Before answering specific questions, you did my article on the subject? http://blog.ipexpert.com/2010/08/09/tunneling-ipv6-6to4-tunnels/
-- Marko Milivojevic - CCIE #18427 (SP R&S) Senior CCIE Instructor / Managing Partner - IPexpert On Thu, Sep 19, 2013 at 7:46 AM, <[email protected]> wrote: > I have some trouble with understanding of IPv6 6to4: > > > > > > > > In the specific when I send a IPv6 packet to an IPv4 cloud toward a > 6to4 destination address, the packet will encapsulated with protocol > type 41 (usefull if i have an ACL) and then prepended to IPv6 packet. > > Now the intial packet who I sent It will route across the 6to4 tunnel, > at this time the router extracts the IPv4 > > address embedded in the IPv6 address (end point tunnel remote) and will > use it for build the IPv4 destination > > address of the tunnel header. > > > > I begin my configuration: > > > > Now R3 (both border router facing Ipv4 cloud and IPv6 client) send a > packet, It will match routing table and my routing table is ::/0 > across interface tunnel Ipv6. > > I am thinking here is where 6to4 come in play, the initial packet IPv6 > will encapsulated in IPv4; furthemore the new source for the outer > packet is taken from tunnel source; now I'am going to ask your help, > my doubt how r3 calculate next hop address if 6to4 treats cloud IPv4 > as monolithic NBMA non-broadcast? Perhaps is taken and converted from > end point of tunnel's? In fact my next hop is tunnel345 not specific > next hop. > > However how did to decide which Next Hop if I have more as in this > case: r3-r4-r5? > > I thought that it taken from route for some specific next hop, or > something like that.... > > In fact my test coinvolve loopback both to r3 and r4 and ping from r3 > toward r4 across tunnl Ipv6 6TO4. > > > > to have successfull ping I have done some trucks namely with two > approach, neverthless let me know if I'am wrong. > > > > I have add specific and second route for ipv6 destination to r3, hence > ipv6 destination will be 2001:cc1e:0:0::/64 next hop of R4. At this > time precedent next hop will be recursive toward ::/0 t345 hence I > have the closest and only route is versus tunnel345, I suppose it will > converted in IPv4 using some reverse logic and try to reach to R4, > finally :-) > > > > My second method has been ipv6 route ::/0 t345 in the same line add > next hop of R4. > > > > In effect both solution work well. > > > > Any feedback will be appreciated. > > > > Sorry I have written any twaddle and I hope that my E-mail is clear, I > am not a native english speaker. > _______________________________________________ > For more information regarding industry leading CCIE Lab training, please > visit www.ipexpert.com > > Are you a CCNP or CCIE and looking for a job? Check out > www.PlatinumPlacement.com > > http://onlinestudylist.com/mailman/listinfo/ccie_rs > _______________________________________________ For more information regarding industry leading CCIE Lab training, please visit www.ipexpert.com Are you a CCNP or CCIE and looking for a job? Check out www.PlatinumPlacement.com http://onlinestudylist.com/mailman/listinfo/ccie_rs
