Someone is attempting to put words into my mouth.  I need to be the one that 
explains how I think the model behaves.

Dave

 

 

 

-----Original Message-----
From: H Veeder <hveeder...@gmail.com>
To: vortex-l <vortex-l@eskimo.com>
Sent: Fri, Feb 21, 2014 2:34 pm
Subject: Re: [Vo]:Velocity dependent model of Coulomb's law







On Thu, Feb 20, 2014 at 6:10 AM, John Berry <berry.joh...@gmail.com> wrote:

Correction:


If the result of the magnetic force being seen to act on one frame as expected 
from the flux in another leads to a dramatic and non-trivial paradox, it is 
going to be harder to keep up the delusion that such is possible.

 


If an observer in another frame expects a force to exist in the charges frame 
so as to match their expectation of a magnetic field, and if that would lead to 
a dramatic and paradoxical result as it would not be existed to occur in the 
static frame.





A very easy real world experiment is the common practice of waving a a coil 
past a permanent magnet and seeing the voltage induced in the coil read on a 
meter. (yes this experiment is the inverse as it is relative motion to observe 
an electric field from relative motion to a magnetic field)


To be consistent, David would have to argue that if there were a coil attached 
to a volt meter being waved by the permanent magnet, and another coil attached 
to the volt meter that is not moving relative to the magnet, that the waving 
coil that sees an electric field from movement relative to the magnetic field 
would also expect the stationary volt meter to see this voltage also, and 
expect it to be deflected.


Now it is easy to move your head with the waving coil, if you see a voltage 
induced in the non moving coil when you wave your head and not when you don't, 
I will be very very impressed and amazed.


But I think we both know that no such effect exists.
And if it does not exist in the magnetic to electric, it won't exist in 
electric to magnetic.


John







yes, drama can be a useful device to bring attention to a paradox, but the 
paradox does not occur in the case of magnet moving past a coil. That concerns 
Faraday's law of induction which is distinct from the Biot Savart Law for 
charged particles. I have given it some thought, and the only way to that the 
Biot Savart Law for charged particles can be understood non-paradoxically is by 
way of some kind of aether. In other words a magnetic force will appear *if* 
the particles are moving wrt to an aether.


Harry 




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