to violate:  He thinks it's 
wrong for him to comply with orders issued under the Beast-numbered section, 
just as Thomas thought it was wrong for him to work on producing munitions, or 
Sherbert thought it was wrong for her to work on Saturdays.  It's true that 
this is interference with a negative command (don't participate in 
Beast-authorized things) and not a positive command (do perform this particular 
ritual), but that distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious 
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?

Eugene


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666


Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at what the specific 
religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That has the virtue of focusing 
the court's analysis while avoiding the vice of a forbidden centrality 
analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail, 513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).



In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious exercise that he can 
claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo Nation case currently before 
the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I think the Navajo have a stronger 
claim than Sherrod does, since they have described specific religious exercises 
that are burdened by the government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be 
sprayed on mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies.



Re Tom's question earlier, if San Francisco passed a law (rather than a 
resolution) saying Santeria is a false religion then I think the 9th Circuit 
said in AFA v SF that it might have decided it the other way.  And under Lukumi 
it seems fairly clear that any such law would give rise to a colorable Free 
Exercise claim based on intentional discrimination.




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be right.  But 
I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an objection to any 
behavior demanded of him and an objection to the government's behavior.  As 
I understand it, his objection is to both, or rather to the latter through the 
former.  He says, I object to your demanding that I go along with these things 
that are pursuant to 42 USC 666.  He's not just saying that there's something 
wrong with the government's keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying 
that he refuses to go along with what the government demands of him, because 
the demand is made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting to 
the government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the objection to 
what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in what remained of 
Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.

Eugene

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

I understand that difference. It shows that the line is not perfectly clean.  
few lines are.

But fundamentally, this guy's religious objection is not to any behavior 
demanded of him.  It is to the government's behavior.  He says, I'll pay my 
child support if you the government renumber your statutes.  It is the 
government's behavior that has to change to put him in compliance with his 
alleged religious beliefs, not his own behavior.  Government wants him to pay 
$X to his wife, and he says he is perfectly willing to pay $X to his wife

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Brownstein, Alan
The line delineating kinds of burdens here gets pretty thin. Is Sherrod 
claiming a right not to participate in Beast-authorized things or a right not 
to associate with  the Mark of the Beast? The latter could be incredibly broad. 
Under your analysis, Eugene, would there be a difference between these two 
arguments? What if someone argued that it violated their faith to comply with 
laws voted on by non-believers (of their particular religion]?

Mike Newdow has a RFRA claim before the Ninth circuit (I think it is still 
pending) in which he claims that having In God We Trust on currency violates 
his ability to  exercise his religion. (He asserts a religion of Atheism in the 
case.) Newdow argues that the members of his Church can't even pass the plate 
to collect donations during services without being forced to communicate a 
message that repudiates their beliefs.

Does that raise a cognizable RFRA or free exercise claim, Eugene? This issue 
may be more commonly addressed under the Establishment Clause, Tom. Does that 
mean there isn't a free exercise issue here as well?

Alan Brownstein
UC Davis School of Law



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:42 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is enough like Bowen 
v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it seems to there is a 
specific religious exercise being burdened, in the sense of a specific 
religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to violate:  He thinks it's 
wrong for him to comply with orders issued under the Beast-numbered section, 
just as Thomas thought it was wrong for him to work on producing munitions, or 
Sherbert thought it was wrong for her to work on Saturdays.  It's true that 
this is interference with a negative command (don't participate in 
Beast-authorized things) and not a positive command (do perform this particular 
ritual), but that distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious 
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?

Eugene


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at what the specific 
religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That has the virtue of focusing 
the court's analysis while avoiding the vice of a forbidden centrality 
analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail, 513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).



In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious exercise that he can 
claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo Nation case currently before 
the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I think the Navajo have a stronger 
claim than Sherrod does, since they have described specific religious exercises 
that are burdened by the government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be 
sprayed on mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies.



Re Tom's question earlier, if San Francisco passed a law (rather than a 
resolution) saying Santeria is a false religion then I think the 9th Circuit 
said in AFA v SF that it might have decided it the other way.  And under Lukumi 
it seems fairly clear that any such law would give rise to a colorable Free 
Exercise claim based on intentional discrimination.




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Doug:  I much appreciate your responses, and you may well be right.  But 
I'm just not quite sure about the distinction between an objection to any 
behavior demanded of him and an objection to the government's behavior.  As 
I understand it, his objection is to both, or rather to the latter through the 
former.  He says, I object to your demanding that I go along with these things 
that are pursuant to 42 USC 666.  He's not just saying that there's something 
wrong with the government's keeping records on him in room 666; he's saying 
that he refuses to go along with what the government demands of him, because 
the demand is made under 42 USC 666.  Indeed, in the process he's objecting to 
the government's behavior, but the root of it is precisely the objection to 
what's demanded of him -- something that wasn't the case in what remained of 
Bowen, or for that matter in Lyng.

Eugene

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:51 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

I understand that difference. It shows that the line is not perfectly clean.  
few lines

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Volokh, Eugene
I'm inclined to say that Sherrod's claim is, as the court
characterizes it, that it is wrong to submit to an order which relies
for its authority upon a federal statute, 42 USC 666, or, put another
way, to cooperate in any way with the State's attempt to enforce his
obligation of child support [using that statute].  It's hard for me to
see why requiring one to submit such an order wouldn't be a substantial
burden, but requiring one to work on munitions would be.
 
As to the Newdow claim, the matter is complex, because he's not
strictly required to use government currency, and these days might not
even be practically required, since he could ask people to write checks.
Rather, if his claim is that it is spiritually prohibited to him (and
not just offensive to him) to use currency with God's name on it, he
would also have to show that the government's action in coercively
prohibiting rival currency is what's causing the interference with his
religious practice.
 
Finally, if someone thinks that God forbids him from complying with
laws voted on by nonbelievers, then it seems to me that ordering such
compliance would certainly substantially burden his religion -- there
just wouldn't be any less restrictive alternatives that don't themselves
cause serious constitutional problems.  But as to 42 USC 666, there is a
pretty simple alternative -- create a copy of the statute in 42 USC 777
(or some such).




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Brownstein,
Alan
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 9:48 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



The line delineating kinds of burdens here gets pretty thin. Is
Sherrod claiming a right not to participate in Beast-authorized things
or a right not to associate with  the Mark of the Beast? The latter
could be incredibly broad. Under your analysis, Eugene, would there be a
difference between these two arguments? What if someone argued that it
violated their faith to comply with laws voted on by non-believers (of
their particular religion]?

 

Mike Newdow has a RFRA claim before the Ninth circuit (I think
it is still pending) in which he claims that having In God We Trust on
currency violates his ability to  exercise his religion. (He asserts a
religion of Atheism in the case.) Newdow argues that the members of his
Church can't even pass the plate to collect donations during services
without being forced to communicate a message that repudiates their
beliefs. 

 

Does that raise a cognizable RFRA or free exercise claim,
Eugene? This issue may be more commonly addressed under the
Establishment Clause, Tom. Does that mean there isn't a free exercise
issue here as well?

 

Alan Brownstein

UC Davis School of Law

 

 

 

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:42 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

 

Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is
enough like Bowen v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it
seems to there is a specific religious exercise being burdened, in the
sense of a specific religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to
violate:  He thinks it's wrong for him to comply with orders issued
under the Beast-numbered section, just as Thomas thought it was wrong
for him to work on producing munitions, or Sherbert thought it was wrong
for her to work on Saturdays.  It's true that this is interference with
a negative command (don't participate in Beast-authorized things) and
not a positive command (do perform this particular ritual), but that
distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?

 

Eugene

 



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at
what the specific religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That
has the virtue of focusing the court's analysis while avoiding the vice
of a forbidden centrality analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail,
513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).

 

In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious
exercise that he can claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo
Nation case currently before the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I
think the Navajo have a stronger claim than Sherrod does, since

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Volokh, Eugene
I appreciate the concerns about the manageability of such claims,
but I wonder exactly what we mean by unmanageability.  Most granted
exemption requests generally require considerable changes to government
procedures -- the government may have to set up hearing mechanisms,
alternative surveillance and investigation mechanisms that are needed to
serve its interests (consider some of the proposed alternatives in the
peyote case, aimed at making sure the peyote is indeed used responsibly,
children can't get access to it, and the like), schemes for informing
employees about what the rules are, devices for making sure that the
rules are applied fairly, and so on.  Here, by comparison, the change is
high-level (it requires a Congressional act) but otherwise relatively
cheap:  Copy 42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777.
 
Or is the concern one about management of subsequent claims by
others who have other objections?  That concern, after all, arises often
with regard to traditional exemption requests, too.
 
Eugene




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Conkle, Daniel
O.
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:57 AM
To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666


As Eugene suggests, I think the burden, in reality, is indeed no
different than in other contexts.  What's different is the
unmanageability of such claims, so it's something of a legal fiction to
say that there is no burden.  Better, perhaps, to say that there is no
*constitutionally cognizable* burden, which is language the Supreme
Court itself has used, if I'm not mistaken.
Dan Conkle 
*** 
Daniel O. Conkle 
Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law 
Indiana University School of Law 
Bloomington, Indiana  47405 
(812) 855-4331 
fax (812) 855-0555 
e-mail [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
*** 

 
 



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 11:42 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666


Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is
enough like Bowen v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it
seems to there is a specific religious exercise being burdened, in the
sense of a specific religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to
violate:  He thinks it's wrong for him to comply with orders issued
under the Beast-numbered section, just as Thomas thought it was wrong
for him to work on producing munitions, or Sherbert thought it was wrong
for her to work on Saturdays.  It's true that this is interference with
a negative command (don't participate in Beast-authorized things) and
not a positive command (do perform this particular ritual), but that
distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?
 
Eugene




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at
what the specific religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That
has the virtue of focusing the court's analysis while avoiding the vice
of a forbidden centrality analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail,
513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).

 

In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious
exercise that he can claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo
Nation case currently before the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I
think the Navajo have a stronger claim than Sherrod does, since they
have described specific religious exercises that are burdened by the
government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be sprayed on
mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies. 

 

Re Tom's question earlier, if San Francisco passed a law
(rather than a resolution) saying Santeria is a false religion then I
think the 9th Circuit said in AFA v SF that it might have decided it the
other way.  And under Lukumi it seems fairly clear that any such law
would give rise to a colorable Free Exercise claim based on intentional
discrimination.

 

 

 

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:59 AM
To: Law

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Eric Rassbach
It is worth noting that, although the opinion is a bit unclear, the actual 
penalty imposed on Sherrod for failing to comply with the lower court's order 
to send his child support payments to the state DHS (in compliance with state 
laws required in turn by Section 666) appears to be that he will have his 
federal income tax refund intercepted.  The refund would be offset against the 
child support amounts he owes and already agrees he should pay to his wife.  So 
arguably there's no burden at all since he hasn't suffered any detriment for 
failing to cooperate with the Section 666-inspired order.  And my guess is that 
intercepting his tax refund is also more manageable for the government than 
changing 42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777 would be.


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 1:19 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

I appreciate the concerns about the manageability of such claims, but I 
wonder exactly what we mean by unmanageability.  Most granted exemption 
requests generally require considerable changes to government procedures -- the 
government may have to set up hearing mechanisms, alternative surveillance and 
investigation mechanisms that are needed to serve its interests (consider some 
of the proposed alternatives in the peyote case, aimed at making sure the 
peyote is indeed used responsibly, children can't get access to it, and the 
like), schemes for informing employees about what the rules are, devices for 
making sure that the rules are applied fairly, and so on.  Here, by comparison, 
the change is high-level (it requires a Congressional act) but otherwise 
relatively cheap:  Copy 42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777.

Or is the concern one about management of subsequent claims by others who 
have other objections?  That concern, after all, arises often with regard to 
traditional exemption requests, too.

Eugene


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Conkle, Daniel O.
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:57 AM
To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666
As Eugene suggests, I think the burden, in reality, is indeed no different than 
in other contexts.  What's different is the unmanageability of such claims, so 
it's something of a legal fiction to say that there is no burden.  Better, 
perhaps, to say that there is no *constitutionally cognizable* burden, which is 
language the Supreme Court itself has used, if I'm not mistaken.

Dan Conkle
***
Daniel O. Conkle
Robert H. McKinney Professor of Law
Indiana University School of Law
Bloomington, Indiana  47405
(812) 855-4331
fax (812) 855-0555
e-mail [EMAIL PROTECTED]
***




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 11:42 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666
Perhaps Doug, Dan, and others are right that the case is enough like Bowen 
v. Roy to be disposed of by that precedent.  But it seems to there is a 
specific religious exercise being burdened, in the sense of a specific 
religious prohibition that Sherrod doesn't want to violate:  He thinks it's 
wrong for him to comply with orders issued under the Beast-numbered section, 
just as Thomas thought it was wrong for him to work on producing munitions, or 
Sherbert thought it was wrong for her to work on Saturdays.  It's true that 
this is interference with a negative command (don't participate in 
Beast-authorized things) and not a positive command (do perform this particular 
ritual), but that distinction has rightly never made a difference in religious 
accommodation cases.  Or am I missing something here?

Eugene


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 8:19 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Might it not be helpful in this context to look first at what the specific 
religious exercise is that is being burdened?  That has the virtue of focusing 
the court's analysis while avoiding the vice of a forbidden centrality 
analysis.  See Greene v. Solano County Jail, 513 F.3d 982, 988 (9th Cir. 2008).



In Sherrod's case, I don't see any specific religious exercise that he can 
claim is being burdened.  In the Lyng-like Navajo Nation case currently before 
the Ninth Circuit en banc, by contrast, I think the Navajo have a stronger 
claim than Sherrod does, since they have described specific religious exercises 
that are burdened by the government's action in allowing reclaimed sewage to be 
sprayed on mountains where they conduct religious ceremonies.



Re Tom's question

RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Perhaps this is indeed so on the facts of this particular case;
but I take it in a future case, there might be no tax refund to offset
this against, no?
 
Eugene
 
 
 Eric Rassbach writes:




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:34 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



It is worth noting that, although the opinion is a bit unclear,
the actual penalty imposed on Sherrod for failing to comply with the
lower court's order to send his child support payments to the state DHS
(in compliance with state laws required in turn by Section 666) appears
to be that he will have his federal income tax refund intercepted.  The
refund would be offset against the child support amounts he owes and
already agrees he should pay to his wife.  So arguably there's no burden
at all since he hasn't suffered any detriment for failing to cooperate
with the Section 666-inspired order.  And my guess is that intercepting
his tax refund is also more manageable for the government than changing
42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777 would be.  

___
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread ArtSpitzer
I'm not even sure the necessary change would require an Act of Congress.   
Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think a statute's codification 
in the US Code is generally a part of the bill enacted by Congress. If you 
look at the Statutes at Large, you'll see the future codification in the 
margin, 
not in the text.   I think codification is just an administrative function.   

And I assume it would be sufficient for the father here if 42 USC § 666 were 
changed to 42 USC § 665a, so it wouldn't even have to be moved to a different 
position in the books.

Art Spitzer
ACLU
Washington DC

In a message dated 8/1/08 1:19:42 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

 Here, by comparison, the change is high-level (it requires a Congressional 
 act) but otherwise relatively cheap:  Copy 42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777.
 




**
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Eric Rassbach

True, but after that I imagine the government would put a lien on his personal 
property or use other methods short of prison to enforce the judgment against 
him.  Since he's agreed that he is obligated to pay, and would having no 
problem paying his wife or the trial court directly, none of these methods of 
extracting child support payments from him without his cooperation would seem 
to burden his religious exercise, precisely because it is mere cooperation with 
one part of the government that he feels would violate his religious beliefs.   
A harder question under SB would be if he had a sincere belief that he should 
not pay child support at all; but that would likely be disposed of under the 
CGI/LRM analysis.

It seems important in substantial burden cases, be it under RFRA, state RFRAs, 
RLUIPA or Sherbert/Yoder, for courts to first look at what the specific claimed 
religious exercise (negative or positive) is, whether that exercise is sincere, 
and what the burden or penalty imposed for engaging in the exercise is.  A lot 
of the claimed problems with RLUIPA and the RFRAs disappear if these standards 
are applied universally, especially when the relative prevalence of different 
classes of cases is factored in.  For example, lack of sincerity is something 
that should eliminate a significant number of prisoner RLUIPA claims, but 
prison systems and courts have been reluctant to uniformly apply that standard 
before reaching the SB analysis.  If a sincerity filter were applied regularly 
by prison systems and the courts, then a number of harder RLUIPA prisoner cases 
would be eliminated without raising unnecessary SB or constitutional questions. 
 (Perhaps even Sherrod's case would have been eliminated.)  Also, in my view 
the occasional accommodation of a sincere Sherrod-like plaintiff who could 
demonstrate a true burden would seem to be worth the benefit of protecting the 
religious liberty of a great number of people.



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 1:42 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Perhaps this is indeed so on the facts of this particular case; but I 
take it in a future case, there might be no tax refund to offset this against, 
no?

Eugene


 Eric Rassbach writes:


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Eric Rassbach
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 10:34 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666
It is worth noting that, although the opinion is a bit unclear, the actual 
penalty imposed on Sherrod for failing to comply with the lower court's order 
to send his child support payments to the state DHS (in compliance with state 
laws required in turn by Section 666) appears to be that he will have his 
federal income tax refund intercepted.  The refund would be offset against the 
child support amounts he owes and already agrees he should pay to his wife.  So 
arguably there's no burden at all since he hasn't suffered any detriment for 
failing to cooperate with the Section 666-inspired order.  And my guess is that 
intercepting his tax refund is also more manageable for the government than 
changing 42 USC 666 to 42 USC 777 would be.
___
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Douglas Laycock


Except that sometimes, I think the drafters do it right in the bill.  If they 
are amending existing legislation that has already been numbered, and they are 
inserting new sections, I think that the bill sometimes numbers those sections. 
 So Section 2 of the bill may amend section 665 of the existing Act and add a 
new section 666.  I'm pretty sure I've seen examples of this, although I can't 
swear to it.   

If the bill number is created by an Act of Congress, then I suppose it takes 
another Act of Congress to change it.  Which is why you occasionally see bills 
to correct typos. 

Quoting Corcos, Christine [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 I think it's done by the Office of the Law Revision Counsel of the 
 U.S. House of Representatives.



 

 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of 
 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 2:01 PM
 To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 Subject: Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



 I'm not even sure the necessary change would require an Act of 
 Congress.  Someone can correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think a 
 statute's codification in the US Code is generally a part of the bill 
 enacted by Congress. If you look at the Statutes at Large, you'll see 
 the future codification in the margin, not in the text.  I think 
 codification is just an administrative function.

 And I assume it would be sufficient for the father here if 42 USC § 
 666 were changed to 42 USC § 665a, so it wouldn't even have to be 
 moved to a different position in the books.

 Art Spitzer
 ACLU
 Washington DC

 In a message dated 8/1/08 1:19:42 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:




 Here, by comparison, the change is high-level (it requires a 
 Congressional act) but otherwise relatively cheap:  Copy 42 USC 666 
 to 42 USC 777.






 **
 Looking for a car that's sporty, fun and fits in your budget? Read 
 reviews on AOL Autos.
 (http://autos.aol.com/cars-BMW-128-2008/expert-review?ncid=aolaut000517[1]
  
 )



Douglas Laycock
Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
University of Michigan Law School
625 S. State St.
Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
  734-647-9713

Links:
--
[1] 
http://autos.aol.com/cars-BMW-128-2008/expert-review?ncid=aolaut000517___
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread ArtSpitzer
Yes, I think what Prof. Laycock says is also true.   And it's probably true 
that if congressional action were needed, a change from 666 to 665a could be 
included in a long list of technical corrections attached to some omnibus bill, 
and no Member would even notice it.   But I'm not sure a court could order 
Congress to do that, while a court could (at least more likely could) order the 
Office of the Law Revision Counsel to make such a change.   But I suppose I'm 
straying from religion and the law.

Art Spitzer

In a message dated 8/1/08 3:35:27 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
 
 Except that sometimes, I think the drafters do it right in the bill.  If 
 they are amending existing legislation that has already been numbered, and 
 they 
 are inserting new sections, I think that the bill sometimes numbers those 
 sections.  So Section 2 of the bill may amend section 665 of the existing Act 
 and add a new section 666.  I'm pretty sure I've seen examples of this, 
 although I can't swear to it. 
  If the bill number is created by an Act of Congress, then I suppose it 
 takes another Act of Congress to change it.  Which is why you occasionally 
 see 
 bills to correct typos.
 




**
Looking for a car that's sporty, fun and fits in your budget? 
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-08-01 Thread Eric Rassbach
In Dr. Newdow's challenges to the Pledge of Allegiance (codified at 4 U.S.C. 
Section 4) he has sued both the United States Congress and the Law Revision 
Counsel, and has sought an order that the Law Revision Counsel strike the words 
under God from that Section.


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Friday, August 01, 2008 3:45 PM
To: religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Yes, I think what Prof. Laycock says is also true.  And it's probably true that 
if congressional action were needed, a change from 666 to 665a could be 
included in a long list of technical corrections attached to some omnibus bill, 
and no Member would even notice it.  But I'm not sure a court could order 
Congress to do that, while a court could (at least more likely could) order the 
Office of the Law Revision Counsel to make such a change.  But I suppose I'm 
straying from religion and the law.

Art Spitzer

In a message dated 8/1/08 3:35:27 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:


Except that sometimes, I think the drafters do it right in the bill.  If they 
are amending existing legislation that has already been numbered, and they are 
inserting new sections, I think that the bill sometimes numbers those sections. 
 So Section 2 of the bill may amend section 665 of the existing Act and add a 
new section 666.  I'm pretty sure I've seen examples of this, although I can't 
swear to it.
If the bill number is created by an Act of Congress, then I suppose it takes 
another Act of Congress to change it.  Which is why you occasionally see bills 
to correct typos.





**
Looking for a car that's sporty, fun and fits in your budget? Read reviews on 
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Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Sherrod v. Tenn. Dep't of Human Servs., 2008 WL 2894691 (Tenn.
Ct. App.), involves a father who refused to pay his child support,
partly because Mr. Sherrod states that he is a Born Again Christian and
a Sunday School teacher and that he is greatly disturbed that DHS is
attempting to compel him to submit to an order which relies for its
authority upon a federal statute, 42 USC sec. 666.  He cites us to the
Book of Revelations, where the number 666 is associated with the 'Mark
of the Beast' and the end of days.
 
Assume Sherrod is sincere, not implausible given his willingness
to fight the matter at trial and on appeal over $1,188 in arrearages
(granted, he's litigating pro se, but this presumably has taken a good
deal of time and effort, and some money, on his part).  Assume also that
a strict scrutiny regime applies.  (Whether because Sherrod didn't raise
RFRA or whether because for some reason RFRA is inapplicable givne the
procedural posture, this particular court applied the Smith approach.)
 
Should Sherrod prevail?  I take it that the government could
just reenact 42 USC sec. 666 as 42 USC sec. something-else, and thus
alleviate the burden on Sherrod's religion; does that make enforcing 42
USC 666 not the least restrictive alternative?  Or are alternatives that
involve having Congress take the time and effort to renumber a statute
(or enact a duplicate copy) just too burdensome to be considered as part
of the least restrictive alternative inquiry (or are otherwise improper
for consideration).

I should say, by the way, that I don't think Sherrod should win
as a matter of principles, nor do I think it likely that he would in
fact win even under a RFRA-like regime.  But that's partly because I
support Smith, and while I support statutory RFRAs, I think strict
scrutiny is the wrong standard for them to use.  So I wanted to probe
what ought to happen under a Sherbert/Yoder regime, as honestly applied.

Eugene
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Eric Rassbach
Are you asking that we (a) assume that Sherbert/Yoder applies and (b) that 
Sherrod has met his burden of showing a substantial burden on religious 
exercise, or just (a)?


-Original Message-
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 3:47 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Sherrod v. Tenn. Dep't of Human Servs., 2008 WL 2894691 (Tenn.
Ct. App.), involves a father who refused to pay his child support,
partly because Mr. Sherrod states that he is a Born Again Christian and
a Sunday School teacher and that he is greatly disturbed that DHS is
attempting to compel him to submit to an order which relies for its
authority upon a federal statute, 42 USC sec. 666.  He cites us to the
Book of Revelations, where the number 666 is associated with the 'Mark
of the Beast' and the end of days.

Assume Sherrod is sincere, not implausible given his willingness
to fight the matter at trial and on appeal over $1,188 in arrearages
(granted, he's litigating pro se, but this presumably has taken a good
deal of time and effort, and some money, on his part).  Assume also that
a strict scrutiny regime applies.  (Whether because Sherrod didn't raise
RFRA or whether because for some reason RFRA is inapplicable givne the
procedural posture, this particular court applied the Smith approach.)

Should Sherrod prevail?  I take it that the government could
just reenact 42 USC sec. 666 as 42 USC sec. something-else, and thus
alleviate the burden on Sherrod's religion; does that make enforcing 42
USC 666 not the least restrictive alternative?  Or are alternatives that
involve having Congress take the time and effort to renumber a statute
(or enact a duplicate copy) just too burdensome to be considered as part
of the least restrictive alternative inquiry (or are otherwise improper
for consideration).

I should say, by the way, that I don't think Sherrod should win
as a matter of principles, nor do I think it likely that he would in
fact win even under a RFRA-like regime.  But that's partly because I
support Smith, and while I support statutory RFRAs, I think strict
scrutiny is the wrong standard for them to use.  So I wanted to probe
what ought to happen under a Sherbert/Yoder regime, as honestly applied.

Eugene
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Jean Dudley
*blink*
OK, this guy wins the Most Creative Deadbeat Dad of the Year award.

Forgive me, Eugene, but there is a limit to my ability to suspend  
disbelief.  I simply find myself able to assume that this guy is  
sincere.  I might be able to swallow it if he were to send a check to  
the mother of his children for the amount that he is in arrears  
instead of handing it over to the court.

OK, ok, I'll give it my best shot:  He should not prevail because he  
is not ordered to submit to the dictates of the beast bearing the  
number 666, he is being ordered to comply with *Federal Statute 42  
USC Sec. 666*.  Simply having a sequential number does not make a law  
the Beast of Revelations 13.

Somebody kindly relieve me of my ignorance;  is there any reason why  
Human Services can't use an argument against Sherrod's claim based on  
further context from the quoted text?  Specifically, can the attorney  
point out that since Human Services has not required Mr. Sherrod to  
receive the mark of the beast on his hand or forehead, they cannot  
possibly be the beast?  CF: He causes all, both small and great,  
rich and poor, free and slave, to receive a mark on their right hand  
or on their foreheads, and that no one may buy or sell except one who  
has the mark or the name of the beast, or the number of his name.”  
Revelation 13:16-17

Just askin'.
Jean Dudley

On Jul 31, 2008, at Thu, Jul 31,  12:46 PM, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

   Sherrod v. Tenn. Dep't of Human Servs., 2008 WL 2894691 (Tenn.
 Ct. App.), involves a father who refused to pay his child support,
 partly because Mr. Sherrod states that he is a Born Again  
 Christian and
 a Sunday School teacher and that he is greatly disturbed that DHS is
 attempting to compel him to submit to an order which relies for its
 authority upon a federal statute, 42 USC sec. 666.  He cites us to the
 Book of Revelations, where the number 666 is associated with the 'Mark
 of the Beast' and the end of days.

   Assume Sherrod is sincere, not implausible given his willingness
 to fight the matter at trial and on appeal over $1,188 in arrearages
 (granted, he's litigating pro se, but this presumably has taken a good
 deal of time and effort, and some money, on his part).  Assume also  
 that
 a strict scrutiny regime applies.  (Whether because Sherrod didn't  
 raise
 RFRA or whether because for some reason RFRA is inapplicable givne the
 procedural posture, this particular court applied the Smith approach.)

   Should Sherrod prevail?  I take it that the government could
 just reenact 42 USC sec. 666 as 42 USC sec. something-else, and thus
 alleviate the burden on Sherrod's religion; does that make  
 enforcing 42
 USC 666 not the least restrictive alternative?  Or are alternatives  
 that
 involve having Congress take the time and effort to renumber a statute
 (or enact a duplicate copy) just too burdensome to be considered as  
 part
 of the least restrictive alternative inquiry (or are otherwise  
 improper
 for consideration).

   I should say, by the way, that I don't think Sherrod should win
 as a matter of principles, nor do I think it likely that he would in
 fact win even under a RFRA-like regime.  But that's partly because I
 support Smith, and while I support statutory RFRAs, I think strict
 scrutiny is the wrong standard for them to use.  So I wanted to probe
 what ought to happen under a Sherbert/Yoder regime, as honestly  
 applied.

   Eugene
 ___
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Jean Dudley

On Jul 31, 2008, at Thu, Jul 31,  2:57 PM, Volokh, Eugene wrote:

   Well, I do think that the relatively small amount at issue in
 the case -- and the great deal of effort he must have devoted -- is  
 some
 evidence of sincerity.  Cf. the court's statement that Similarly,
 before this court, Mr. Sherrod stated in oral argument that only  
 one of
 the issues he raised in his brief is of importance to him, i.e., that
 the particular means chosen by the Department to enforce his  
 obligation
 violates his religious beliefs.  Mr. Sherrod declared that he believes
 that parents have an obligation to support their children, that
 appropriate legislation to enforce that duty of support in appropriate
 cases is warranted, and that the only reason he has chosen to appeal a
 judicial decision involving a relatively small sum of money is that  
 his
 conscience requires it.

Gonna have to respectfully disagree with you, Eugene.  Amount of  
money spent avoiding child support often exceeds the amount owed, for  
the stated reason that fathers vindictively withhold funds in order  
to punish the estranged ex-spouse.  I think this is the case here.   
Spite is a powerful motivator, IMO.  He just doesn't have the guts to  
own his spitefulness. This is further born out by the fact that he  
neglected his financial responsibility until he was told to pay child  
support.

   But in any case, if the legal question is sincerity, there would
 have be to an evidentiary hearing, and if the trial judge is unwilling
 to conclude that Mr. Sherrod is insincere, then the sincerity question
 would be decided in Mr. Sherrod's favor, and our views and the  
 appellate
 judges' views would be irrelevant.

   As to the rest of the argument below, I don't think it can work
 under Thomas v. Employment Division.  It is not for a court to decide
 what's the best reading of Revelations, or whether the federal statute
 indeed sufficiently bears the mark of the beast, or whether mark  
 of the
 beast should be read literally -- just as it's not for a court to
 decide whether someone who refuses to eat meat and milk is properly
 interpreting Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk, or
 whether someone who refuses to work on tank turrets is properly
 interpreting his religion's commands of pacifism (that's the Thomas  
 case
 itself).  The question is whether Sherrod's religious belief is  
 sincere,
 not whether it's a sensible interpretation of the Bible.

Yes, I suppose that is a valid reason.  In that case, sincerity  
shouldn't matter either, should it?  The law is the law, regardless  
of the sequential number assigned to it.  Moral obligation to uphold  
the law (in this case pay child support, and of course the moral  
obligation to pay child support as well) should over ride religious  
sincerity.  In short, do the right and legal thing even if it is to  
an agent/agency of Satan.

   Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Jean Dudley
 Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 1:14 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

 *blink*
 OK, this guy wins the Most Creative Deadbeat Dad of the Year award.

 Forgive me, Eugene, but there is a limit to my ability to
 suspend disbelief.  I simply find myself able to assume that
 this guy is sincere.  I might be able to swallow it if he
 were to send a check to the mother of his children for the
 amount that he is in arrears instead of handing it over to the court.

 OK, ok, I'll give it my best shot:  He should not prevail
 because he is not ordered to submit to the dictates of the
 beast bearing the number 666, he is being ordered to comply
 with *Federal Statute 42 USC Sec. 666*.  Simply having a
 sequential number does not make a law the Beast of Revelations 13.

 Somebody kindly relieve me of my ignorance;  is there any
 reason why Human Services can't use an argument against
 Sherrod's claim based on further context from the quoted
 text?  Specifically, can the attorney point out that since
 Human Services has not required Mr. Sherrod to receive the
 mark of the beast on his hand or forehead, they cannot
 possibly be the beast?  CF: He causes all, both small and
 great, rich and poor, free and slave, to receive a mark on
 their right hand or on their foreheads, and that no one may
 buy or sell except one who has the mark or the name of the
 beast, or the number of his name.
 Revelation 13:16-17

 Just askin'.
 Jean Dudley
 ___
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Jean Dudley writes:

  As to the rest of the argument below, I don't think it 
 can work under 
  Thomas v. Employment Division.  It is not for a court to 
 decide what's 
  the best reading of Revelations, or whether the federal 
 statute indeed 
  sufficiently bears the mark of the beast, or whether mark of the 
  beast should be read literally -- just as it's not for a court to 
  decide whether someone who refuses to eat meat and milk is properly 
  interpreting Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk, or 
  whether someone who refuses to work on tank turrets is properly 
  interpreting his religion's commands of pacifism (that's the Thomas 
  case itself).  The question is whether Sherrod's religious 
 belief is 
  sincere, not whether it's a sensible interpretation of the Bible.
 
 Yes, I suppose that is a valid reason.  In that case, 
 sincerity shouldn't matter either, should it?  The law is the 
 law, regardless of the sequential number assigned to it.  
 Moral obligation to uphold the law (in this case pay child 
 support, and of course the moral obligation to pay child 
 support as well) should over ride religious sincerity.  In 
 short, do the right and legal thing even if it is to an 
 agent/agency of Satan.

That's a perfectly plausible conclusion -- in fact it is the
conclusion the Court reached in Smith.  But federal and state RFRAs, and
state constitutional provisions that have been interpreted as
implementing a Sherbert-like regime, expressly assume the opposite.  So
the question is how the case should come out under those regimes.
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Jean Dudley





That's a perfectly plausible conclusion -- in fact it is the
conclusion the Court reached in Smith.  But federal and state  
RFRAs, and

state constitutional provisions that have been interpreted as
implementing a Sherbert-like regime, expressly assume the  
opposite.  So

the question is how the case should come out under those regimes.


Unfortunately, I must bow out of the dialog at this point because I  
am ignorant of Smith and Sherbert regimes. 
 ___
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Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Jean Dudley
Another thought occurs to me;  If the law were to be renumbered, that  
would constitute an endorsement of religion.  The angle here is to  
present the law as simply sequential according to the rules of  
mathematics, in order to avoid an establishment of religion.  Do they  
skip the number 13 in the federal statutes?
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Well, I suppose that's part of the question with any
accommodation:  When the government goes out of its way to accommodate
people's religious objections -- by rearranging things to prevent
coercive burdens on the people's religious beliefs -- is it therefore
improperly endorsing the religion?  Generally the answer seems to be no,
see, e.g., Corporation of Presiding Bishop v. Amos, at least unless the
action imposes a substantial burden on individual third parties (see,
e.g., Estate of Thornton v. Caldor).

What do others think?  Would renumbering the section, or
enacting a new section that mirrors the old, violate the Establishment
Clause?  (Would skipping the 13th floor, or offices numbered 666, in
government-owned buildings?)  Even if it wouldn't, would refusing to do
so violate RFRA / Sherbert regimes?

Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Jean Dudley
 Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 3:24 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666
 
 Another thought occurs to me;  If the law were to be 
 renumbered, that would constitute an endorsement of religion. 
  The angle here is to present the law as simply sequential 
 according to the rules of mathematics, in order to avoid an 
 establishment of religion.  Do they skip the number 13 in the 
 federal statutes?
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Berg, Thomas C.
To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if the provision is 
renumbered, because the requirement is of the antichrist and the 666 simply 
evidences that, then I assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's 
overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his objection would 
be cured by renumbering the provision, then doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy 
-- and therefore not a cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute 
is a matter of the government's internal procedures like the assignment of a 
social security number in Roy?  If renumbering the provision would meet the 
objection, then the objection seems separable from the payment requirement 
itself and thus (arguably) concerns an internal government matter.  It's not 
clear how much the Roy principle applies to RFRAs, but this might be the 
explanation for rejecting his claim that fits best into the previous law.
 
Tom Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law (Minnesota)
 



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Thu 7/31/2008 5:19 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Jean Dudley writes:

  As to the rest of the argument below, I don't think it
 can work under
  Thomas v. Employment Division.  It is not for a court to
 decide what's
  the best reading of Revelations, or whether the federal
 statute indeed
  sufficiently bears the mark of the beast, or whether mark of the
  beast should be read literally -- just as it's not for a court to
  decide whether someone who refuses to eat meat and milk is properly
  interpreting Thou shalt not seethe a kid in his mother's milk, or
  whether someone who refuses to work on tank turrets is properly
  interpreting his religion's commands of pacifism (that's the Thomas
  case itself).  The question is whether Sherrod's religious
 belief is
  sincere, not whether it's a sensible interpretation of the Bible.

 Yes, I suppose that is a valid reason.  In that case,
 sincerity shouldn't matter either, should it?  The law is the
 law, regardless of the sequential number assigned to it. 
 Moral obligation to uphold the law (in this case pay child
 support, and of course the moral obligation to pay child
 support as well) should over ride religious sincerity.  In
 short, do the right and legal thing even if it is to an
 agent/agency of Satan.

That's a perfectly plausible conclusion -- in fact it is the
conclusion the Court reached in Smith.  But federal and state RFRAs, and
state constitutional provisions that have been interpreted as
implementing a Sherbert-like regime, expressly assume the opposite.  So
the question is how the case should come out under those regimes.
___
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Volokh, Eugene
Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it violates
his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section 777, then
he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed its
internal procedures, but because the action that he would be required to
do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the number of
the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

Eugene

Tom Berg writes:
 
 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if 
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of 
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I 
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's 
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his 
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then 
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a 
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a 
 matter of the government's internal procedures like the 
 assignment of a social security number in Roy?  If 
 renumbering the provision would meet the objection, then the 
 objection seems separable from the payment requirement itself 
 and thus (arguably) concerns an internal government matter.  
 It's not clear how much the Roy principle applies to RFRAs, 
 but this might be the explanation for rejecting his claim 
 that fits best into the previous law.
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Douglas Laycock


I think this case falls within NW Indian Cemetery v. Lying and Bowen v. Roy.  I 
don't know how many of us there are, but I am one of the strong supporters of 
regulatory exemptions for free exercise who thinks that those cases make sense. 

Dad's asserted belief here is not not -- at least not in the first instance -- 
about his own behavior; it is about the government's behavior.  He doesn't even 
have to put 666 on his check, or his paperwork.  His objection is to what 
number the government can put on its statute.  He may be sincere, and he may 
think he really can't pay for as long as that number remains in any way 
relevant to his payment.  But he can't have a right to control the government's 
behavior, because such a right is impossible to implement in a regime of equal 
religious liberty.  What if he won't pay if the statute is numbered 666, and I 
won't pay if it's numbered 667? 

Well, there are an infinite number of numbers, and only a finite population to 
object to them, so this is not the strongest example.  But it is easy to 
imagine other examples with only two possibilities, mutually inconsistent.  Pat 
Robertson believes God will punish the nation if it permits abortion.  That 
doesn't mean he can control everyone else's abortion behavior for fear that he 
personally will be caught up in the punishment.  And if there is one other 
citizen, with an intense religious commitment to women's control of their own 
bodies, who believes that God will punish the nation if it /restricts/ 
abortion, then what happens to the free exercise claims? 

We each get to exercise our own religion.  And government should not regulate, 
penalize, or discriminate against that (or reward or discriminate in favor of 
that) without strong reason.  But we do not each get to insist that government 
or our fellow citizens exercise our religion along with us, or even do much to 
help.  Government's principle obligation, and often it's only obligation, is to 
stay out of the way. 

Quoting Volokh, Eugene [EMAIL PROTECTED]:

 Well, I suppose that's part of the question with any
 accommodation:  When the government goes out of its way to accommodate
 people's religious objections -- by rearranging things to prevent
 coercive burdens on the people's religious beliefs -- is it therefore
 improperly endorsing the religion?  Generally the answer seems to be no,
 see, e.g., Corporation of Presiding Bishop v. Amos, at least unless the
 action imposes a substantial burden on individual third parties (see,
 e.g., Estate of Thornton v. Caldor).

 What do others think?  Would renumbering the section, or
 enacting a new section that mirrors the old, violate the Establishment
 Clause?  (Would skipping the 13th floor, or offices numbered 666, in
 government-owned buildings?)  Even if it wouldn't, would refusing to do
 so violate RFRA / Sherbert regimes?

 Eugene

 -Original Message-
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Jean Dudley
 Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 3:24 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Re: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

 Another thought occurs to me;  If the law were to be
 renumbered, that would constitute an endorsement of religion.
  The angle here is to present the law as simply sequential
 according to the rules of mathematics, in order to avoid an
 establishment of religion.  Do they skip the number 13 in the
 federal statutes?
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Douglas Laycock
Yale Kamisar Collegiate Professor of Law
University of Michigan Law School
625 S. State St.
Ann Arbor, MI  48109-1215
  734-647-9713

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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Berg, Thomas C.
Eugene, I think one can cut the cases the way you did; but one can also cut 
them the way I and Doug suggested.  To satisfy the Roys' objection to providing 
the social security number, the government would have had to let them do 
something different (not provide the number).  To satisfy Sherrod's objection, 
all the government has to do is renumber the statute; then it can require him 
to do exactly the same thing (pay the money).  In that sense, Sherrod's 
objection is not to what he's being required to do, but to how the government 
has acted in its own operations (how it numbers a statute).  I think that this 
characterization, bringing the case within Roy, is preferable because it 
explains the intuition that the government should win without resting on the 
problematic rationales that (a) the government must/can show a compelling 
interest/ least restrictive means in this instance -- i.e. it would be really 
hard to renumber this statute -- or (b) the claim is insincere or a mist!
 aken scriptural interpretation.  Doesn't this eliminate the seeming puzzle in 
the case without creating any problems?
 
My point overlaps with Doug's -- a regime allowing free exercise objections to 
what the government calls its laws is not manageable -- but it's narrower.  I 
think that Nothwest Indian v. Lyng can be seen as the government doing 
something to the Native Americans, and not just as acting in its own sphere.
 
Tom Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law (Minneapolis)
 



From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Thu 7/31/2008 5:57 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it violates
his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section 777, then
he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed its
internal procedures, but because the action that he would be required to
do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the number of
the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

Eugene

Tom Berg writes:

 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a
 matter of the government's internal procedures like the
 assignment of a social security number in Roy?  If
 renumbering the provision would meet the objection, then the
 objection seems separable from the payment requirement itself
 and thus (arguably) concerns an internal government matter. 
 It's not clear how much the Roy principle applies to RFRAs,
 but this might be the explanation for rejecting his claim
 that fits best into the previous law.
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RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

2008-07-31 Thread Brownstein, Alan
Tom, I tend to agree with you and Doug, but I think your description of Bowen 
v. Row is broader than the the way I would characterize it -- although the 
difference may be hair splitting. I think the idea behind Bowen v Roy isn't 
that a litigant can't challenge how the government has acted in its own 
operations, but that a litigant can't challenge how the government has acted in 
its own operations to avoid a kind of spiritual harm that has no real or 
secular world ramifications. I'm not certain that we can never challenge what 
the government calls its own laws. If the government used language in a law 
that stigmatized a particular religion -- an exemption or accommodation made 
available for members of false faiths (who use peyote in religious ceremonies 
or observe Saturday as the Sabbath) -- we might insist that the government 
change the language it uses to describe the accommodation because of the 
symbolic or status harm that it causes. But the alleged harm that results fr!
 om being indirectly associated with the mark of the beast is different.

I think that the government is acting in its own sphere in Lyng, but it is also 
doing something to the Native Americans' ability to practice their faith that 
has a tangible, secular dimension to it -- and that distinguishes it from, and 
makes it  a more difficult case than, Bowen v. Roy where the harm can only be 
understood in spiritual terms.

Alan Brownstein
UC Davis School of Law


From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Berg, Thomas C. [EMAIL 
PROTECTED]
Sent: Thursday, July 31, 2008 7:55 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666

Eugene, I think one can cut the cases the way you did; but one can also cut 
them the way I and Doug suggested.  To satisfy the Roys' objection to providing 
the social security number, the government would have had to let them do 
something different (not provide the number).  To satisfy Sherrod's objection, 
all the government has to do is renumber the statute; then it can require him 
to do exactly the same thing (pay the money).  In that sense, Sherrod's 
objection is not to what he's being required to do, but to how the government 
has acted in its own operations (how it numbers a statute).  I think that this 
characterization, bringing the case within Roy, is preferable because it 
explains the intuition that the government should win without resting on the 
problematic rationales that (a) the government must/can show a compelling 
interest/ least restrictive means in this instance -- i.e. it would be really 
hard to renumber this statute -- or (b) the claim is insincere or a mist!
 aken scriptural interpretation.  Doesn't this eliminate the seeming puzzle in 
the case without creating any problems?

My point overlaps with Doug's -- a regime allowing free exercise objections to 
what the government calls its laws is not manageable -- but it's narrower.  I 
think that Nothwest Indian v. Lyng can be seen as the government doing 
something to the Native Americans, and not just as acting in its own sphere.

Tom Berg
University of St. Thomas School of Law (Minneapolis)




From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Thu 7/31/2008 5:57 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Religious freedom and 42 USC 666



Well, I thought about Bowen v. Roy, but my sense is that the
internal procedures point there was that the Roys weren't required to
actually do anything that violated their religious beliefs (the
government had stopped demanding that they provide Roy's social security
number, and five Justices took the view that the government indeed had a
constitutional obligation to so stop).  The Roys just thought that the
government's practice of giving Roy a number was spiritually harmful.

Here, the claimant seems to be arguing not that it's bad for the
government to have a section 666 in its statutes, but that it violates
his religion to comply with orders issued under that section.
Presumably, if the government copied or moved this to section 777, then
he'd be OK with complying, not because the government changed its
internal procedures, but because the action that he would be required to
do would no longer be pursuant to a statute numbered with the number of
the beast.  So that seems different from Bowen v. Roy, no?

Eugene

Tom Berg writes:

 To the extent that he objects to paying the support even if
 the provision is renumbered, because the requirement is of
 the antichrist and the 666 simply evidences that, then I
 assume most courts would hold there's a burden but it's
 overcome by a compelling interest.  To the extent he says his
 objection would be cured by renumbering the provision, then
 doesn't this seem like Bowen v. Roy -- and therefore not a
 cognizable burden -- in that the numbering of a statute is a
 matter