Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-15 Thread meekerdb

On 4/15/2015 12:58 AM, LizR wrote:
On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:

On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of 
the
measurement operator has certain coefficients. The 
probabilities are
the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born 
Rule. MWI
advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they 
have
failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has 
been
pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required 
before
you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born 
Rule.
The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed 
out that
the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you 
have 6
outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) 
the branch
where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.

My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades 
ago now)
was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of 
the
second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system 
relies on
microstates being indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this 
into
account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and 
hence a
lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch 
counting,
at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known terms like 
microstates
at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was basically what 
I thought).


I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of 
quantum
probabilities.

Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential 
requirement is
that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a 
rational
number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite 
number of
branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum events 
lead to
results with irrational numbered probabilities?


Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value 
between 0
and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom in a spin 
up state
then pass it through another S-G magnet oriented at an angle alpha to 
the
original, the probability that the atom will pass the second magnet in 
the up
channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on any real value in the range.


One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally likely 
outcomes
(which can be judged by symmetry) there are two branches; but if a small
perturbation is added then there must be many branches to achieve 
probabilities
(0.5-epsilon) and (0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the perturbation the larger 
the
number required.  Of course the number required is bounded by our ability 
to resolve
small differences in probability, but in principle it goes as 1/epsilon.

I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment there are
arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at experiment and this 
provides
the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this somewhat begs the question of why 
we should
consider the probabilities of all those threads to be equal since we have 
lost the
justification of symmetry.  I think this is the measure problem.


I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle of rotation of a 
magnet for example) are continuous or quantised. If quantised then there are merely a 
(perhaps) very large number of branches but no measure problem.


I'm quite willing to say that there can only be finite precision in any physical 
measurement, so the measurements are effectively quantized even if the theory is built on 
real numbers.  But I don't think that solves the measurement problem.  It doesn't justify 
considering all the possible values equi-probable; that requires some symmetry principle.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-15 Thread LizR
On 16 April 2015 at 07:42, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/15/2015 12:58 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
 mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
 measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are
 the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI
 advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have
 failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been
 pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before
 you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule.
 The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

 In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out
 that the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you have
 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) the
 branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.

 My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago
 now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of
 the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system relies
 on microstates being indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this into
 account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a
 lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch counting,
 at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known terms like microstates
 at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was basically what I
 thought).


 I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of
 quantum probabilities.

  Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement
 is that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a rational
 number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite number of
 branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum events lead to
 results with irrational numbered probabilities?


 Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value
 between 0 and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom in a
 spin up state then pass it through another S-G magnet oriented at an angle
 alpha to the original, the probability that the atom will pass the second
 magnet in the up channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on any real value
 in the range.


  One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally
 likely outcomes (which can be judged by symmetry) there are two branches;
 but if a small perturbation is added then there must be many branches to
 achieve probabilities (0.5-epsilon) and (0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the
 perturbation the larger the number required.  Of course the number required
 is bounded by our ability to resolve small differences in probability, but
 in principle it goes as 1/epsilon.

 I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment there
 are arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at experiment and
 this provides the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this somewhat begs the
 question of why we should consider the probabilities of all those threads
 to be equal since we have lost the justification of symmetry.  I think this
 is the measure problem.


  I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle of
 rotation of a magnet for example) are continuous or quantised. If quantised
 then there are merely a (perhaps) very large number of branches but no
 measure problem.


 I'm quite willing to say that there can only be finite precision in any
 physical measurement, so the measurements are effectively quantized even if
 the theory is built on real numbers.  But I don't think that solves the
 measurement problem.  It doesn't justify considering all the possible
 values equi-probable; that requires some symmetry principle.


That wasn't quite what I meant. If the situation is quantised and there is
a rational number for each probability then we might for example have a
probability of 12345 / 67890 for a given event A (one of two
possibilities). This requires (somewhat weirdly, but the logic is OK) that
there are 12345 branches in which event A happens, and 67890 - 12345 in
which event B happens. All branches are equiprobable, which was my key
point.

PS I admit this is horrible, as stated! But if all events emerge as
macroscopically similar but microscopically distinct, it does at least make
sense and avoid the measure-on-infinity problem.

PPS see Russell's reply for a different take on this (which I don't quite
get, as yet).

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-15 Thread Russell Standish
On Wed, Apr 15, 2015 at 12:42:30PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 4/15/2015 12:58 AM, LizR wrote:
 On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
 mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 
 On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 LizR wrote:
 
 
 I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle
 of rotation of a magnet for example) are continuous or quantised.
 If quantised then there are merely a (perhaps) very large number
 of branches but no measure problem.
 
 I'm quite willing to say that there can only be finite precision in
 any physical measurement, so the measurements are effectively
 quantized even if the theory is built on real numbers.  But I don't
 think that solves the measurement problem.  It doesn't justify
 considering all the possible values equi-probable; that requires
 some symmetry principle.
 
 Brent
 

A continuum of probabilities is not a problem for COMP. UD* (the trace
of the UD) is a continuum object (somewhat paradoxically :) - I know a
few people have tripped up on that). What is a problem is that measure
is not uniquely defined on continuums. It's not even uniquely defined
on the real interval [0,1], although there is a standard one we can
choose, which correponds to our measuring sticks.

What I was trying to get at, though haven't fully succeeded in, is to pin
down the measure to a unique possibility by considering symmetries (eg the
WM teleporter case) and assigning equipropbability to those. This is
how you fix the standard measure on [0,1] - if you assert that [0,0.5]
and [0.5,1] have equal measure, and that [0,0.25] and [0.25,0.5] have
equal measure and so on down the line, you actually fix the measure of
the unit interval to being the standard measure. 

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-15 Thread LizR
On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
 mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
 measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are
 the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI
 advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have
 failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been
 pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before
 you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule.
 The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

 In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out
 that the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you have
 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) the
 branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.

 My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago
 now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of
 the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system relies
 on microstates being indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this into
 account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a
 lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch counting,
 at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known terms like microstates
 at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was basically what I
 thought).


 I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of
 quantum probabilities.

  Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement
 is that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a rational
 number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite number of
 branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum events lead to
 results with irrational numbered probabilities?


 Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value
 between 0 and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom in a
 spin up state then pass it through another S-G magnet oriented at an angle
 alpha to the original, the probability that the atom will pass the second
 magnet in the up channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on any real value
 in the range.


 One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally
 likely outcomes (which can be judged by symmetry) there are two branches;
 but if a small perturbation is added then there must be many branches to
 achieve probabilities (0.5-epsilon) and (0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the
 perturbation the larger the number required.  Of course the number required
 is bounded by our ability to resolve small differences in probability, but
 in principle it goes as 1/epsilon.

 I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment there are
 arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at experiment and this
 provides the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this somewhat begs the question
 of why we should consider the probabilities of all those threads to be
 equal since we have lost the justification of symmetry.  I think this is
 the measure problem.


I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle of
rotation of a magnet for example) are continuous or quantised. If quantised
then there are merely a (perhaps) very large number of branches but no
measure problem.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-15 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 14 April 2015 at 14:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 


I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment
there are arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at
experiment and this provides the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this
somewhat begs the question of why we should consider the
probabilities of all those threads to be equal since we have lost
the justification of symmetry.  I think this is the measure problem.

I believe it's an open question as to whether these systems (angle of 
rotation of a magnet for example) are continuous or quantised. If 
quantised then there are merely a (perhaps) very large number of 
branches but no measure problem.


What evidence can be adduced that angle can only take on a discrete set 
of values? The evidence is very much that space is continuous. Time is 
not a quantum observable, so it does not make sense to say that it is 
quantized. So where would angular quantization come from?


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Apr 2015, at 04:05, meekerdb wrote:


On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:
On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett  
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au  
wrote:


   The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of  
the
   measurement operator has certain coefficients. The  
probabilities are
   the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born  
Rule. MWI
   advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they  
have
   failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has  
been
   pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required  
before
   you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born  
Rule.

   The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed  
out that the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a  
dice you have 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice  
should favour (say) the branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI  
doesn't work.


My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several  
decades ago now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes -  
like derivations of the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's  
description of the system relies on microstates being  
indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this into account  
there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a  
lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch  
counting, at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known  
terms like microstates at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but  
that was basically what I thought).


I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart  
of quantum probabilities.


Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential  
requirement is that any quantum event leads to results which can  
be assigned a rational number, rather than an irrational one. This  
gives us a finite number of branches, and counting to get the  
probability. Or do quantum events lead to results with irrational  
numbered probabilities?


Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real  
value between 0 and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a  
Silver atom in a spin up state then pass it through another S-G  
magnet oriented at an angle alpha to the original, the probability  
that the atom will pass the second magnet in the up channel is  
cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on any real value in the range.


One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally  
likely outcomes (which can be judged by symmetry) there are two  
branches; but if a small perturbation is added then there must be  
many branches to achieve probabilities (0.5-epsilon) and  
(0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the perturbation the larger the number  
required.  Of course the number required is bounded by our ability  
to resolve small differences in probability, but in principle it  
goes as 1/epsilon.


I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment  
there are arbitrarily many threads of the UD going throught at  
experiment and this provides the order 1/epsilon ensemble.  But this  
somewhat begs the question of why we should consider the  
probabilities of all those threads to be equal


We better should not. I am making a pause café right now. The UD does  
simulate a computation going through my actual state, but with a  
continuation where I hallucinate that my coffee becomes tea. Well, I  
hope that the measure of such computations is less than the one in  
which my coffee gently appears to taste coffee and not tea.






since we have lost the justification of symmetry.


Yes, that is why we should not consider all those threads as having  
the same probability. In fact, by the rule Y = II, only those getting  
highly relatively multiplied have some chance of having a normal and  
stable measure.





I think this is the measure problem.


OK.

Ah! My coffee tastes coffee!
It would not I would bet that I am dreaming in some normal reality,  
not that computationalism is false.


Bruno







Brent



I know that a branch counting approach to quantum probabilities is  
disfavoured, though I can't at the moment recall the standard  
argument. Clearly, the existence  of real-valued probabilities, not  
restricted to rational values, is a strong factor. But there is  
also the fact that in the two-dimensional Hilbert space associated  
with spin 1/2 projections, one only ever has two possible outcomes  
for an experiment -- why should the number of branches one must  
consider depend on the angle of the magnet?


Bruce



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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread LizR
On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 On 13 April 2015 at 17:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au
 mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any
 given measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts
 branches at all, so much as differentiation within a continuum?
 Maybe you could expand on this. Why (to keep it simple) would a
 quantum experiment with two possible outcomes not reproduce the
 correct probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a special case
 where it would?)

 No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any
 measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of
 possible distinct outcomes for the measurement.
 So how does the MWI deal with a measurement with a 3/4 probability of
 outcome 1 and a 1/4 probability of outcome 2? This was Larry Niven's
 objection to many worlds back around the time he wrote All the myriad
 ways and it seems to me that someone else would have noticed it in the
 intervening 50 years (or whatever) ! How come anyone takes MWI seriously if
 it's actually supposed to work like this?


 The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
 measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are the
 absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI advocates
 try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have failed to date. I
 think they always will fail because, as has been pointed out, the separate
 worlds of the MWI that are required before you can derive a probability
 measure already assume the Born Rule. The argument is at best circular, and
 probably even incoherent.


In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out that
the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you have 6
outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) the branch
where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.

My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago
now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of
the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system relies
on microstates being indistinguishable *to us*. But once you take this into
account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a
lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using branch counting,
at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known terms like microstates
at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was basically what I
thought).

Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement is
that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a rational
number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite number of
branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum events lead to
results with irrational numbered probabilities?


 I do not take MWI seriously.

 Yes, I get that :-)

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread meekerdb

On 4/13/2015 4:35 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:
On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are
the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI
advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have
failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been
pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before
you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule.
The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out that the MWI lead 
to the following situation - if you throw a dice you have 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. 
But a loaded dice should favour (say) the branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI 
doesn't work.


My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago now) was that 
you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of the second law of 
thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system relies on microstates being 
indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take this into account there are more 
microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - and hence a lot more than 6 branches - the MWI 
again makes sense using branch counting, at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have 
known terms like microstates at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that was 
basically what I thought).


I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of quantum 
probabilities.

Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement is that any 
quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a rational number, rather than an 
irrational one. This gives us a finite number of branches, and counting to get the 
probability. Or do quantum events lead to results with irrational numbered probabilities?


Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value between 0 and 1 is 
possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom in a spin up state then pass it 
through another S-G magnet oriented at an angle alpha to the original, the probability 
that the atom will pass the second magnet in the up channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can 
take on any real value in the range.


One argument against branch counting is that if you have two equally likely outcomes 
(which can be judged by symmetry) there are two branches; but if a small perturbation is 
added then there must be many branches to achieve probabilities (0.5-epsilon) and 
(0.5+epsilon) and the smaller the perturbation the larger the number required.  Of course 
the number required is bounded by our ability to resolve small differences in probability, 
but in principle it goes as 1/epsilon.


I think Bruno's answer to this is that for every such experiment there are arbitrarily 
many threads of the UD going throught at experiment and this provides the order 1/epsilon 
ensemble.  But this somewhat begs the question of why we should consider the probabilities 
of all those threads to be equal since we have lost the justification of symmetry.  I 
think this is the measure problem.


Brent



I know that a branch counting approach to quantum probabilities is disfavoured, though I 
can't at the moment recall the standard argument. Clearly, the existence  of real-valued 
probabilities, not restricted to rational values, is a strong factor. But there is also 
the fact that in the two-dimensional Hilbert space associated with spin 1/2 projections, 
one only ever has two possible outcomes for an experiment -- why should the number of 
branches one must consider depend on the angle of the magnet?


Bruce



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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 14 April 2015 at 00:42, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the
measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are
the absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI
advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have
failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been
pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before
you can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule.
The argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.

In an article published in the 60s (I think) Larry Niven pointed out 
that the MWI lead to the following situation - if you throw a dice you 
have 6 outcomes, i.e. 6 branches. But a loaded dice should favour (say) 
the branch where it lands on 6. Hence the MWI doesn't work.


My reaction to this (when I first read it, probably several decades ago 
now) was that you only have 6 MACROSCOPIC outcomes - like derivations of 
the second law of thermodynamics, Niven's description of the system 
relies on microstates being indistinguishable /to us/. But once you take 
this into account there are more microstates ending with a 6 uppermost - 
and hence a lot more than 6 branches - the MWI again makes sense using 
branch counting, at least for non-quantum dice (I may not have known 
terms like microstates at the time, nor was it called the MWI, but that 
was basically what I thought).


I do not think that classical analogies can ever get to the heart of 
quantum probabilities.


Can't the same be true of any quantum event? The essential requirement 
is that any quantum event leads to results which can be assigned a 
rational number, rather than an irrational one. This gives us a finite 
number of branches, and counting to get the probability. Or do quantum 
events lead to results with irrational numbered probabilities?


Quantum probabilities are not required to be rational: any real value 
between 0 and 1 is possible. For example, if you prepare a Silver atom 
in a spin up state then pass it through another S-G magnet oriented at 
an angle alpha to the original, the probability that the atom will pass 
the second magnet in the up channel is cos^2(alpha/2). This can take on 
any real value in the range.


I know that a branch counting approach to quantum probabilities is 
disfavoured, though I can't at the moment recall the standard argument. 
Clearly, the existence  of real-valued probabilities, not restricted to 
rational values, is a strong factor. But there is also the fact that in 
the two-dimensional Hilbert space associated with spin 1/2 projections, 
one only ever has two possible outcomes for an experiment -- why should 
the number of branches one must consider depend on the angle of the magnet?


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Apr 13, 2015 at 03:19:22PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 Russell Standish wrote:
 
 Yes, but this is not a problem if your ontology is robust. You have
 the full resources of Platonia available, and all observer moment
 instantiations happen.
 
 There are completed infinities in Platonia?
 

There may be, but they're not needed. Just every finite computation is
required, which will happen provided your ontology has unbounded resources.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread LizR
On 13 April 2015 at 17:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 LizR wrote:

 Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any given
 measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts branches at all,
 so much as differentiation within a continuum? Maybe you could expand on
 this. Why (to keep it simple) would a quantum experiment with two possible
 outcomes not reproduce the correct probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a
 special case where it would?)


 No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any
 measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of
 possible distinct outcomes for the measurement.


So how does the MWI deal with a measurement with a 3/4 probability of
outcome 1 and a 1/4 probability of outcome 2? This was Larry Niven's
objection to many worlds back around the time he wrote All the myriad
ways and it seems to me that someone else would have noticed it in the
intervening 50 years (or whatever) ! How come anyone takes MWI seriously if
it's actually supposed to work like this?


 The classical duplication model of step 3 cannot reproduce quantum
 probabilities because it relies on branch counting.


Well that's OK because it isn't attempting to reproduce quantum
probabilities at that point, as far as I know.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Apr 2015, at 07:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:


LizR wrote:

mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
   If we compare this to FPI in the MW Interpretation of quantum
   mechanics we see that this is just a branch counting account of
   quantum probabilities. Now it is well-known that this fails to
   reproduce the correct quantum probabilities in MWI. So FPI as via
   Step 3 and FPI as in MWI are intrinsically different.
Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any given  
measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts branches  
at all, so much as differentiation within a continuum? Maybe you  
could expand on this. Why (to keep it simple) would a quantum  
experiment with two possible outcomes not reproduce the correct  
probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a special case where it would?)


No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any  
measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of  
possible distinct outcomes for the measurement. The classical  
duplication model of step 3 cannot reproduce quantum probabilities  
because it relies on branch counting. There are only ever two  
branches for a measurement in a 2-dim Hilberst space, but the  
probabilities can take on any real values between 0 and 1. Foe a  
spin measurement with the appropriate magnet orientation you can  
have a probability of 1/pi for Up (and 1 - 1/pi for Down). This  
cannot be reproduced by observer duplication as in step 3.


David Deutsh has his own peculiar take on many worlds. Most people  
would consider his isea of a 'world' to be premature. In the  
developed MWI, with decoherence, eiselection and the rest, a worl  
emerges only after decoherence and orthogonalization. In this  
picture, worlds are disjoint and can never interfere or recombine.




   When we go to the full dovetailer stage we get multiple copies of
   the same conscious instant. If we interpret these as repetitions  
of
   the same quantum experiment (say a Stern-Gerlach spin  
measurement),
   we get some sequences of Up and Down results. I'm not sure I  
understand this. Why do we need to interpret these copies (an  
infinite number, if the UD is able to run for an infinite time) as  
repetitions of the experiment? Personally, I have only compared the  
MWI with step 3 for John Clark's benefit, since he insists there is  
some problem with pronouns in step 3, but not in the MWI. The  
extent to which they are the same is that they produce both FPI  
from splitting or differentiation of fungible observers. But at  
this stage there is no need to take this any further. I'm just  
trying to help Mr Clark get his head around this particular point,  
and since comp assumes classical computation I wouldn't expect it  
to reproduce quantum probabilities simplistically - if it's going  
to work, it needs to produce them as an end result, not be expected  
to produce them until the entire logic of the argument has been  
examined. (Bruno claims to have produced some sort of quantum  
results at the far end of the comp argument, but I haven't got that  
far myself.)


   But in so far as the duplication ideas of Step 3 are involved, the
   Born Rule of quantum probabilities will not be reproduced, since
   that cannot be obtained by branch counting in the MWI.
OK. I believe that this is not the intention of step 3. It's only a  
metaphorical comparison for people who suffer from pronoun trouble,  
or only an exact comparison to the extent that both give a form of  
FPI. To assume this is the final result is to be too quick.


But it is introduced as an illustration of FPI, and the comparison  
with MWI is made. I merely point out that this comparison is not  
valid.


You did not. You take the MWI before Graham refuted it. Deutsch is  
more right on this than most, even in physics. But, we don't postulate  
a physical reality, and with UDA-step 7, Deustch view is proved, in  
comp. That his solution remains valid for QM is what the math should  
show or refute.





As I said in a recent post, I think John Clark's trouble with the  
use of personal pronouns stems from a hasty glossing of questions of  
personal identity in brain substitution/duplication scenarios. I  
find Nozick's closest continuer notion a useful starting point. He  
takes personal identity to follow the closest continuer of the  
initial state, provided there is no closer or tied continuation. If  
there is a tie (as in step 3), the rule is that two new persons are  
created. I think this solves John's personal pronoun issue. However,  
this does need to be discussed more fully.


OK, but as you seem to have seen, Nozick theory is refuted by  
computationalism, through steps 2, 3  and 4.


Bruno



Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Apr 2015, at 09:49, LizR wrote:

On 13 April 2015 at 17:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au  
wrote:

LizR wrote:
Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any given  
measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts branches  
at all, so much as differentiation within a continuum? Maybe you  
could expand on this. Why (to keep it simple) would a quantum  
experiment with two possible outcomes not reproduce the correct  
probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a special case where it would?)


No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any  
measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of  
possible distinct outcomes for the measurement.


So how does the MWI deal with a measurement with a 3/4 probability  
of outcome 1 and a 1/4 probability of outcome 2? This was Larry  
Niven's objection to many worlds back around the time he wrote All  
the myriad ways and it seems to me that someone else would have  
noticed it in the intervening 50 years (or whatever) ! How come  
anyone takes MWI seriously if it's actually supposed to work like  
this?


The classical duplication model of step 3 cannot reproduce quantum  
probabilities because it relies on branch counting.


Well that's OK because it isn't attempting to reproduce quantum  
probabilities at that point, as far as I know.


Yes. Counting the branching stop to make any sense already at step  
seven. It works only in the ideal protocol of the first six steps.


Getting directly the physical MWI can perhaps be partially done, but  
then we need to introduce thought experiment with amnesia, to merge  
the computations, and get the interference.


This is not necessary given that we redo the thing mathematically, and  
indeed derive some quantum logic, without needing to introduce non  
monotonical logic (to get amnesy).


Now, I certainly encourage people interested to try to get most of the  
quantum without math by adding thought experience with amnesia. Good  
exercise. That can be used also to understand that personal identity  
is an indexical illusion (like now, here, this that, etc.).  
It is *purely* phenomenological, like matter should be after step 8.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-13 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 13 April 2015 at 17:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


LizR wrote:

Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any
given measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts
branches at all, so much as differentiation within a continuum?
Maybe you could expand on this. Why (to keep it simple) would a
quantum experiment with two possible outcomes not reproduce the
correct probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a special case
where it would?)

No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any
measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of
possible distinct outcomes for the measurement. 

So how does the MWI deal with a measurement with a 3/4 probability of 
outcome 1 and a 1/4 probability of outcome 2? This was Larry Niven's 
objection to many worlds back around the time he wrote All the myriad 
ways and it seems to me that someone else would have noticed it in the 
intervening 50 years (or whatever) ! How come anyone takes MWI seriously 
if it's actually supposed to work like this?


The expansion of the wave function in the einselected basis of the 
measurement operator has certain coefficients. The probabilities are the 
absolute magnitudes of these squared. That is the Born Rule. MWI 
advocates try hard to derive the Born Rule from MWI, but they have 
failed to date. I think they always will fail because, as has been 
pointed out, the separate worlds of the MWI that are required before you 
can derive a probability measure already assume the Born Rule. The 
argument is at best circular, and probably even incoherent.


I do not take MWI seriously.

Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:

mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

If we compare this to FPI in the MW Interpretation of quantum
mechanics we see that this is just a branch counting account of
quantum probabilities. Now it is well-known that this fails to
reproduce the correct quantum probabilities in MWI. So FPI as via
Step 3 and FPI as in MWI are intrinsically different.

Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any given 
measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts branches at 
all, so much as differentiation within a continuum? Maybe you could 
expand on this. Why (to keep it simple) would a quantum experiment with 
two possible outcomes not reproduce the correct probabilities in the 
MWI? (Or is that a special case where it would?)


No, MWI does not predict an infinite number of branches for any 
measurement. It predicts a number of branches equal to the number of 
possible distinct outcomes for the measurement. The classical 
duplication model of step 3 cannot reproduce quantum probabilities 
because it relies on branch counting. There are only ever two branches 
for a measurement in a 2-dim Hilberst space, but the probabilities can 
take on any real values between 0 and 1. Foe a spin measurement with the 
appropriate magnet orientation you can have a probability of 1/pi for Up 
(and 1 - 1/pi for Down). This cannot be reproduced by observer 
duplication as in step 3.


David Deutsh has his own peculiar take on many worlds. Most people would 
consider his isea of a 'world' to be premature. In the developed MWI, 
with decoherence, eiselection and the rest, a worl emerges only after 
decoherence and orthogonalization. In this picture, worlds are disjoint 
and can never interfere or recombine.




When we go to the full dovetailer stage we get multiple copies of
the same conscious instant. If we interpret these as repetitions of
the same quantum experiment (say a Stern-Gerlach spin measurement),
we get some sequences of Up and Down results. 



I'm not sure I understand this. Why do we need to interpret these copies 
(an infinite number, if the UD is able to run for an infinite time) as 
repetitions of the experiment? Personally, I have only compared the MWI 
with step 3 for John Clark's benefit, since he insists there is some 
problem with pronouns in step 3, but not in the MWI. The extent to which 
they are the same is that they produce both FPI from splitting or 
differentiation of fungible observers. But at this stage there is no 
need to take this any further. I'm just trying to help Mr Clark get his 
head around this particular point, and since comp assumes classical 
computation I wouldn't expect it to reproduce quantum probabilities 
simplistically - if it's going to work, it needs to produce them as an 
end result, not be expected to produce them until the entire logic of 
the argument has been examined. (Bruno claims to have produced some sort 
of quantum results at the far end of the comp argument, but I haven't 
got that far myself.)


But in so far as the duplication ideas of Step 3 are involved, the
Born Rule of quantum probabilities will not be reproduced, since
that cannot be obtained by branch counting in the MWI.

OK. I believe that this is not the intention of step 3. It's only a 
metaphorical comparison for people who suffer from pronoun trouble, or 
only an exact comparison to the extent that both give a form of FPI. To 
assume this is the final result is to be too quick.


But it is introduced as an illustration of FPI, and the comparison with 
MWI is made. I merely point out that this comparison is not valid.


As I said in a recent post, I think John Clark's trouble with the use of 
personal pronouns stems from a hasty glossing of questions of personal 
identity in brain substitution/duplication scenarios. I find Nozick's 
closest continuer notion a useful starting point. He takes personal 
identity to follow the closest continuer of the initial state, provided 
there is no closer or tied continuation. If there is a tie (as in step 
3), the rule is that two new persons are created. I think this solves 
John's personal pronoun issue. However, this does need to be discussed 
more fully.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-12 Thread Bruce Kellett

Russell Standish wrote:

On Thu, Apr 09, 2015 at 03:59:41PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:

OK. But the problem would be that for any particular realization of
a conscious moment at some finite step number there are still an
infinite number of uncomputed realizations of the same conscious
moment, most of which are in different environments. Are such
identical conscious moments at different step numbers distinct? Or
different instances of the same moment (hence FPI)? Are they treated
differently or summed over? In which case the fact the infinitely
many of them are not computed at any given point becomes something
of a worry.


Yes, but this is not a problem if your ontology is robust. You have
the full resources of Platonia available, and all observer moment
instantiations happen.


There are completed infinities in Platonia?

Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-10 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Apr 09, 2015 at 03:59:41PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 OK. But the problem would be that for any particular realization of
 a conscious moment at some finite step number there are still an
 infinite number of uncomputed realizations of the same conscious
 moment, most of which are in different environments. Are such
 identical conscious moments at different step numbers distinct? Or
 different instances of the same moment (hence FPI)? Are they treated
 differently or summed over? In which case the fact the infinitely
 many of them are not computed at any given point becomes something
 of a worry.
 

Yes, but this is not a problem if your ontology is robust. You have
the full resources of Platonia available, and all observer moment
instantiations happen.

Cheers

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Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-10 Thread LizR
On 10 April 2015 at 13:17, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 I thought I had explained that. But there is a problem about how
 probabilities are determined that might make it clearer. I haven't found a
 clear account of this from Bruno, but the following from a discussion of
 Step 3 in his 2013 paper might be relevant.

 He is talking about the fact that duplication leads to FPI. Likewise, it
 is easy to see that if such a self-duplication experiment is iterated, say
 n times, the majority of the 2n reconstituted people will be unable to
 compress algorithmically the information bits the got after finally
 perceiving where they actually were reconstituted. In fact, from their
 perspectives, via this protocol, the number of times they reach Tokyo
 (resp. London) will follow the binomial distribution. [...] It leads to an
 objective probability applied to subjective (first person) outcomes.
 Later, he says that he will use P(Tokyo) = P(London) = 0.5, if only to
 settle on a determination.

 There are a couple of mistakes in this, but they may not be terminal. In
 the first place it is not clear what Bruno means by iterations of the
 experiment. If each 'person' is to accumulate a sequence of experiences of
 Tokyo or London, then after each duplication run, the resulting 'persons'
 must be returned to Brussels and duplicated again, one copy of the second
 duplication to Tokyo and one to London. So after the second run there will
 be 4 copies, not just 2. Likewise, after 3 iterations there will be eight
 copies; after n iterations there will be 2^n copies, not 2n. These copies
 will all have distinct sequences of T or L experiences. In fact, every
 possible sequence, from TT... to LL... will be represented. Over
 this set, the distribution will indeed follow the binomial with p = 0.5.
 The fact the the probability is 1/2 is simply a result of the fact that
 there was one duplication with two possible outcomes for each 'person' at
 each step.

 If we compare this to FPI in the MW Interpretation of quantum mechanics we
 see that this is just a branch counting account of quantum probabilities.
 Now it is well-known that this fails to reproduce the correct quantum
 probabilities in MWI. So FPI as via Step 3 and FPI as in MWI are
 intrinsically different.


Does the MWI predict an infinite number of branches from any given
measurement? I'm not sure (from FOR) that the MWI predicts branches at all,
so much as differentiation within a continuum? Maybe you could expand on
this. Why (to keep it simple) would a quantum experiment with two possible
outcomes not reproduce the correct probabilities in the MWI? (Or is that a
special case where it would?)

When we go to the full dovetailer stage we get multiple copies of the same
 conscious instant. If we interpret these as repetitions of the same quantum
 experiment (say a Stern-Gerlach spin measurement), we get some sequences of
 Up and Down results.


I'm not sure I understand this. Why do we need to interpret these copies
(an infinite number, if the UD is able to run for an infinite time) as
repetitions of the experiment? Personally, I have only compared the MWI
with step 3 for John Clark's benefit, since he insists there is some
problem with pronouns in step 3, but not in the MWI. The extent to which
they are the same is that they produce both FPI from splitting or
differentiation of fungible observers. But at this stage there is no need
to take this any further. I'm just trying to help Mr Clark get his head
around this particular point, and since comp assumes classical computation
I wouldn't expect it to reproduce quantum probabilities simplistically -
if it's going to work, it needs to produce them as an end result, not be
expected to produce them until the entire logic of the argument has been
examined. (Bruno claims to have produced some sort of quantum results at
the far end of the comp argument, but I haven't got that far myself.)


 But in so far as the duplication ideas of Step 3 are involved, the Born
 Rule of quantum probabilities will not be reproduced, since that cannot be
 obtained by branch counting in the MWI.


OK. I believe that this is not the intention of step 3. It's only a
metaphorical comparison for people who suffer from pronoun trouble, or only
an exact comparison to the extent that both give a form of FPI. To assume
this is the final result is to be too quick.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 09:22, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Yes, I had misread how that works. But who wrote the programs it  
executes? Who wrote the scheduler?

Let us say God.
But with computationalism, God needs only to create the natural  
numbers, and addition, and multiplication.
With physicalism God needs to create a physical universe, the  
psychological universe, the mathematics, the link between,


Rubbish. If the physical universe is primary, consciousness  
supervenes on the physical


Then computationalism is false; or there is a flaw in the UDA. I am  
quite open to the idea, but you have to show were precisely.




and the situation is no different than with comp, where you have to  
explain the appearance of the physical.


But up to now, this works, even if it explains physics in the opposite  
direction as it explains first the quantum weirdness, the the logic of  
observable, the symmetry of the Hamiltoinian,etc.




If you have to appeal to God, then the origin of the physical  
universe can be no problem for you.


Well, I use God in Plato sense: it means the truth we search.





Physicalism is way ahead on this comparison. Consciousness  
supervenes on the physical brain as can be seen by the fact that  
external modifications to the brain modify consciousness, and  
conscious thoughts modify the brain. The evidence is overwhelming  
here.


I don't see any. The MGA shows that the appeal to a primary universe  
just cannot work, unless you believe in non-comp sort of magic.




Mathematics is developed as a response to distinct but similar  
things in the physical universe. Again, the origin of mathematics  
does not present any difficulty for physicalism. Neither does the  
relationship between the physical and the mathematical.


You are quick here.

Find the flaw in the UDA. Your argument here seems to be an argument  
by incredulity, but I gave the reasoning, decomposed in easy steps, so  
you should be able to say where things get wrong.


Search for the MGA in the archive. May be use my last paper(*). I  
don't find it right now, I think Kim gave a link, with some typo and  
spelling corrected. The MGA is only referred to in the sane04 paper.


Bruno

(*) Bruno Marchal. The computationalist reformulation of the mind-body  
problem, Progress in Biophysics and Molecular Biology, Volume 113,  
Issue 1, September 2013, Pages 127–140





Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett

Russell Standish wrote:


Perhaps you need to study the UD algorithm. For any program x, there
will be finitely numbered step on the algorithm when the first
instruction is executed. Similarly for the nth step of program
x. Presumably, for any given observer moment, only a finite number of
steps are required to emulate that observer moment, so the UD will
run enough of a given program to emulate any observer moment within a
finite amount of CPU time.


OK. But the problem would be that for any particular realization of a 
conscious moment at some finite step number there are still an infinite 
number of uncomputed realizations of the same conscious moment, most of 
which are in different environments. Are such identical conscious 
moments at different step numbers distinct? Or different instances of 
the same moment (hence FPI)? Are they treated differently or summed 
over? In which case the fact the infinitely many of them are not 
computed at any given point becomes something of a worry.


Bruce


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 03:16, meekerdb wrote:


On 4/8/2015 5:34 PM, LizR wrote:
On 9 April 2015 at 11:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au  
wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:

I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The  
primary physical universe certainly exists,
Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a  
*primary* physical universe. That  is an axiom  
by Aristotle, and I believe animals are hard-wired to make some  
extrapolation here (for not doubting the prey and the predators),  
but there are no scientific evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.

We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal  
dovetailer, and of all its finite pieces of executions is already a  
theorem of very elementary arithmetic. Those things exist in the  
same sense that prime number exist.


Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.

A large (and familiar on this list) metaphysical leap, which fails  
to explain how two cultures can discover the same maths, or indeed  
why maths kicks back at all.


I don't think it fails in that respect at all.  Different cultures  
live in the same universe with the same physics.  Cultures are made  
up of entities that compete in the Darwinian sense.  So they are  
bound to have the concept of units, addition, etc.  It seems to me  
that it may more of a problem to explain the conceptualization of  
arithmetic in Bruno's TOE, even though it's built on arithmetic.   
The entities in it that are conscious may have Borg like  
consciousness with no concept of individuals - they are all aware  
of the truths of arithmetic, so they all have the same thoughts.


They are aware of their beliefs/assumption/axioms/theories. They are  
extensions of arithmetic, like PA + I am in Helsinki + what they can  
deduce from that. Then, it is shown that hey have a rich theology  
including physics, so we can compare with the empirical physics.
About Mars Rover, I don't know the program, and how much it has self- 
referential abilities. I doubt Mars Rover is Löbian, so his  
consciousness might the same as a ... salvia smoker (out of time and  
without any memory).


Bruno



Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 07:59, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Russell Standish wrote:

Perhaps you need to study the UD algorithm. For any program x, there
will be finitely numbered step on the algorithm when the first
instruction is executed. Similarly for the nth step of program
x. Presumably, for any given observer moment, only a finite number of
steps are required to emulate that observer moment, so the UD will
run enough of a given program to emulate any observer moment within a
finite amount of CPU time.


OK. But the problem would be that for any particular realization of  
a conscious moment at some finite step number there are still an  
infinite number of uncomputed realizations of the same conscious  
moment, most of which are in different environments. Are such  
identical conscious moments at different step numbers distinct?


Good question. If they can diverge they are distinct. I use the Y =  
II. If a computation diverge, this bactrack on its past in the UD*  
(the execution of the UD).




Or different instances of the same moment (hence FPI)?


Different instances, if they can diverge in principle. But I avoid  
some difficult question by interviewing the self-referential machine.




Are they treated differently or summed over? In which case the fact  
the infinitely many of them are not computed at any given point  
becomes something of a worry.


I am not sure why, because the first persons are not aware of the UD  
delays. So, all computations which can diverge are summed over. Again,  
I prefer to interview the machine, and get general responses  
constrained by the logic of self-reference.


Bruno





Bruce


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Apr 2015, at 01:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:

One can get as much by adding a few random numbers to any mix. Your 
'many worlds' have nothing to do with Everett.


Well, if they differ, then either QM is false or comp is false. But it 
is the whole point: to make thing precise enough so that we can compare 
them.

If you see already that they are different, please give the proof.


As far as I can tell, your 'many worlds, or FPI' comes from the 
observation that infinitely many copies of any particular conscious 
moment are generated by the dovetailer. These occur in different 
environments, with different continuations, hence FPI. In comp there is 
no dynamics relating the different possible continuations of the moment, 
and there is no connection with measurement or measurement outcomes -- 
the indeterminacy applies to every conscious moment.


In the Everett of MWI interpretation of QM, you have a deterministic 
wave equation (the SE) which determines the evolution of the wave 
function. In a measurement interaction, the wave function is expanded in 
terms of the complete set of eigvenvectors of the measurement operator. 
Each term in this expansion corresponds to a particular eigenvalue as 
the result of the measurement. Decoherence then means that interaction 
with the environment leads to the diagonalization of the corresponding 
density matrix. So what were once interfering terms in an expansion in 
Hilbert space evolve into separate worlds, in each of which a different 
measurement result obtains.


I do not see any relationship, or even any real similarity between these 
two models, apart from the fact that they both give indeterminacy in a 
deterministic model.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Yes, I had misread how that works. But who wrote the programs it 
executes? Who wrote the scheduler?


Let us say God.

But with computationalism, God needs only to create the natural numbers, 
and addition, and multiplication.


With physicalism God needs to create a physical universe, the 
psychological universe, the mathematics, the link between,


Rubbish. If the physical universe is primary, consciousness supervenes 
on the physical and the situation is no different than with comp, where 
you have to explain the appearance of the physical. If you have to 
appeal to God, then the origin of the physical universe can be no 
problem for you.


Physicalism is way ahead on this comparison. Consciousness supervenes on 
the physical brain as can be seen by the fact that external 
modifications to the brain modify consciousness, and conscious thoughts 
modify the brain. The evidence is overwhelming here. Mathematics is 
developed as a response to distinct but similar things in the physical 
universe. Again, the origin of mathematics does not present any 
difficulty for physicalism. Neither does the relationship between the 
physical and the mathematical.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 01:29, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:
The main point is that for a physical universe to exists in some  
primary form, you have to abandon the idea that a brain is Turing  
emulable.


Not so. You essentially admit as much in the 'yes doctor' scenario.  
If you are happy to replace your physical brain with one simulated  
in a computer, then you are saying that the physical brain is Turing  
emulable.


The relevant part for my consciousness. No need to emulate the whole  
physics of the brain.



This stands to reason if you believe that the brain is essentially  
classical in its operation -- it is large and warm so quantum  
effects decohere far too rapidly to have any significant large-scale  
effect. The operation of this physical object is then completely  
classical, and determined by physical laws that are deterministic.  
If you know the laws and the initial conditions, then the future  
activity of that brain can be completely calculated on a computer.


Even if it is a quantum computer. OK.




The problem, of course, arises with the requirement that you know,  
or can determine, the initial conditions. I suggest that this is  
impossible in principle. Physical limitations are such that in any  
attempt to extract a complete map of the state of a living brain at  
any instant, the machinery would destroy the brain *before* any such  
map could be completed.


That is not really relevant. I suppose a high comp level in step 1-6,  
to ease the argument, but at step seven, we need only the concrete UD,  
and at step 8 the UD which exist and is run in arithmetic.






'Yes doctor' fails because the necessary starting conditions cannot  
be realized for physical reasons.


OK. But then comp is already false, and you make my point.





This does not mean that one cannot create a physical computer that  
completely models the human brain -- in other words, you could  
create a conscious human-like entity. But you would necessarily  
always create a /different/ person in this way, not a copy of an  
existing person.


That depends on the level, and is not relevant for the reversal. Your  
FPI still rely on just the copies in arithmetic, after step 7 and 8.





But whether these means that consciousness is primarily  
computational or primarily physical is just a matter of which way  
the rabbit jumps.



?


Bruno





Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 01:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it.  
The primary physical universe certainly exists,
Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a  
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I  
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here  
(for not doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no  
scientific evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.
We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal  
dovetailer, and of all its finite pieces of executions is already a  
theorem of very elementary arithmetic. Those things exist in the  
same sense that prime number exist.


Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.


In which theory? You assume many things. The axioms I gave on numbers  
did not refer to brains or anything physical. I might ask you to put  
all your assumption on the table. I think that you confuse numbers,  
and human conception of the number. If you explain what is a number by  
a human brain, I will ask you to give me a theory of brain not using  
the notion of numbers.






Perhaps you meant its existence in a physical universe. But we  
don't know if there is a physical universe,


I think we do know that. Your point, it seems, is merely that this  
is not primary, not that it doesn't exist.


Yes, I meant But we don't know if there is a primary physical  
universe, which is what you were assuming in your answer.





and the point, to sum up, is that it will be easier to explain the  
*appearance* of a physical universe to the entities in arithmetic,  
than to explain the appearance of arithmetic to physical beings.


But you haven't explained the appearance of a physical universe in  
arithmetic.


? No, I did. All appearances are easily explained, once you assume  
comp, and understand that arithmetical truth (a tiny part of it)  
emulates all computations, notably the one which we associate  
consciousness to. What is hard is to justify the stability, but there  
are already non trivial results. And then the point is that we have no  
choice in the matter: if comp is true, even if there is a primary  
universe, it is useless to invoke it in the explanation.



And the appearance of arithmetic in a physical universe is trivially  
easy to explain -- we abstract the numbers from our experience of  
objects and of multiple copies of similar objects. No mystery here.


The point of MGA is that such an explanation does not work, even in a  
small primary universe.






But the UDA go farer. It shows that if we assume the brain function  
like a (natural) machine, then we have no choice (unless adding  
some amount of magic).


No need for magic: it is all in the physics.


Then you need to find a flaw in step 7 and/or Step 8.






And so far there is no evidence that it can produce anything like  
the physical universe we observe.
This shows you are still not reading the work with the necessary  
attention. There are evidences, of different type. I predict the  
many worlds appearance a long time before reading Everett and  
understanding that QM gives some evidence for computationalism (for  
which evidences also exists). Then  the math extract a quantum  
logic exactly where it must appear.


This is all quite trivial, and unimpressive to the physicist.


Because he seems to abstract away from the mind-body problem. Please  
read the proof. Also, getting indeterminacy local non locality, non  
cloning, symmetry, and with some luck the non linearity from  
elementary arithmetic (+ comp at the meta-level) is a good beginning,  
for a theory which does not eliminate consciousness, and explain the  
difference between the qualia and the quanta. You forget we find the  
quanta at the place UDA says that if comp is true they must appear. It  
is not a formalization of the assumed idea of quanta. Most people  
thought it was impossible, at the start.





One can get as much by adding a few random numbers to any mix. Your  
'many worlds' have nothing to do with Everett.


Well, if they differ, then either QM is false or comp is false. But it  
is the whole point: to make thing precise enough so that we can  
compare them.

If you see already that they are different, please give the proof.







Primary physicality is a lot simpler. Occam's razor to the fore
Not at all. It assumes a primary physical reality, a mathemaytical  
reality, some starnge relation between math and physcis, and  
between mind and physics. The TOE extracted from computationalism  
assume only elementary arithmetic (or Turing equivalent).


The relationship between maths and physics is not at all strange or  
mysterious. We evolved in a 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Apr 2015, at 09:34, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I do not see any relationship, or even any real similarity between 
these two models, apart from the fact that they both give 
indeterminacy in a deterministic model.


The point made is logical. IF comp is true, they have to be the same, 
and then the math, up to now, confirms it.


The logic is that they are different, therefore comp is false.

You rely a lot on your absolute faith that comp is true, so in your mind 
these things have to work. The fact that they don't work is a flaw in 
the physics according to you -- not that comp is false.


I am a physicist, I judge theories by the results they give. If a theory 
does not agree with observation, then the theory is flawed. Your theory 
does not give the MWI results, therefore your theory is either deeply 
flawed or false.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 09:34, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 09 Apr 2015, at 01:16, Bruce Kellett wrote:
One can get as much by adding a few random numbers to any mix.  
Your 'many worlds' have nothing to do with Everett.
Well, if they differ, then either QM is false or comp is false. But  
it is the whole point: to make thing precise enough so that we can  
compare them.

If you see already that they are different, please give the proof.


As far as I can tell, your 'many worlds, or FPI' comes from the  
observation that infinitely many copies of any particular conscious  
moment are generated by the dovetailer.


Not really. The DU executes program. if my lmevel is low, it mlight  
need the rational (with 10^100 decimals) quantum description of the  
Milky Way. As we cannot know our subst level with certainty, the  
reasoning must not fix some level a priori.





These occur in different environments, with different continuations,  
hence FPI. In comp there is no dynamics relating the different  
possible continuations of the moment,


Yes, there is. The dynamics is given by the universal numbers which  
run s the computation. They are those linking the computational  
states. Then the FPI links the observer moments. Both the computations  
and the FPI are at play.




and there is no connection with measurement or measurement outcomes  
-- the indeterminacy applies to every conscious moment.


In the Everett of MWI interpretation of QM, you have a deterministic  
wave equation (the SE) which determines the evolution of the wave  
function. In a measurement interaction, the wave function is  
expanded in terms of the complete set of eigvenvectors of the  
measurement operator. Each term in this expansion corresponds to a  
particular eigenvalue as the result of the measurement. Decoherence  
then means that interaction with the environment leads to the  
diagonalization of the corresponding density matrix. So what were  
once interfering terms in an expansion in Hilbert space evolve into  
separate worlds, in each of which a different measurement result  
obtains.


I do not see any relationship, or even any real similarity between  
these two models, apart from the fact that they both give  
indeterminacy in a deterministic model.


The point made is logical. IF comp is true, they have to be the same,  
and then the math, up to now, confirms it. It would not if there were  
no incompleteness, if Theatetu's theory could not work on Gödel  
beweisbar, etc. You need to read the math part, but it is better to  
settle the complete UDA first, I think.


Bruno




Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Apr 2015, at 03:30, Bruce Kellett wrote:


meekerdb wrote:

On 4/8/2015 4:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:


'Yes doctor' fails because the necessary starting conditions  
cannot be realized for physical reasons.


This does not mean that one cannot create a physical computer that  
completely models the human brain -- in other words, you could  
create a conscious human-like entity. But you would necessarily  
always create a /different/ person in this way, not a copy of an  
existing person.
And not only because of initial conditions, but also because of  
interaction with the environment.  This can't be negligble, because  
it is what makes the computations of the brain classical (or nearly  
so) and besides the incidental interactions I think perception is  
also necessary.  Both of these will cause any replicated brain to  
instantly diverge from it's original.


I think this is where Bruno appeals to FPI. But I think it is also  
why you say that we need to simulate some or all of the environment  
as well as the brain itself if we are to make sense of personal  
survival.


At the moment, Bruno's dovetailer cannot do this because it picks  
out only 'conscious moments' and does not find them only in  
reproducible environments. There is no physics there, so Boltzmann  
brains outnumber 'people' by infinity to one.


Proof?

If that is the cse, then computationalism is false. But you need more  
than the 'number' of realization is arithmetic, you need to define the  
inside views or the person points of view. This add the constraints  
whioch up to now show that we have a non trivial physics. I guess I  
might explain more on this later.


Bruno





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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread LizR
On 8 April 2015 at 12:35, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 Seems a lot simpler to have a primary physical universe. Then all you have
 to do is explore it.


If simplicity is the key, then it's a lot simpler to have a Newtonian
universe. In fact, it's even simpler to have one with just atoms and the
void and four (or is it five?) alchemical elements.

The only reason to make things as complicated as necessary, (but no more)
is because this gives us extra explanatory power that simpler theories
lack. Bruno, for example, is trying to explain the nature of consciousness
using a relatively simple and uncontroversial theory, and seeing where it
leads. If you *start *from where it leads (the UDA and MGA and so on)
then of course it looks complicated. But so does GR, if you start from the
final equations ... but GR also starts from a very simple principle, and
sees where it leads.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it.  
The primary physical universe certainly exists,
Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a  
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I  
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here (for  
not doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no  
scientific evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.


We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal  
dovetailer, and of all its finite pieces of executions is already a  
theorem of very elementary arithmetic. Those things exist in the same  
sense that prime number exist.
Perhaps you meant its existence in a physical universe. But we don't  
know if there is a physical universe, and the point, to sum up, is  
that it will be easier to explain the *appearance* of a physical  
universe to the entities in arithmetic, than to explain the appearance  
of arithmetic to physical beings. But the UDA go farer. It shows that  
if we assume the brain function like a (natural) machine, then we have  
no choice (unless adding some amount of magic).





And so far there is no evidence that it can produce anything like  
the physical universe we observe.


This shows you are still not reading the work with the necessary  
attention. There are evidences, of different type. I predict the many  
worlds appearance a long time before reading Everett and understanding  
that QM gives some evidence for computationalism (for which evidences  
also exists). Then  the math extract a quantum logic exactly where it  
must appear.






Primary physicality is a lot simpler. Occam's razor to the fore



Not at all. It assumes a primary physical reality, a mathemaytical  
reality, some starnge relation between math and physcis, and between  
mind and physics. The TOE extracted from computationalism assume only  
elementary arithmetic (or Turing equivalent).









The UD works a bit on the first execution, then a bit on the second  
execution, and then comes back on the first, then the second, then  
the third, and then come back to the first, etc.
In that way, the UD executes all computations, including all those  
who never stop.


Yes, I had misread how that works. But who wrote the programs it  
executes? Who wrote the scheduler?


Let us say God.

But with computationalism, God needs only to create the natural  
numbers, and addition, and multiplication.


With physicalism God needs to create a physical universe, the  
psychological universe, the mathematics, the link between, and the UDA  
shows you need actual infinities to make the binding. Keep in mind  
that the goal is to explain where the physical *and* psychological  
laws come from, and what are their relations.





Seems a lot simpler to have a primary physical universe. Then all  
you have to do is explore it.


No problem if that is your goal, but the goal in this list is to  
figure out what reality can be, and get a deeper understanding how and  
why all this exists at all, and how consciousness is related to  
physicalness.


The main point is that for a physical universe to exists in some  
primary form, you have to abandon the idea that a brain is Turing  
emulable.


May be you are not interested in the mind-body problem, but that  
problem is complex, and with comp, to solve it, there is no choice  
other than abandoning Aristotle theology (used by anti-theist and most  
muslim and christians, and some others) and come back to Plato's  
theology, where the physical emerges, or even is a sort of illusion,  
from arithmetic through the mind of the universal machine.


Universal machine have a crazily interesting platonist theology, which  
is 99,999% pure mathematics, including physics, and so is testable,  
and that is the main point. Up to now, the tests confirm it.


I am not proposing any new theory. I shows results verified by  
courageous people who just took the time to study the points with some  
care. That took years. No one doubt that such results can seem  
shocking for Aristotelian believers (still a vast majority of  
scientists and believers), as it extends Everett to arithmetic and  
eventually forces us to come back to Pythagorus' and Plato's type of  
conception of reality.


But that is the scientific adventure: we cannot put the conceptual  
problems (like the mind-body) under the rug for ever, and some time we  
must revised our most fundamental belief.


I love as much as you the physical universe, and I find nice that its  
roots and foundation are purely arithmetical. Matter is no more a  
primitive, but that makes it even more solid, as you can derive its  
appearance and stability (hopefully) from elementary arithmetic, which  
is the thing I doubt the 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

On 4/8/2015 4:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:


'Yes doctor' fails because the necessary starting conditions cannot be 
realized for physical reasons.


This does not mean that one cannot create a physical computer that 
completely models the human brain -- in other words, you could create 
a conscious human-like entity. But you would necessarily always create 
a /different/ person in this way, not a copy of an existing person.


And not only because of initial conditions, but also because of 
interaction with the environment.  This can't be negligble, because it 
is what makes the computations of the brain classical (or nearly so) and 
besides the incidental interactions I think perception is also 
necessary.  Both of these will cause any replicated brain to instantly 
diverge from it's original.


I think this is where Bruno appeals to FPI. But I think it is also why 
you say that we need to simulate some or all of the environment as well 
as the brain itself if we are to make sense of personal survival.


At the moment, Bruno's dovetailer cannot do this because it picks out 
only 'conscious moments' and does not find them only in reproducible 
environments. There is no physics there, so Boltzmann brains outnumber 
'people' by infinity to one.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The 
primary physical universe certainly exists,
Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a 
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I 
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here (for 
not doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no scientific 
evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.


We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal dovetailer, 
and of all its finite pieces of executions is already a theorem of very 
elementary arithmetic. Those things exist in the same sense that prime 
number exist.


Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.

Perhaps you meant its existence in a physical universe. But we don't 
know if there is a physical universe,


I think we do know that. Your point, it seems, is merely that this is 
not primary, not that it doesn't exist.


and the point, to sum up, is that 
it will be easier to explain the *appearance* of a physical universe to 
the entities in arithmetic, than to explain the appearance of arithmetic 
to physical beings.


But you haven't explained the appearance of a physical universe in 
arithmetic. And the appearance of arithmetic in a physical universe is 
trivially easy to explain -- we abstract the numbers from our experience 
of objects and of multiple copies of similar objects. No mystery here.


But the UDA go farer. It shows that if we assume the 
brain function like a (natural) machine, then we have no choice (unless 
adding some amount of magic).


No need for magic: it is all in the physics.

And so far there is no evidence that it can produce anything like the 
physical universe we observe.


This shows you are still not reading the work with the necessary 
attention. There are evidences, of different type. I predict the many 
worlds appearance a long time before reading Everett and understanding 
that QM gives some evidence for computationalism (for which evidences 
also exists). Then  the math extract a quantum logic exactly where it 
must appear.


This is all quite trivial, and unimpressive to the physicist. One can 
get as much by adding a few random numbers to any mix. Your 'many 
worlds' have nothing to do with Everett.



Primary physicality is a lot simpler. Occam's razor to the fore


Not at all. It assumes a primary physical reality, a mathemaytical 
reality, some starnge relation between math and physcis, and between 
mind and physics. The TOE extracted from computationalism assume only 
elementary arithmetic (or Turing equivalent).


The relationship between maths and physics is not at all strange or 
mysterious. We evolved in a physical world, and postulated numbers and 
arithmetic to order our experiences. Once the idea of axiomatization of 
arithmetic arose, all the rest followed. It is intimately related to the 
physical world because it originated there -- as part of our attempt to 
understand and systematize our experience of that physical world.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread meekerdb

On 4/8/2015 5:34 PM, LizR wrote:
On 9 April 2015 at 11:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with 
it. The
primary physical universe certainly exists,

Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and 
I
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here 
(for not
doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no 
scientific
evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.


We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal dovetailer, 
and of
all its finite pieces of executions is already a theorem of very 
elementary
arithmetic. Those things exist in the same sense that prime number 
exist.


Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.


A large (and familiar on this list) metaphysical leap, which fails to explain how two 
cultures can discover the same maths, or indeed why maths kicks back at all.


I don't think it fails in that respect at all.  Different cultures live in the same 
universe with the same physics.  Cultures are made up of entities that compete in the 
Darwinian sense.  So they are bound to have the concept of units, addition, etc.  It seems 
to me that it may more of a problem to explain the conceptualization of arithmetic in 
Bruno's TOE, even though it's built on arithmetic. The entities in it that are conscious 
may have Borg like consciousness with no concept of individuals - they are all aware of 
the truths of arithmetic, so they all have the same thoughts.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread meekerdb

On 4/8/2015 4:29 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:


The main point is that for a physical universe to exists in some primary form, you have 
to abandon the idea that a brain is Turing emulable.


Not so. You essentially admit as much in the 'yes doctor' scenario. If you are happy to 
replace your physical brain with one simulated in a computer, then you are saying that 
the physical brain is Turing emulable. This stands to reason if you believe that the 
brain is essentially classical in its operation -- it is large and warm so quantum 
effects decohere far too rapidly to have any significant large-scale effect. The 
operation of this physical object is then completely classical, and determined by 
physical laws that are deterministic. If you know the laws and the initial conditions, 
then the future activity of that brain can be completely calculated on a computer.


The problem, of course, arises with the requirement that you know, or can determine, the 
initial conditions. I suggest that this is impossible in principle. Physical limitations 
are such that in any attempt to extract a complete map of the state of a living brain at 
any instant, the machinery would destroy the brain *before* any such map could be 
completed.


'Yes doctor' fails because the necessary starting conditions cannot be realized for 
physical reasons.


This does not mean that one cannot create a physical computer that completely models the 
human brain -- in other words, you could create a conscious human-like entity. But you 
would necessarily always create a /different/ person in this way, not a copy of an 
existing person.


And not only because of initial conditions, but also because of interaction with the 
environment.  This can't be negligble, because it is what makes the computations of the 
brain classical (or nearly so) and besides the incidental interactions I think perception 
is also necessary.  Both of these will cause any replicated brain to instantly diverge 
from it's original.


I am actually interested in Bruno's idea of consciousness; but I'm not clear on whether 
there is anything useful in axiomatically defining knowledge in terms of provability.  
What does that tell me about whether my Mars Rover is conscious or not?


Brent



But whether these means that consciousness is primarily computational or primarily 
physical is just a matter of which way the rabbit jumps.


Bruce



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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 9 April 2015 at 11:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au 
mailto:bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:
Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:

I understand what you are claiming, but I do not
agree with it. The primary physical universe
certainly exists,

Then computationalism is false. But what are your
evidence for a *primary* physical universe. That is an
axiom by Aristotle, and I believe animals are hard-wired
to make some extrapolation here (for not doubting the
prey and the predators), but there are no scientific
evidence for a *primary* physical object.

There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer
either.

We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal
dovetailer, and of all its finite pieces of executions is
already a theorem of very elementary arithmetic. Those things
exist in the same sense that prime number exist.

Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.


A large (and familiar on this list) metaphysical leap, which fails to 
explain how two cultures can discover the same maths, or indeed why 
maths kicks back at all.


For the same reason that two cultures experience the same physics. Maths 
doesn't kick back -- only physical objects do that.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread LizR
On 9 April 2015 at 11:16, Bruce Kellett bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:

 Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 08 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:

  Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


 I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The
 primary physical universe certainly exists,

 Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a
 *primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I believe
 animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here (for not doubting
 the prey and the predators), but there are no scientific evidence for a
 *primary* physical object.


 There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either.


 We don't need evidence here. The existence of the universal dovetailer,
 and of all its finite pieces of executions is already a theorem of very
 elementary arithmetic. Those things exist in the same sense that prime
 number exist.


 Which is merely as thought patterns in the brains of physical beings.


A large (and familiar on this list) metaphysical leap, which fails to
explain how two cultures can discover the same maths, or indeed why maths
kicks back at all.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:


The main point is that for a physical universe to exists in some primary 
form, you have to abandon the idea that a brain is Turing emulable.


Not so. You essentially admit as much in the 'yes doctor' scenario. If 
you are happy to replace your physical brain with one simulated in a 
computer, then you are saying that the physical brain is Turing 
emulable. This stands to reason if you believe that the brain is 
essentially classical in its operation -- it is large and warm so 
quantum effects decohere far too rapidly to have any significant 
large-scale effect. The operation of this physical object is then 
completely classical, and determined by physical laws that are 
deterministic. If you know the laws and the initial conditions, then the 
future activity of that brain can be completely calculated on a computer.


The problem, of course, arises with the requirement that you know, or 
can determine, the initial conditions. I suggest that this is impossible 
in principle. Physical limitations are such that in any attempt to 
extract a complete map of the state of a living brain at any instant, 
the machinery would destroy the brain *before* any such map could be 
completed.


'Yes doctor' fails because the necessary starting conditions cannot be 
realized for physical reasons.


This does not mean that one cannot create a physical computer that 
completely models the human brain -- in other words, you could create a 
conscious human-like entity. But you would necessarily always create a 
/different/ person in this way, not a copy of an existing person.


But whether these means that consciousness is primarily computational or 
primarily physical is just a matter of which way the rabbit jumps.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-08 Thread Russell Standish
On Tue, Apr 07, 2015 at 05:22:20PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 Russell Standish wrote:
 On Tue, Apr 07, 2015 at 12:51:30PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can
 ever be completely counterfactually correct, because there will
 always be related sequences of states that never get to be computed
 -- no completed infinities even in arithmetic.
 
 Hi Bruce, that's not quite right. All computations eventually get
 computed by the UD within a finite (but unbounded) number of
 computational steps. Only in a non-robust ontology does this not happen.
 
 I think you need to unpack this a little. The dovetailer is running
 all possible programs. That is an infinite number of programs, much
 less an infinite number of computational steps. How can you say that
 there are only a finite number of steps? And I do not know what
 finite  but unbounded means in this context. It has meaning in
 closed universe models, but scarcely in arithmetic?

Perhaps you need to study the UD algorithm. For any program x, there
will be finitely numbered step on the algorithm when the first
instruction is executed. Similarly for the nth step of program
x. Presumably, for any given observer moment, only a finite number of
steps are required to emulate that observer moment, so the UD will
run enough of a given program to emulate any observer moment within a
finite amount of CPU time.

However it is unbounded, because if you pick a number N, there will be
a program that is not even started by the time N steps of the UD have
been executed.

 
 
 Perhaps you could argue that the infinite sum over all computations
 supporting a given observer moment will never complete in a finite
 time, but I think that poses a problem for computing the measure
 (already recognised as an open problem), rather than being an isue per
 se with UDA 1-7.
 
 I have difficulty relating the number of computational steps to any
 physical time. This UD is running on arithmetic in Platonia. Each
 step takes no time, it is merely a relation between numbers. But if
 steps are numbered with successive integers, there is an infinite
 number of them and it cannot complete. It is not a matter of time,
 it is a matter of infinite integers:  after any number of steps
 there is still an infinite number left to complete.
 
 The measure problem is insoluble without some further input into the
 model to restrict the possibilities.
 

I probably slip into using the term time for CPU time (which is an
algorithmic resource). Of course, for physical computers, this is the
same thing, albeit not necessarily linearly related. But when
discussing platonic entities, one should be more careful...

 Bruce
 
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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:36, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 13:25, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

To be more precise, I should explain you how computations and  
emulation is defined in arithmetic, in term of the truth of  
elementary number theoretical relations. A computation will exist  
through the fact that it is true that some numbers divide some  
other numbers, and other facts like that. On the contrary, a  
description of a computation will be a number from which we can  
extract the description of a sequence of states, but that is  
different from the states existence being the result of a set of  
true relation.


So you can use these terms in that way. But that does not make  
'computation' a dynamical concept.
It is not a physical time related concept. But computer, or  
universal number (or universal combinators) needs only a discrete  
static time: 0, 1, 2, 3, ..


OK, but that is an ordering parameter and it does not make the  
computational dynamical rather than static.


It does not make the computational dynamical in the physical sense,  
but we don't need that as physics will have to be derived from the  
first person experience associated to the non physical computation.


To ease the understanding, it is better to not assume a primary  
physical reality, nor to assume it does not exist, and to follow  
precisely the reasoning. As it is counter-intuitive, it is the only  
way to avoid the use of some prejudice we can have in such domain.






There is no change or movement involved. Arithmetic is completely  
static, as are the relations between numbers.
Block universe are static too. It is the point of a relativity  
theory. Time and space comes from comparison between clock and  
meter, nothing can prevent the sigma_1 reality to emulates all  
those comparisons , and by assuming computationalism, of the  
conscious entities which make sense of the comparisons.


It is similar to the block universe view in that your internal  
ordering parameter is entirely static. But the analogy is not  
perfect for what you want to do with comp. The physical block  
universe is often referred to in terms of two separate points of  
view: the 'bird' view which is from the outside,


It corresponds loosely to what I call the third person point of view,  
except it is not based on physical notion, like universe.




from which (entirely metaphorical) view, the universe is static; and  
the 'frog' view from within, from which view the universe is  
dynamical.


Here we will have the first person view, but it is a psychological  
notion, and again, not related a priori with the physical. Indeed, in  
the math part we get the 1-view with adding   p to the provability  
predicate. To get physics we will need the weaker   t, or both   
 t  p. But here I anticipate.


Note that in Everett Tegmark, the 1-view is given by the relative  
states, and the 3-view by the universal wave, or matrix. But 1-3 view  
is a much refined, and psychological notion, than bird and frog.




In this case the bird (block) view is completely equivalent to a  
recording of the experiences of the frog in real time.


Here your analogy breaks down. The ultimate 3-view, in the TOE  
extracted from comp, is the arithmetical reality. It is statical, but  
is not a recording. the computation exists due to the truth of some  
relation between numbers, and not from the description of those truth.


That is a key difference, which cannot be understood if you have a  
conventionalist view of mathematics. The arithmetical reality kicks  
back, and indeed, incompleteness is a product of that difference.  
Einstein resists to this all his life, but in the book by Pale  
Yourgreau, I got evidence that eventually Gödel makes him realize that  
difference.




Because the time parameter is defined internally, the recording can  
be run as often as required by the bird, and the result (and  
conscious experiences of the frog) are identical every time.


There is no consciousness in a recording, or associable to a  
recording. There is just no computation there, only a description of a  
computation. I think I will have to make a thread on only this, as it  
is subtle and people can easily be confused. That is also what is made  
utterly clear in Gödel's work, but then it is no less subtle, even if  
it is a particular case of the difference between the number 89 and  
the description 89.





The same thing would happen in the static view of the dovetailer  
with states ordered by the step number. The whole shebang would be  
no different from a recording of the same shebang --


That is a reason to doubt in a mono-universe block reality, but the  
problem is solved with a block multi-universe. I mean that this is  
conceivable. No problem with arithmetic, which internalize all the  
counterfactuals, and the computations, by abstraction. This will also  
solidify the idea that consciousness is an 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 13:25, Bruce Kellett wrote:
You want a dynamic like in physics, a function from time to space,  
but in computer science, and to understand the problem here, the  
dynamics are given by function from N to mind states.
You need to give magical ability to a turing machine so that she  
can distinguish (by its consciousness, in a first person way) the  
difference between a physical emulation, and an arithmetical  
emulation. The physical will give rise to the right measure, but  
not by magic, only because the physical is run by the sum on all  
computations below its substitution level.
But all this is not needed to get the reversal in step seven. So I  
guess again that you are OK with step seven and see that if a  
primary physical universe exists and run the UD, then physics is  
reduced to arithmetic (seen from inside). Do you see that.


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The  
primary physical universe certainly exists,


Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a  
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I  
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here (for  
not doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no scientific  
evidence for a *primary* physical object.





and it is not running your UD! I think we might notice if it were.


I don't believe a physical universe could run a UD, but again, that  
point is not relevant after the MGA.






I think that Russell is right when he suggested that even by step  
seven your dovetailer has to be running in Platonia, not in a  
physical embodiment. This has to do with the fact that the  
dovetailer can never complete. It is running all possible programs  
and most of these will never complete. So you never complete and get  
back to running all the steps of early programs in the sequence. So  
you do not compute all possible instantiations of a conscious moment  
by any finite time in a physical universe. Or even in Platonia  
because the idea of a completed infinity of computations makes no  
sense.


Why do you think the universal dovetailer dovetails? For all i, j k,  
the step phi_i(j)^k is obtained from a bijection between NxNxN and N.


The UD works a bit on the first execution, then a bit on the second  
execution, and then comes back on the first, then the second, then the  
third, and then come back to the first, etc.


In that way, the UD executes all computations, including all those who  
never stop.







So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can  
ever be completely counterfactually correct, because there will  
always be related sequences of states that never get to be computed  
-- no completed infinities even in arithmetic.


Physics is not reduced to arithmetic seen from the inside because  
arithmetic is never completed by the dovetailer or anything else and  
there are no non-magical ways in which similar states that might  
give rise to ordered physical laws can ever be be related.


The universal dovetailer dovetails.




You only ever get out of a model like this what you put in. You have  
put in arithmetic, so that is what you get out. You will never get  
physics this way.


I do get an embryo of a non trivial physics, by adding the classical  
axioms/definition of knowledge, and I do provide the axiomatization of  
the logic of the observable, and I do show that it gives a  
quantization and a quantum logic, and I do compare it with QM's logic.  
I even provide theorem provers for most of the logics involved.
Computationalism can be wrong, but that is the whole point of the  
reasoning: we can test it (with some nuance, like assuming we are not  
in a conspiratorial simulation, ...).


Bruno





Bruce



With occam, a believer in comp can already stop here, and work on  
the measure problem.
But a phsysicalist can still conclude that there is a primary  
unique universe, and that it can't run the UD, nor any significant  
part.
The step 8 address this situation and shows precisely why invoking  
a primary physical universe makes it magical, with neuron needing  
prescience, and movie getting experiences, and indeed nothing  
getting all experiences.
It is good news, as it suggest we might understand the origin of  
the physical laws, from non physical things, the gluing properties  
of universal numbers' dreams.

Bruno


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Apr 2015, at 08:47, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, Apr 07, 2015 at 12:51:30PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I think that Russell is right when he suggested that even by step
seven your dovetailer has to be running in Platonia, not in a
physical embodiment. This has to do with the fact that the
dovetailer can never complete. It is running all possible programs
and most of these will never complete. So you never complete and get
back to running all the steps of early programs in the sequence. So
you do not compute all possible instantiations of a conscious moment
by any finite time in a physical universe. Or even in Platonia
because the idea of a completed infinity of computations makes no
sense.

So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can
ever be completely counterfactually correct, because there will
always be related sequences of states that never get to be computed
-- no completed infinities even in arithmetic.


Hi Bruce, that's not quite right. All computations eventually get
computed by the UD within a finite (but unbounded) number of
computational steps.


Yes. Bruce missed the dovetailing part of the universal dovetailing.


Only in a non-robust ontology does this not happen.

Perhaps you could argue that the infinite sum over all computations
supporting a given observer moment will never complete in a finite
time, but I think that poses a problem for computing the measure
(already recognised as an open problem), rather than being an isue per
se with UDA 1-7.


OK.

Bruno





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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Russell Standish
On Tue, Apr 07, 2015 at 12:51:30PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 I think that Russell is right when he suggested that even by step
 seven your dovetailer has to be running in Platonia, not in a
 physical embodiment. This has to do with the fact that the
 dovetailer can never complete. It is running all possible programs
 and most of these will never complete. So you never complete and get
 back to running all the steps of early programs in the sequence. So
 you do not compute all possible instantiations of a conscious moment
 by any finite time in a physical universe. Or even in Platonia
 because the idea of a completed infinity of computations makes no
 sense.
 
 So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can
 ever be completely counterfactually correct, because there will
 always be related sequences of states that never get to be computed
 -- no completed infinities even in arithmetic.

Hi Bruce, that's not quite right. All computations eventually get
computed by the UD within a finite (but unbounded) number of
computational steps. Only in a non-robust ontology does this not happen.

Perhaps you could argue that the infinite sum over all computations
supporting a given observer moment will never complete in a finite
time, but I think that poses a problem for computing the measure
(already recognised as an open problem), rather than being an isue per
se with UDA 1-7.


-- 


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Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Bruce Kellett

Russell Standish wrote:

On Tue, Apr 07, 2015 at 12:51:30PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:


So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can
ever be completely counterfactually correct, because there will
always be related sequences of states that never get to be computed
-- no completed infinities even in arithmetic.


Hi Bruce, that's not quite right. All computations eventually get
computed by the UD within a finite (but unbounded) number of
computational steps. Only in a non-robust ontology does this not happen.


I think you need to unpack this a little. The dovetailer is running all 
possible programs. That is an infinite number of programs, much less an 
infinite number of computational steps. How can you say that there are 
only a finite number of steps? And I do not know what finite  but 
unbounded means in this context. It has meaning in closed universe 
models, but scarcely in arithmetic?




Perhaps you could argue that the infinite sum over all computations
supporting a given observer moment will never complete in a finite
time, but I think that poses a problem for computing the measure
(already recognised as an open problem), rather than being an isue per
se with UDA 1-7.


I have difficulty relating the number of computational steps to any 
physical time. This UD is running on arithmetic in Platonia. Each step 
takes no time, it is merely a relation between numbers. But if steps are 
numbered with successive integers, there is an infinite number of them 
and it cannot complete. It is not a matter of time, it is a matter of 
infinite integers:  after any number of steps there is still an infinite 
number left to complete.


The measure problem is insoluble without some further input into the 
model to restrict the possibilities.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-07 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 07 Apr 2015, at 04:51, Bruce Kellett wrote:


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The 
primary physical universe certainly exists,


Then computationalism is false. But what are your evidence for a 
*primary* physical universe. That is an axiom by Aristotle, and I 
believe animals are hard-wired to make some extrapolation here (for not 
doubting the prey and the predators), but there are no scientific 
evidence for a *primary* physical object.


There is no scientific evidence for a universal dovetailer either. And 
so far there is no evidence that it can produce anything like the 
physical universe we observe. Primary physicality is a lot simpler. 
Occam's razor to the fore



The UD works a bit on the first execution, then a bit on the second 
execution, and then comes back on the first, then the second, then the 
third, and then come back to the first, etc.


In that way, the UD executes all computations, including all those who 
never stop.


Yes, I had misread how that works. But who wrote the programs it 
executes? Who wrote the scheduler? Seems a lot simpler to have a primary 
physical universe. Then all you have to do is explore it.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Apr 2015, at 13:25, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 07:02, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Apr 2015, at 01:19, Russell Standish wrote:


Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.
You confuse description of computations, which exists in the  
movies obtained by filming the boolean graph, and the  
computations themselves, with involves semantic, that is a  
reality (be it the static standard model of Peano Arithmetic) or  
a physical reality.


Where is the dynamics necessary for computations themselves (as  
opposed to descriptions of computations) in the static standard  
model of Peano Arithmetic? I know where the dynamics reside in  
physical reality.
In the truth of the elementary relations which implements a  
relation between some universal Turing system (universal number)  
and the program that is implemented.


That 'truth' is static. The implementation of a program might be  
dynamic, but that is because it is implemented on a physical  
computer that has a physical clock cycle.



No, it is dynamic in virtue of a universal machine running it step by  
step. The physical clock cycle is used in physical implementation, but  
other can use computable injection in N.







I remind you that 'dynamic' means of or relating to force  
producing motion or active, potent, energetic, forceful;  
characterized by action or change. In other words, the opposite  
of static.
That is a physicalist account of dynamics. It could be the correct  
one---I don't know. But even if is the correct one, you have to  
agree that a diophantine approximation of, let us say the evolution  
of the milky way  + andromeda can exists (unless you presuppose at  
the start that the Milky Way + andromeda use non computable  
functions).


I don't know that is uses functions at all. Even the three-body  
problem in Newtonian gravitational dynamics does not have a general  
closed form solution.


Which is a symptom that its set of rational approximations might be  
Turing universal.
But the inverse is easier to prove: a Turing universal machine can  
emulate all rational approximations of the three-body problem.







It is not a 'function' in any standard sense. The system can only be  
approximated by perturbation theory, and the calculations are  
different for every set of starting values. There is not a  
'function' to be evaluated over some input domain.


?
What is the set of staring values, if not the domain of inputs?




So your type of dynamics would exist somewhere in the dynamics of  
some game-of-life pattern, and would appear in the running of a  
game-of-life


Running a game-of-life? Any dynamics there comes from the running  
-- the clock cycles of the computer on which it is run. It is not  
intrinsic.


I am sorry but you are wrong on this. Computations can be defined in  
the arithmetical language. It is not intrinsic, but it is intrinsic  
relatively to a universal number, or to the system assumed at the base  
(arithmetic, or combinators, etc).






pattern emulating the universal dovetailer, which run all game-of- 
life pattern. Then it would exist in the block-description of the  
dynamics (digital, discrete) of the universal game of life patter,  
that you can see as a static infinite cone of some sort. In that  
case, your acceptance of a block universe, and the way to recover  
the dynamics internally would work for that pattern.


No, it doesn't work like that. The block universe idea arises from  
special relativity theory -- the fact that Lorentz transformations  
alter the way in which space and time are interrelated. There is no  
universal 'time' parameter in that picture, only a local variable  
't' that depends on the frame of reference.


But that will occur for all emulation of evolving interacting set of  
universal machine. The UD is intensionally universal: sigma_1  
arithmetic emulate all computable processes, indeed, even with  
oracles. Different notion of times can be defined from inside, in a  
relative way. Lorentz invariance is a particular case, and it is not  
excluded nor directly relevant with the fact that arithmetic emulates  
all computable dynamics.
If you accept computationalism, you can understand that a machine  
emulated cannot feel the difference if the is emulate by a physical u,  
or an arithmetical u. Yet the point is that by observation they might  
find evidence that comp is false, because below its computationalist  
substitution level, the math has to be a sum on all computations (and  
in that sense QM confirms computationalism).




The useful dynamical concepts in relativity are the Lorentz  
invariants -- quantities that do not depend on the way you slice up  
separate time and space variables. Time is part of a coordinate  
system, and you do not have a space-time 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 13:25, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

To be more precise, I should explain you how computations and 
emulation is defined in arithmetic, in term of the truth of 
elementary number theoretical relations. A computation will exist 
through the fact that it is true that some numbers divide some other 
numbers, and other facts like that. On the contrary, a description of 
a computation will be a number from which we can extract the 
description of a sequence of states, but that is different from the 
states existence being the result of a set of true relation.


So you can use these terms in that way. But that does not make 
'computation' a dynamical concept.


It is not a physical time related concept. But computer, or universal 
number (or universal combinators) needs only a discrete static time: 
0, 1, 2, 3, ..


OK, but that is an ordering parameter and it does not make the 
computational dynamical rather than static.



There is no change or movement involved. Arithmetic is completely 
static, as are the relations between numbers.


Block universe are static too. It is the point of a relativity theory. 
Time and space comes from comparison between clock and meter, nothing 
can prevent the sigma_1 reality to emulates all those comparisons , and 
by assuming computationalism, of the conscious entities which make sense 
of the comparisons.


It is similar to the block universe view in that your internal ordering 
parameter is entirely static. But the analogy is not perfect for what 
you want to do with comp. The physical block universe is often referred 
to in terms of two separate points of view: the 'bird' view which is 
from the outside, from which (entirely metaphorical) view, the universe 
is static; and the 'frog' view from within, from which view the universe 
is dynamical. In this case the bird (block) view is completely 
equivalent to a recording of the experiences of the frog in real time. 
Because the time parameter is defined internally, the recording can be 
run as often as required by the bird, and the result (and conscious 
experiences of the frog) are identical every time.


The same thing would happen in the static view of the dovetailer with 
states ordered by the step number. The whole shebang would be no 
different from a recording of the same shebang -- in fact, it is a 
recording because it is static from the external view. The experience of 
time by the internal consciousness emulated is exactly the same for 
'reruns' of the same portion of the dovetailer's output by some external 
'bird' observer.


Now, as I understand it, you want to avoid this conclusion by appealing 
to the notion of counterfactual correctness. The particular sequence of 
states is not itself conscious because it is not counterfactually 
correct -- given a different environment, that sequence of states would 
give the same conscious experience, not some modified experience. It is 
just a recording, after all.


Your model then appeals to the idea of the infinite number of separate 
occasions that that same set of internal states occurs in the overall 
picture of the dovetailer, and you claim that, in some sense, the 
'actual' conscious experience is a 'sum' over these separate emulations, 
even though they be separated by many billions of computational steps of 
the dovetailer. I put words like 'actual' and 'sum' in scare quotes 
because I do not think these ideas make much sense.


You appeal to techniques like the Feynman sum over paths in QM to make 
sense of your model. But that analogy fails because the Feynman sum is 
merely a calculational technique -- it does not correspond to and actual 
sum of separate really existing things that nature somehow 'performs' to 
get a particle from A to B. It is a calculational heuristic, and like so 
much in quantum mechanics, reifying computational tricks leads to 
endless problems. For example, the Feynman diagrams as used in field 
theory are terms in a perturbation expansion, they do not have separate 
independent existence. It is only the sum that is physical, and that 
same result can be obtained by many other calculational techniques that 
never mention Feynman diagrams.


One problem that occurs to me is: who does this sum over dovetailer 
states? FPI would suggest that there is no such sum. The future of the 
'person' experiencing that conscious moment is indeterminate -- the 
person cannot predict the future in anything other than a probabilistic 
way. But that makes each conscious moment unique, and actually a static 
recording of itself -- just as in the block universe view of physics. 
Again, FPI of the dovetailer has nothing in common with indeterminacy in 
quantum mechanics. Mere external similarity does not imply equivalence.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 13:25, Bruce Kellett wrote:

You want a dynamic like in physics, a function from time to space, but 
in computer science, and to understand the problem here, the dynamics 
are given by function from N to mind states.


You need to give magical ability to a turing machine so that she can 
distinguish (by its consciousness, in a first person way) the difference 
between a physical emulation, and an arithmetical emulation. The 
physical will give rise to the right measure, but not by magic, only 
because the physical is run by the sum on all computations below its 
substitution level.


But all this is not needed to get the reversal in step seven. So I guess 
again that you are OK with step seven and see that if a primary physical 
universe exists and run the UD, then physics is reduced to arithmetic 
(seen from inside). Do you see that.


I understand what you are claiming, but I do not agree with it. The 
primary physical universe certainly exists, and it is not running your 
UD! I think we might notice if it were.


I think that Russell is right when he suggested that even by step seven 
your dovetailer has to be running in Platonia, not in a physical 
embodiment. This has to do with the fact that the dovetailer can never 
complete. It is running all possible programs and most of these will 
never complete. So you never complete and get back to running all the 
steps of early programs in the sequence. So you do not compute all 
possible instantiations of a conscious moment by any finite time in a 
physical universe. Or even in Platonia because the idea of a completed 
infinity of computations makes no sense.


So no conscious moment, even in with a dovetailer in Platonia, can ever 
be completely counterfactually correct, because there will always be 
related sequences of states that never get to be computed -- no 
completed infinities even in arithmetic.


Physics is not reduced to arithmetic seen from the inside because 
arithmetic is never completed by the dovetailer or anything else and 
there are no non-magical ways in which similar states that might give 
rise to ordered physical laws can ever be be related.


You only ever get out of a model like this what you put in. You have put 
in arithmetic, so that is what you get out. You will never get physics 
this way.


Bruce



With occam, a believer in comp can 
already stop here, and work on the measure problem.
But a phsysicalist can still conclude that there is a primary unique 
universe, and that it can't run the UD, nor any significant part.


The step 8 address this situation and shows precisely why invoking a 
primary physical universe makes it magical, with neuron needing 
prescience, and movie getting experiences, and indeed nothing getting 
all experiences.


It is good news, as it suggest we might understand the origin of the 
physical laws, from non physical things, the gluing properties of 
universal numbers' dreams.


Bruno








Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread LizR
On 6 April 2015 at 08:10, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/5/2015 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  If you mean something else by physical, I have no idea what you mean.


  It is what is studied by physics, mainly through empirical means: the
 measurable quantities in laboratories.

  Aristotle (well mainly its followers) assume that the physical reality
 is irreducible, so that we have to assume primitively physical objects,
 like atoms, particles, 3d spaces, or today, strings for example. It makes
 physics the fundamental science (physicalism).

  I was just saying that arithmetic is not a branch of physics, that
 numbers, sets, functions, are, by virtue of their definitions, not
 physical. More below.


 That's like saying electrons are not physical because they're defined by
 Dirac's equation.  Physical just means we can interact with it in our
 common, non-solipist world and reach intersubjective agreement about it.
 It's no more magic than supposing prime numbers exist because they're
 defined by axiom systems.


The difference is between physical and primitively physical - as I
would think Bruno knows?!

We all agree that the physical universe exists, the question of interest is
whether it's primitive, as opposed to being derived from something more
fundamental.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Apr 2015, at 07:02, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Apr 2015, at 01:19, Russell Standish wrote:


Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.
You confuse description of computations, which exists in the  
movies obtained by filming the boolean graph, and the  
computations themselves, with involves semantic, that is a reality  
(be it the static standard model of Peano Arithmetic) or a physical  
reality.


Where is the dynamics necessary for computations themselves (as  
opposed to descriptions of computations) in the static standard  
model of Peano Arithmetic? I know where the dynamics reside in  
physical reality.


In the truth of the elementary relations which implements a relation  
between some universal Turing system (universal number) and the  
program that is implemented.





I remind you that 'dynamic' means of or relating to force producing  
motion or active, potent, energetic, forceful; characterized by  
action or change. In other words, the opposite of static.


That is a physicalist account of dynamics. It could be the correct  
one---I don't know. But even if is the correct one, you have to agree  
that a diophantine approximation of, let us say the evolution of the  
milky way  + andromeda can exists (unless you presuppose at the start  
that the Milky Way + andromeda use non computable functions). So your  
type of dynamics would exist somewhere in the dynamics of some game-of- 
life pattern, and would appear in the running of a game-of-life  
pattern emulating the universal dovetailer, which run all game-of-life  
pattern. Then it would exist in the block-description of the dynamics  
(digital, discrete) of the universal game of life patter, that you can  
see as a static infinite cone of some sort. In that case, your  
acceptance of a block universe, and the way to recover the dynamics  
internally would work for that pattern.


The FPI makes this a bit more complex, because from the point of view  
of the self-aware entities emulated in the universal pattern, their  
real future is not really defined by some location in the pattern,  
but from all their infinitely many locations in that pattern.


To be more precise, I should explain you how computations and  
emulation is defined in arithmetic, in term of the truth of  
elementary number theoretical relations. A computation will exist  
through the fact that it is true that some numbers divide some other  
numbers, and other facts like that. On the contrary, a description of  
a computation will be a number from which we can extract the  
description of a sequence of states, but that is different from the  
states existence being the result of a set of true relation.


It is very much like the difference between the Gödel number of the  
sentence 3 divides 6, and the true fact that the number 3 divides 6.  
The first one is a number, and needs some encoding; the second is a  
truth involving the number 3 and 6, and which does not needs any  
encoding to be true (only to be communicated).


Bruno






Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-06 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Apr 2015, at 07:02, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Apr 2015, at 01:19, Russell Standish wrote:


Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.
You confuse description of computations, which exists in the movies 
obtained by filming the boolean graph, and the computations 
themselves, with involves semantic, that is a reality (be it the 
static standard model of Peano Arithmetic) or a physical reality.


Where is the dynamics necessary for computations themselves (as 
opposed to descriptions of computations) in the static standard model 
of Peano Arithmetic? I know where the dynamics reside in physical 
reality.


In the truth of the elementary relations which implements a relation 
between some universal Turing system (universal number) and the program 
that is implemented.


That 'truth' is static. The implementation of a program might be 
dynamic, but that is because it is implemented on a physical computer 
that has a physical clock cycle.


I remind you that 'dynamic' means of or relating to force producing 
motion or active, potent, energetic, forceful; characterized by 
action or change. In other words, the opposite of static.


That is a physicalist account of dynamics. It could be the correct 
one---I don't know. But even if is the correct one, you have to agree 
that a diophantine approximation of, let us say the evolution of the 
milky way  + andromeda can exists (unless you presuppose at the start 
that the Milky Way + andromeda use non computable functions).


I don't know that is uses functions at all. Even the three-body problem 
in Newtonian gravitational dynamics does not have a general closed form 
solution. It is not a 'function' in any standard sense. The system can 
only be approximated by perturbation theory, and the calculations are 
different for every set of starting values. There is not a 'function' to 
be evaluated over some input domain.


So your 
type of dynamics would exist somewhere in the dynamics of some 
game-of-life pattern, and would appear in the running of a game-of-life


Running a game-of-life? Any dynamics there comes from the running -- 
the clock cycles of the computer on which it is run. It is not intrinsic.


pattern emulating the universal dovetailer, which run all game-of-life 
pattern. Then it would exist in the block-description of the dynamics 
(digital, discrete) of the universal game of life patter, that you can 
see as a static infinite cone of some sort. In that case, your 
acceptance of a block universe, and the way to recover the dynamics 
internally would work for that pattern.


No, it doesn't work like that. The block universe idea arises from 
special relativity theory -- the fact that Lorentz transformations alter 
the way in which space and time are interrelated. There is no universal 
'time' parameter in that picture, only a local variable 't' that depends 
on the frame of reference. The useful dynamical concepts in relativity 
are the Lorentz invariants -- quantities that do not depend on the way 
you slice up separate time and space variables. Time is part of a 
coordinate system, and you do not have a space-time model that can be 
spanned by a coordinate system.


The FPI makes this a bit more complex, because from the point of view of 
the self-aware entities emulated in the universal pattern, their real 
future is not really defined by some location in the pattern, but from 
all their infinitely many locations in that pattern.


That is, again, an entirely static concept. You have not introduced any 
time parameter.



To be more precise, I should explain you how computations and 
emulation is defined in arithmetic, in term of the truth of elementary 
number theoretical relations. A computation will exist through the fact 
that it is true that some numbers divide some other numbers, and other 
facts like that. On the contrary, a description of a computation will be 
a number from which we can extract the description of a sequence of 
states, but that is different from the states existence being the result 
of a set of true relation.


So you can use these terms in that way. But that does not make 
'computation' a dynamical concept. There is no change or movement 
involved. Arithmetic is completely static, as are the relations between 
numbers.



It is very much like the difference between the Gödel number of the 
sentence 3 divides 6, and the true fact that the number 3 divides 6. 
The first one is a number, and needs some encoding; the second is a 
truth involving the number 3 and 6, and which does not needs any 
encoding to be true (only to be communicated).


'Communicated'? A transition from a state of not knowing to a state of 
knowing? But that is a temporal concept, and you have no time variable 
in your model. The truth that 6 is divisible by 3 does not 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-05 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Apr 2015, at 01:19, Russell Standish wrote:


Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.


You confuse description of computations, which exists in the movies 
obtained by filming the boolean graph, and the computations themselves, 
with involves semantic, that is a reality (be it the static standard 
model of Peano Arithmetic) or a physical reality.


Where is the dynamics necessary for computations themselves (as opposed 
to descriptions of computations) in the static standard model of Peano 
Arithmetic? I know where the dynamics reside in physical reality.


I remind you that 'dynamic' means of or relating to force producing 
motion or active, potent, energetic, forceful; characterized by action 
or change. In other words, the opposite of static.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Apr 2015, at 01:19, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sat, Apr 04, 2015 at 03:35:59PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 04 Apr 2015, at 01:29, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Apr 03, 2015 at 06:33:52PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 03 Apr 2015, at 00:44, Russell Standish wrote:



The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
argument if you assume that ontological reality


I guess you mean here: physical ontological reality (assuming it
exists).




If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia),


You really mean: robust physical ontology.


No, because the label physical should refer to what is phenomenal,
otherwise it doesn't have any meaning.


?
But then it seems you assume what we want to prove.


Not at all. After quite some to-and-fro with you about what physical
actually means, we settled on phenomena (things like matter, forces
and the like).



As opposed to arithmetic. You need MGA to make things like matter,  
forces, into a phenomenology. For Aristotelian matter is ontological.  
Phenomenological is the opposite to ontological. If physics is  
(purely) phenomenological, then the reversal is done.









I have introduced the term robust only for the physical universe
(be it ontological or phenomenological). It is just what makes an
entire (never ending) physical universal dovetailing possible.



That does not make sense. Already by the time you have introduced the
term, you have shown that a robust ontology (one capable of running
the UD) cannot be physical (ie the phenomena).


?







The Church Thesis (true by
assumption) shows that what is phenomenal cannot be ontological (or
noumenal, to borrow Kant's term), when the ontology is robust.  
That is

pretty much the whole point of UDA1-7.


What does it mean than an ontology is robust? UD* is robust in
arithmetic by definition.



Sure. And if arithmetic is your ontology, your ontology is robust.


The point of UDA1-7 is only that if we assume the physical universe
run a UD, then physics is a branch of arithmetic/computer science.



OK if your replace physical with ontology









Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.



By adding the inert Klara? But then the physical role of the inert
Klara to produce consciousness to the movie is not Turing emulable,
and you stop assuming computationalism.


But in a robust ontology, the Klaras are no longer inert. They
cannot be.


I don't know what is a robust ontology. It looks that you mean by
this an everything ontology, or a many-world or many states or many
computations ontology.


Sure.


But in that case the Klara are still inert in the relevant branch
where we do the reasoning. So I am not sure to see the relevance of
the remark here.



We cannot seperate the branches in this way.








I can understand the role of Klara and counterfactual correctness
for the computation and behavior being correct hen change occur,  
but

how could they change the consciousness by being non present when
not needed?



If they are not needed, then some non-counterfactually correct
recordings can be conscious.


That is right, but that is the path to the reductio ad absurdum.



I don't have a strong opinion on this, as
the relevant recordings will be really very complex, but do suspect,
along with Brent, that full embodiment in an environment is needed,
along with counterfactual correctness.


?
Then they are no more recordings, but computation.



Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.


You confuse description of computations, which exists in the movies  
obtained by filming the boolean graph, and the computations  
themselves, with involves semantic, that is a reality (be it the  
static standard model of Peano Arithmetic) or a physical reality.












As I point out in my paper, that, physical supervenience, and the
MGA entails
a robust ontology (ie something like the Multiverse to exist).


You mean a primitively physical multiverse?
That would already be a quite non trivial result, but I don't see
how you get it.


Not where physical=phenomenal. UDA7 already proves that a robust
ontology cannot be physical.

If you mean something else by physical, I have no idea what you mean.


It is what is studied by physics, mainly through empirical means: the  
measurable quantities in laboratories.


Aristotle (well mainly its followers) assume that the physical reality  
is irreducible, so that we have to assume primitively physical  
objects, like atoms, particles, 3d spaces, or today, strings for  
example. It makes physics the fundamental science (physicalism).


I was just saying that arithmetic is not a branch of physics, that  
numbers, sets, functions, are, by virtue of their definitions, not  
physical. More below.





IIRC, the discussion went something 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-05 Thread meekerdb

On 4/5/2015 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

If you mean something else by physical, I have no idea what you mean.


It is what is studied by physics, mainly through empirical means: the measurable 
quantities in laboratories.


Aristotle (well mainly its followers) assume that the physical reality is irreducible, 
so that we have to assume primitively physical objects, like atoms, particles, 3d 
spaces, or today, strings for example. It makes physics the fundamental science 
(physicalism).


I was just saying that arithmetic is not a branch of physics, that numbers, sets, 
functions, are, by virtue of their definitions, not physical. More below.


That's like saying electrons are not physical because they're defined by Dirac's 
equation.  Physical just means we can interact with it in our common, non-solipist world 
and reach intersubjective agreement about it.  It's no more magic than supposing prime 
numbers exist because they're defined by axiom systems.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Apr 2015, at 22:10, meekerdb wrote:


On 4/5/2015 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
If you mean something else by physical, I have no idea what you  
mean.


It is what is studied by physics, mainly through empirical means:  
the measurable quantities in laboratories.


Aristotle (well mainly its followers) assume that the physical  
reality is irreducible, so that we have to assume 
primitively physical objects, like atoms, particles, 3d spaces, or  
today, strings for example. It makes physics the fundamental  
science (physicalism).


I was just saying that arithmetic is not a branch of physics, that  
numbers, sets, functions, are, by virtue of their 
definitions, not physical. More below.


That's like saying electrons are not physical because they're  
defined by Dirac's equation.


The point is that if computationalism is correct and if electron are  
physical, ostensively observable, you have to justify their  
observability from the global FPI or the logic of stable prediction  
(given by []p  t with p sigma_1).





Physical just means we can interact with it in our common, non- 
solipist world and reach intersubjective agreement about it.


No problem, but we need to explain this, without invoking some magical  
matter selecting magically a computations among others, that is  
without endowing universal machine with an non Turing emulable ability  
to distinguish that magic physicalness from the ocean of computations  
provided by arithmetic (already assumed by physicists).



It's no more magic than supposing prime numbers exist because  
they're defined by axiom systems.


Then there is a flaw in the UDA, ... or computationalism is false, and  
some other universal being is at play, with non Turing emulable  
power. Calling it Matter or God only escapes the question without  
answering. Or, we are in a perverse simulation which try to fail us  
(which I doubt, unless evidences is found like a discrepancy between  
nature and the logic of the machine-observable. But up to now, it  
fits. So the matter move and the abandon of comp would be premature.  
It is the simplest theory for both consciousness, and apparently matter.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-04 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Saturday, April 4, 2015, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
javascript:_e(%7B%7D,'cvml','meeke...@verizon.net'); wrote:

  On 4/3/2015 2:38 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




 On 4 Apr 2015, at 7:32 am, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 4/2/2015 4:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
 world (although going from the general case of what I call
 functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
 you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
 on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
 it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
 change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
 definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.


 I don't understand how that applies to someone who, for example, is
 red-green colorblind.  Aren't they partial-zombies by your definition?
 They may come to realize that they don't distinguish the full spectrum,
 just as we realize we don't see infrared.  Supppose the colorblind person
 used to see colors but lost the ability (as my mother did after cataract
 surgery)?  She realized it by noticing that things that used to be colorful
 weren't anymore.  But like the person born colorblind, she didn't directly
 experience a qualia of being colorblind.


 She noticed a difference and there was also an objective change in her
 ability to discriminate between a colours. A partial zombie would not
 notice a difference and there would be no test that could find a difference.


 But what does it mean to say she noticed a difference?  Was the noticing
 a perception of a difference, or was it just remembering that grass and
 roses aren't named by the same color.  The latter could be noticed by
 someone who had never had color vision (and  was in fact well known to my
 father who was red-green colorblind all his life).  If the noticing was
 just a fact learned in the way anyone might learn a 3p fact, then I think
 that would still leave my mother a partial zombie by your definition.


If you can think of a case where there could be a change that would not be
noticed then that's not the example to use. We lose neurons every day and
perhaps there is a subtle change in our perceptions as a result, but nobody
notices. The example to use in the thought experiment is where the change
in qualia would be large enough that the subject would definitely notice.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Apr 2015, at 01:26, Bruce Kellett wrote:


meekerdb wrote:

On 4/2/2015 8:55 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The only reason that the dovetailer might have to worry about time  
limitations is if it is actually a physical computer. Physical  
computers have to contend with such things as physical laws, the  
finite speed of light, the properties of materials, the generation  
of heat (entropy) and the need to remove that heat to a safe  
distance before everything melts down. If your computer is not a  
physical device, then it has none of these limitations, and there  
is no such concept available as the 'speed' of the computation,  
the 'time for each step', or anything of this sort. From our  
external concrete perspective, the whole thing is instantaneous,  
or it enters statis at some point and gets nowhere. For a non- 
physical computer these things are equivalent.


So without a physical computer you have no dynamics. A mere  
ordering of states is still a static thing, and the dovetailer  
does nothing useful that could not more easily be done by  
referring to a normal number.
Why would it not have the same dynamics as in any Platonia version  
of physics, e.g. a block universe simulated in a digital computer?  
The states don't even have to be computed in their inherent time  
order.


Bruno doesn't argue for this -- as far as I can see he moves from a  
physical computer straight into Platonia,


? No, I often use the block universe to illustrate the similarity  
here. and I don't move straight into Platonia, I use the MGA, and  
eventually the math.





without any attempt at a justification for the move.


You have not answer the question: do you agree that at step 7, and  
thus in presence of primitive physical universe running a universal  
dovetailer,  physics is reduce to a mathematical problem.





Unfortunately for his case, if you start with a physical computer,  
you have to start with a set of physical laws and that will run this  
machine composed of physical matter in an orderly manner. It cannot  
bootstrap itself -- run the machine and this itself generates the  
laws that enable the machine to run? Argue the self-referential  
bootstrap, don't just ignore the problem.


To avoid such problem, I divided the reasoning in smaller step. I  
can't comment this without knowing if youe have seen the reversal in  
step seven. It looks you do. So what you say amount to say that you  
believe there is something wrong in the MGA.

OK, so what is wrong?





But a more significant point, it seems to me, is that time in the  
block universe works by taking some subsystem and using it as a clock.


But that can be done in the simulation of the Milky Way, or of any  
computable solution of some physical laws. And also, in  
platonia (sigma_1 arithmetical truth), you have a universal clock:  
the steps of the UD itself.




But the clock function is instantiated by showing correlations  
between the regular dynamics of the clock and the dynamics of the  
rest of the universe. In other words, the universe has to run  
according to regular dynamical laws that apply equally to the clock  
subsystem and to the rest. Without these regular correlations you  
have no clock, and no time.


Digitalness entails the existence of a universal time, given by the  
ordering of the steps of the UD, which can be defined in arithmetic.  
Of course, that universal time has only quite indirect relations with  
possible physical time, which emerge from inside, in the first person  
view of the entities emulated by the UD. Your argument is not valid.






Barbour's solution is rather different, and more ingenious, because  
he doesn't actually recreate physical time or dynamics. He simply  
connects otherwise unrelated slices by his 'time capsules'. One can  
argue for ever whether this actually works, but it is an ingenious  
possibility.


The computer's memories of the entities emulated by the UD  
(equivalently sigma_1 arithmetic) plays the role of time capsule, and  
can be defined formally in arithmetic.






The problem I see is that Bruno has not made any attempt to argue  
for any sensible notion of time when he moves into Platonia.


I submit a problem for the computationalist.

Now you are unfair, because the math part shows the solution (and show  
it empirically testable). Both a physical time and a subjective time  
emergence is explained with all details.


The fact that you say that I made no attempt is proof that you have  
not yet begin to study the reasoning, the problem and the illustration  
of testable solution.





He can refer to relations among numbers in arithmetic as  
'computations', but that is just a play with words -- there is still  
no dynamics involved.


There is, and as Brent argue correctly, it is similar to any block  
universe theory, except that I show the block-reality is bigger,  
immaterial, and might contain white rabbits, and then I show why those  
white rabbits 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Apr 2015, at 01:29, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Apr 03, 2015 at 06:33:52PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 03 Apr 2015, at 00:44, Russell Standish wrote:



The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
argument if you assume that ontological reality


I guess you mean here: physical ontological reality (assuming it
exists).




If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia),


You really mean: robust physical ontology.


No, because the label physical should refer to what is phenomenal,
otherwise it doesn't have any meaning.


?
But then it seems you assume what we want to prove.

I have introduced the term robust only for the physical universe (be  
it ontological or phenomenological). It is just what makes an entire  
(never ending) physical universal dovetailing possible.





The Church Thesis (true by
assumption) shows that what is phenomenal cannot be ontological (or
noumenal, to borrow Kant's term), when the ontology is robust. That is
pretty much the whole point of UDA1-7.


What does it mean than an ontology is robust? UD* is robust in  
arithmetic by definition.


The point of UDA1-7 is only that if we assume the physical universe  
run a UD, then physics is a branch of arithmetic/computer science.









Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.



By adding the inert Klara? But then the physical role of the inert
Klara to produce consciousness to the movie is not Turing emulable,
and you stop assuming computationalism.


But in a robust ontology, the Klaras are no longer inert. They  
cannot be.


I don't know what is a robust ontology. It looks that you mean by this  
an everything ontology, or a many-world or many states or many  
computations ontology.
But in that case the Klara are still inert in the relevant branch  
where we do the reasoning. So I am not sure to see the relevance of  
the remark here.








I can understand the role of Klara and counterfactual correctness
for the computation and behavior being correct hen change occur, but
how could they change the consciousness by being non present when
not needed?



If they are not needed, then some non-counterfactually correct
recordings can be conscious.


That is right, but that is the path to the reductio ad absurdum.



I don't have a strong opinion on this, as
the relevant recordings will be really very complex, but do suspect,
along with Brent, that full embodiment in an environment is needed,
along with counterfactual correctness.


?
Then they are no more recordings, but computation.





As I point out in my paper, that, physical supervenience, and the  
MGA entails

a robust ontology (ie something like the Multiverse to exist).


You mean a primitively physical multiverse?
That would already be a quite non trivial result, but I don't see how  
you get it.
That would be weird because it would prove that if can prove the  
existence of primitive matter in arithmetic. I am a bit confused.


Cheers,

Bruno




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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-04 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Apr 04, 2015 at 03:35:59PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 04 Apr 2015, at 01:29, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 On Fri, Apr 03, 2015 at 06:33:52PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 03 Apr 2015, at 00:44, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 
 The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
 argument if you assume that ontological reality
 
 I guess you mean here: physical ontological reality (assuming it
 exists).
 
 
 
 If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia),
 
 You really mean: robust physical ontology.
 
 No, because the label physical should refer to what is phenomenal,
 otherwise it doesn't have any meaning.
 
 ?
 But then it seems you assume what we want to prove.

Not at all. After quite some to-and-fro with you about what physical
actually means, we settled on phenomena (things like matter, forces
and the like).

 
 I have introduced the term robust only for the physical universe
 (be it ontological or phenomenological). It is just what makes an
 entire (never ending) physical universal dovetailing possible.
 

That does not make sense. Already by the time you have introduced the
term, you have shown that a robust ontology (one capable of running
the UD) cannot be physical (ie the phenomena).

 
 
 The Church Thesis (true by
 assumption) shows that what is phenomenal cannot be ontological (or
 noumenal, to borrow Kant's term), when the ontology is robust. That is
 pretty much the whole point of UDA1-7.
 
 What does it mean than an ontology is robust? UD* is robust in
 arithmetic by definition.
 

Sure. And if arithmetic is your ontology, your ontology is robust.

 The point of UDA1-7 is only that if we assume the physical universe
 run a UD, then physics is a branch of arithmetic/computer science.
 

OK if your replace physical with ontology

 
 
 
 
 Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
 recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.
 
 
 By adding the inert Klara? But then the physical role of the inert
 Klara to produce consciousness to the movie is not Turing emulable,
 and you stop assuming computationalism.
 
 But in a robust ontology, the Klaras are no longer inert. They
 cannot be.
 
 I don't know what is a robust ontology. It looks that you mean by
 this an everything ontology, or a many-world or many states or many
 computations ontology.

Sure.

 But in that case the Klara are still inert in the relevant branch
 where we do the reasoning. So I am not sure to see the relevance of
 the remark here.
 

We cannot seperate the branches in this way.

 
 
 
 
 I can understand the role of Klara and counterfactual correctness
 for the computation and behavior being correct hen change occur, but
 how could they change the consciousness by being non present when
 not needed?
 
 
 If they are not needed, then some non-counterfactually correct
 recordings can be conscious.
 
 That is right, but that is the path to the reductio ad absurdum.
 
 
 I don't have a strong opinion on this, as
 the relevant recordings will be really very complex, but do suspect,
 along with Brent, that full embodiment in an environment is needed,
 along with counterfactual correctness.
 
 ?
 Then they are no more recordings, but computation.
 

Then what is your definition of a recording? In my eyes, UD* is a
recording, particularly a finite portion of it, such as the first
10,000 steps of the first 10,000 programs.

 
 
 
 As I point out in my paper, that, physical supervenience, and the
 MGA entails
 a robust ontology (ie something like the Multiverse to exist).
 
 You mean a primitively physical multiverse?
 That would already be a quite non trivial result, but I don't see
 how you get it.

Not where physical=phenomenal. UDA7 already proves that a robust
ontology cannot be physical.

If you mean something else by physical, I have no idea what you mean.

IIRC, the discussion went something like this:

Q: What does 'primitively physical' mean?

A: The ontology on which you run the UD

Q: Oh, so you mean numbers?

A: No, number are not physical

Q: Then what?

A: Things like protons and electrons, magnetic force and so on

Q: Oh so like phenomenal things, things we can directly measure?

A: Yes.

Q: Then if we assume the ontology is rich enough to be able to run
the UD, the Church-Turing thesis means that any such ontology will
deliver identical phenomenal outcomes, so there is no way of
identifying the ontology with what is physical.

A: OK. Now let us assume that the 'primitive physical ontology' is
not-robust, ie incapable of running a UD

Q: Did you mean ontology or the physical?

A: Could be both, because the ontological limitations introduced by being
non-robust can affect the phenomenal, hence are phenomena in
themselves, hence physical.

Q: OK.



 That would be weird because it would prove that if can prove the
 existence of primitive matter in arithmetic. I am a bit confused.
 

How so? I don't follow you there.

 Cheers,
 
 Bruno
 
 
 
 Cheers
 -- 
 
 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread meekerdb

On 4/2/2015 4:33 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 2 April 2015 at 08:30, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

On 4/1/2015 12:30 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not true
then it would be possible to make partial zombies.



I think that's the inference we're arguing.  It's certainly not obvious to
me.

It's not obvious that comp can be proved or it's not obvious that if
comp were false it would be possible to make partial zombies?


If partial zombies are possible then there would be no difference between
you having qualia or lacking qualia,



There would be no 3p observable difference in other people.  Just showing
that a partial zombie is possible doesn't show that you are one.

A partial zombie would not only show no 3p difference, it would also
show no 1p difference. There is no conceptual problem with that in a
zombie, but there is in a partial zombie, which by definition has
normal feelings and cognition except for its zombified aspect. A
person who is otherwise normal immediately knows if he loses a
significant aspect of his consciousness, such as his vision or his
ability to understand language. Sometimes if neurological damage is
severe enough it can damage cognitive ability and the subject develops
the delusional belief, anosognosia, that he is normal despite all
evidence to the contrary, but that does not invalidate the argument.


which is equivalent to saying consciousness does not exist;



I think it is equivalent to the idea that some (humans) have souls and some
(animals) don't.  I don't believe that, but it's logically possible.

I think you are not making the distinction between a zombie and a
partial zombie. A zombie is not obviously absurd, a partial zombie is.

Suppose the were a race of people who experienced the qualia of liver function.  That 
doesn't seem absurd to me.  So neither does it seem absurd that I'm a partial zombie 
relative them.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 3 April 2015 at 17:30, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Suppose the were a race of people who experienced the qualia of liver
 function.  That doesn't seem absurd to me.  So neither does it seem absurd
 that I'm a partial zombie relative them.

What is absurd is that you have qualia, lose them, but there is no
subjective or objective evidence that they have gone. What sense could
be given to the word qualia in that case?


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Apr 2015, at 00:44, Russell Standish wrote:


On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 05:10:37PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Why are the limitations due to the size and/or age of our present
universe relevant if the computation is carried out in Platonia --
on a non-physical UTM?

If the computations are carried out on a real physical UTM then
consciousness supervenes on the physical universe after all!



The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
argument if you assume that ontological reality


I guess you mean here: physical ontological reality (assuming it  
exists).





is less than
Platonia.


You mean, does not contain a concrete universal dovetailing.  
Platonia might still be bigger than the universal dovetailing. The  
universal dovetailing is sigma_1 complete, but not sigma_2 complete, ...
Usually, I think of platonia as to be the entire arithmetical truth,  
which is pi_i and sigma_i complete for all i.
Ontologicall, we can limit ourselves to sigma_1 complete set. It is  
the epistemology, physics, and theology, which get much bigger, but  
they emerge phenomenologically from the sigmz_-truth seen from inside.






In such a non-robust universe setting, physical limits are
quite relevant.


Like Sen Carroll illustrated. Too much Boltzman brain, or a too much  
big part of the Universal Dovetailing, and prediction needs to take  
them into account. OK.





If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia),


You really mean: robust physical ontology.



then the MGA is
not needed, the first 7 steps of the UDA suffice for Bruno's
point.


If robust enough to make all Boltzmann brain, which is equivalent with  
the universal dovetailing, except that it is unclear if they have the  
right redundancies. No problem with comp, because the redundancies is  
imposed by the math.





Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.



By adding the inert Klara? But then the physical role of the inert  
Klara to produce consciousness to the movie is not Turing emulable,  
and you stop assuming computationalism.


I can understand the role of Klara and counterfactual correctness for  
the computation and behavior being correct hen change occur, but how  
could they change the consciousness by being non present when not  
needed?


Bruno






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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Terren Suydam
In that case though you would be liver blind and easily distinguished
from people who could talk about what it's like for their liver to produce
the sensations it does.

I'm colorblind - but that doesn't make me a partial zombie with regard to
seeing hues of red. It's easy to tell the difference between me and someone
with full color vision.

On Fri, Apr 3, 2015 at 2:30 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 4/2/2015 4:33 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 On 2 April 2015 at 08:30, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
 meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 4/1/2015 12:30 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

   I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not 
 true then it would be possible to make partial zombies.

   I think that's the inference we're arguing.  It's certainly not obvious 
 to me.

  It's not obvious that comp can be proved or it's not obvious that if
 comp were false it would be possible to make partial zombies?


   If partial zombies are possible then there would be no difference 
 between you having qualia or lacking qualia,

   There would be no 3p observable difference in other people.  Just 
 showing that a partial zombie is possible doesn't show that you are one.

  A partial zombie would not only show no 3p difference, it would also
 show no 1p difference. There is no conceptual problem with that in a
 zombie, but there is in a partial zombie, which by definition has
 normal feelings and cognition except for its zombified aspect. A
 person who is otherwise normal immediately knows if he loses a
 significant aspect of his consciousness, such as his vision or his
 ability to understand language. Sometimes if neurological damage is
 severe enough it can damage cognitive ability and the subject develops
 the delusional belief, anosognosia, that he is normal despite all
 evidence to the contrary, but that does not invalidate the argument.


   which is equivalent to saying consciousness does not exist;

   I think it is equivalent to the idea that some (humans) have souls and 
 some (animals) don't.  I don't believe that, but it's logically possible.

  I think you are not making the distinction between a zombie and a
 partial zombie. A zombie is not obviously absurd, a partial zombie is.


  Suppose the were a race of people who experienced the qualia of liver
 function.  That doesn't seem absurd to me.  So neither does it seem absurd
 that I'm a partial zombie relative them.

 Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Apr 2015, at 01:18, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


On 3 April 2015 at 01:06, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


However, what you call my fuctionalism is a superset
of comp, and it may still be possible to replace part of the brain
with a device incorporating a hypercomputer, or even a magical  
device

animated by God, and preserve consciousness.



... making your functionalism trivial, if you excuse the  
straightness.


It is not trivial because it makes this (if I may say so) rather
profound claim: that it is impossible even for God to make a device
that reproduces the observable function of the brain without also
reproducing any associated consciousness. Roger Penrose proposes that
the brain utilises non-computable physics and that therefore it is not
possible to reproduce either the observable function of the brain or
its consciousness using a digital computer.


Yes, he defends non-comp (even non-quantum-comp, unlike Hamerov).




This is logically
consistent,


OK, but this shows you agree that we can't prove comp. Only the  
generalisation your-functionalism.





even if there is no actual evidence for it. John Searle,
on the other hand, believes that it is possible to reproduce the
observable function of the brain but that this would not necessarily
reproduce consciousness.


Yes, it is another way to disbelieve in comp: believing in zombie.





Given that consciousness actually exists,
which entails that there is a difference between being conscious and
not being conscious, this is not logically consistent because it would
lead to partial zombies.


Almost OK. What about someone who say that as long as 1/4 of its  
biological brain is organic he is fully conscious, but once more that  
3/4 of the brain is digital, then it becomes a total zombie. In that  
case: no partial zombie.
(just try to find a logical loophole ..., don't mind to much, I do  
agree with Chalmers' fading qualia point).







It is my contention that
the only requirement is that this device replicates the I/O  
behaviour

of the part of the brain that it replaces, and any associated
consciousness will follow necessarily.



OK.

I think you get close to prove the half of comp yes doctor, as  
everybody
agrees that we cannot prove Church thesis. (which does not mean we  
cannot

give very powerful evidences for it).

Then the proof of yes doctor use the fact that partial zombiness  
makes no
sense, but I think that anosognosia can be used, notably if we  
believe in
things like a consciousness volume (on which the anosognosia  
would bear

on).


I don't see how that could make sense. It is sufficient to consider
not special cases where the change is small or memory and cognition
are deficient, but a general case where the change in consciousness is
extreme and the person's cognition is intact. If you claim that it is
possible to radically change the consciousness volume without
someone noticing then I think that is tantamount to claiming that
consciousness does not exist.


I agree.




The point is logical. Like in MGA, once we argue on reality, we can  
only
present evidences, no proofs. The LHC has not prove the existence  
of the
Higgs boson, nor does Mars Rover and its image prove the existence  
of Mars,
or Apollo 9 the existence of the moon. They just give strong  
evidence.


It would be on that strong sense of proof that my critics would  
bear on. A

bit like Russell's critics on the MGA.


I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
world (although going from the general case of what I call
functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.


You make your point. For some reason, I have still a little doubt, but  
I might need to just think a bit more. Some of my neurons make strike  
because they want me sleeping a bit more.


My point is that we cannot prove comp, but I agree that even God  
cannot refute your-functionalism.
A perfect zombie does not make sense, but a non-comp person can of  
course decide that some or other person are zombie or have no soul,  
but then it is the usual insult of fear of the other. We might also  
get evidence against comp, like never succeeding in making an  
artificial brain. That could mean not that comp is false, but that the  
level might be low. In that case the personal with artificial brains  
would notice the difference, and some output would be different.


Bruno






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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Apr 2015, at 05:55, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 15:04, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 04:08, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Emulation is a dynamical process in time. I wonder where you get  
a time variable for your UTM.
By a variable on the computational steps. It has nothing to do  
with a physical time a priori.


What variable? A simple numbering of steps? But that will not  
work, or at least, you have hidden an assumption of an external  
time in your notation.
The external time is given by the universal machine running the  
computation. It can be the basic level (elementary arithmetic, or  
the universal dovetailer), or it can be some other universal layer,  
running on some other universal layer, running on some other   
running on the basic level.
At the basic level, we have the block mindscape, like the UD* (the  
infinite cone of all computations).


This does not do the work you require of it. See below.



At the end of step 27, move to step 28. That contains an  
implicit notion of time -- 'ending' and 'moving' are temporal  
concepts. I do not see that you can remove all traces of the idea  
of an external temporal parameter. Otherwise the machine could  
just halt arbitrarily at some point and never know that it had  
halted.


I think you ned to flesh your ideas here out a great deal more.
Well, this is a forum, and I explain things already explained with  
all details in much longer text (which sometime does not help,  
because busy people tend to skip even more the long texts nowadays).
Let me try to help a bit though. Fix some universal programming  
language, like Fortran, say. Enumerate all programs computing  
function with 1 argument,  p_0, p_1, p_2, 
Let us denote by [p_i(j)^k] the kième step of the execution of the  
ième program on argument j, by the universal dovetailer (which  
dovetails then on all such [p_i(j)^k] .
Then we can define, indeed already in Robinson arithmetic, a  
computation by a sequence of such steps, when i and j are fixed. So  
a computation is given by the sequence

[p_456(666)^0]
[p_456(666)^1]
[p_456(666)^2]
[p_456(666)^3]
[p_456(666)^4]
etc.
This sequence is a subsequence of the general universal  
dovetailing, which dovetails on all [p_i(j)^k].
It is a computation, only in virtue of the universal dovetailing,  
and the universal dovetailing can be defined in arithmetic. I can  
translate the proposition the UD access to [p_345(898786)^89]  
entirely in term of arithmetic, using only the notion of addition,  
multiplication, successor (of natural numbers) and 0, and predicate  
logic.
The only external time used is the ordering of the natural number,  
which is easily translated in arithmetic: x  y means Ez(x + z) = y).

OK?


I got this much from reading your paper and other things you have  
said. But this, at best, provides and ordering (indexing if you like)


Ordering is good, for the step (here k) of the computations. Indexing  
is usually used for the enumeration of the p_i.





on the computational steps. It does not provide a time parameter.


I agree.



In fact, it is entirely static, and you get no more than some  
ordering imposed on sequences that can be found in any normal number.


you get the proof that the relations between numbers emulate some  
computation, and the emulation comes from the trueness of this, (be  
it realized in a universe, or in the arithmletical reality). The  
emulation does not of the syntactical description of the computations,  
which we need only to refer to those relation., but which alone in the  
counting algorithm does not emulate any computations (in the precise  
technical sense of emulate).


The real numbets are even more full of such description, yet that  
can't emulate a universal Turing machine. Diophantine polynomials on  
the reals are not Turing universal, yet in the integers, and the  
natural numbers they are.





Let me be more specific in my criticism.

In step 7 of your argument you introduce the dovetailer. But you  
then say Suppose now, for the sake of argument, that our concrete  
and 'physical' universe is a sufficiently robust expanding universe  
so that a 'concrete' UD can run forever... Why do you need infinite  
time in an expanding universe to run the dovetailer if it is not a  
physical machine?


?

The 'concrete' UD is a physical UD.

By the way, I did it in 1991. I implement the UD in Lisp, and let it  
run during two weeks. In step 7, I add the following assumption:

1) there is a primitive physical universe
2) it run the UD.
Then you can understand that such a universe needs to be extending for  
ever, and be robust, because the universal dovetaling involves bigger  
and bigger programs using greater and greater inputs.


The game of life of Conway is Turing universal. The UD can be  
programmed by a two dimensional pattern in the game of life. Then its  
dynamics gives a third dimensional 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Stathis Papaioannou



 On 4 Apr 2015, at 7:32 am, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 
 On 4/2/2015 4:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
 world (although going from the general case of what I call
 functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
 you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
 on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
 it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
 change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
 definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.
 
 I don't understand how that applies to someone who, for example, is red-green 
 colorblind.  Aren't they partial-zombies by your definition?  They may come 
 to realize that they don't distinguish the full spectrum,   just as we 
 realize we don't see infrared.  Supppose the colorblind person used to see 
 colors but lost the ability (as my mother did after cataract surgery)?  She 
 realized it by noticing that things that used to be colorful weren't anymore. 
  But like the person born colorblind, she didn't directly experience a qualia 
 of being colorblind.

She noticed a difference and there was also an objective change in her ability 
to discriminate between a colours. A partial zombie would not notice a 
difference and there would be no test that could find a difference.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread meekerdb

On 4/2/2015 4:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
world (although going from the general case of what I call
functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.


I don't understand how that applies to someone who, for example, is red-green colorblind.  
Aren't they partial-zombies by your definition?  They may come to realize that they don't 
distinguish the full spectrum, just as we realize we don't see infrared.  Supppose the 
colorblind person used to see colors but lost the ability (as my mother did after cataract 
surgery)?  She realized it by noticing that things that used to be colorful weren't 
anymore.  But like the person born colorblind, she didn't directly experience a qualia of 
being colorblind.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Stathis Papaioannou



 On 4 Apr 2015, at 3:14 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
 
 On 03 Apr 2015, at 01:18, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 
 On 3 April 2015 at 01:06, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
 However, what you call my fuctionalism is a superset
 of comp, and it may still be possible to replace part of the brain
 with a device incorporating a hypercomputer, or even a magical device
 animated by God, and preserve consciousness.
 
 
 ... making your functionalism trivial, if you excuse the straightness.
 
 It is not trivial because it makes this (if I may say so) rather
 profound claim: that it is impossible even for God to make a device
 that reproduces the observable function of the brain without also
 reproducing any associated consciousness. Roger Penrose proposes that
 the brain utilises non-computable physics and that therefore it is not
 possible to reproduce either the observable function of the brain or
 its consciousness using a digital computer.
 
 Yes, he defends non-comp (even non-quantum-comp, unlike Hamerov).
 
 
 
 This is logically
 consistent,
 
 OK, but this shows you agree that we can't prove comp. Only the 
 generalisation your-functionalism.

Yes, comp is false if CT is false. But in that case you would be unable to make 
a zombie either.

 even if there is no actual evidence for it. John Searle,
 on the other hand, believes that it is possible to reproduce the
 observable function of the brain but that this would not necessarily
 reproduce consciousness.
 
 Yes, it is another way to disbelieve in comp: believing in zombie.
 
 
 
 
 Given that consciousness actually exists,
 which entails that there is a difference between being conscious and
 not being conscious, this is not logically consistent because it would
 lead to partial zombies.
 
 Almost OK. What about someone who say that as long as 1/4 of its biological 
 brain is organic he is fully conscious, but once more that 3/4 of the brain 
 is digital, then it becomes a total zombie. In that case: no partial zombie.
 (just try to find a logical loophole ..., don't mind to much, I do agree with 
 Chalmers' fading qualia point).

There must then be some crucial indivisible component responsible for the flip 
(for if it were not indivisible you could still make a partial zombie). It is 
not inconceivable as a partial zombie is, but it is wildly implausible and 
probably not consistent with  the assumption that consciousness is a 
naturalistic process in the brain.

 It is my contention that
 the only requirement is that this device replicates the I/O behaviour
 of the part of the brain that it replaces, and any associated
 consciousness will follow necessarily.
 
 
 OK.
 
 I think you get close to prove the half of comp yes doctor, as everybody
 agrees that we cannot prove Church thesis. (which does not mean we cannot
 give very powerful evidences for it).
 
 Then the proof of yes doctor use the fact that partial zombiness makes no
 sense, but I think that anosognosia can be used, notably if we believe in
 things like a consciousness volume (on which the anosognosia would bear
 on).
 
 I don't see how that could make sense. It is sufficient to consider
 not special cases where the change is small or memory and cognition
 are deficient, but a general case where the change in consciousness is
 extreme and the person's cognition is intact. If you claim that it is
 possible to radically change the consciousness volume without
 someone noticing then I think that is tantamount to claiming that
 consciousness does not exist.
 
 I agree.
 
 
 
 The point is logical. Like in MGA, once we argue on reality, we can only
 present evidences, no proofs. The LHC has not prove the existence of the
 Higgs boson, nor does Mars Rover and its image prove the existence of Mars,
 or Apollo 9 the existence of the moon. They just give strong evidence.
 
 It would be on that strong sense of proof that my critics would bear on. A
 bit like Russell's critics on the MGA.
 
 I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
 world (although going from the general case of what I call
 functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
 you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
 on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
 it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
 change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
 definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.
 
 You make your point. For some reason, I have still a little doubt, but I 
 might need to just think a bit more. Some of my neurons make strike because 
 they want me sleeping a bit more.
 
 My point is that we cannot prove comp, but I agree that even God cannot 
 refute your-functionalism.
 A perfect zombie does not make sense, but a non-comp person can of course 
 decide that some or other person are zombie or have no soul, but then it is 
 the usual 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

On 4/2/2015 8:55 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The only reason that the dovetailer might have to worry about time 
limitations is if it is actually a physical computer. Physical 
computers have to contend with such things as physical laws, the 
finite speed of light, the properties of materials, the generation of 
heat (entropy) and the need to remove that heat to a safe distance 
before everything melts down. If your computer is not a physical 
device, then it has none of these limitations, and there is no such 
concept available as the 'speed' of the computation, the 'time for 
each step', or anything of this sort. From our external concrete 
perspective, the whole thing is instantaneous, or it enters statis at 
some point and gets nowhere. For a non-physical computer these things 
are equivalent.


So without a physical computer you have no dynamics. A mere ordering 
of states is still a static thing, and the dovetailer does nothing 
useful that could not more easily be done by referring to a normal 
number.


Why would it not have the same dynamics as in any Platonia version of 
physics, e.g. a block universe simulated in a digital computer? The 
states don't even have to be computed in their inherent time order.


Bruno doesn't argue for this -- as far as I can see he moves from a 
physical computer straight into Platonia, without any attempt at a 
justification for the move. Unfortunately for his case, if you start 
with a physical computer, you have to start with a set of physical laws 
and that will run this machine composed of physical matter in an orderly 
manner. It cannot bootstrap itself -- run the machine and this itself 
generates the laws that enable the machine to run? Argue the 
self-referential bootstrap, don't just ignore the problem.


But a more significant point, it seems to me, is that time in the block 
universe works by taking some subsystem and using it as a clock. But the 
clock function is instantiated by showing correlations between the 
regular dynamics of the clock and the dynamics of the rest of the 
universe. In other words, the universe has to run according to regular 
dynamical laws that apply equally to the clock subsystem and to the 
rest. Without these regular correlations you have no clock, and no time.


Barbour's solution is rather different, and more ingenious, because he 
doesn't actually recreate physical time or dynamics. He simply connects 
otherwise unrelated slices by his 'time capsules'. One can argue for 
ever whether this actually works, but it is an ingenious possibility.


The problem I see is that Bruno has not made any attempt to argue for 
any sensible notion of time when he moves into Platonia. He can refer to 
relations among numbers in arithmetic as 'computations', but that is 
just a play with words -- there is still no dynamics involved. And Bruno 
really does need dynamics in order to make a computational model of 
consciousness different from a static recording. The MGA is an argument 
from incredulity -- it is not a valid argument.



This is why I have said several times in previous posts that you rely 
on an underlying notion of physical time, and an underlying physical 
computer, in order to make your computation dynamic and not static. 
What you say above does not let you escape from this conclusion, it 
merely reinforces it. The problem of time is your undoing. 


I think the UD necessarily takes unlimited time.  Given any particular 
state the UD will visit that state infinitely many times and compute 
infinitely many different successive states.  It doesn't halt, so all 
the different successor states are never completed. These states may be 
indexed by some internal time, per Barbour.


I agree that the UD, implemented physically, will take an infinite time 
and will compute an infinite variety of variations on any particular 
state -- though why we should happen to find ourselves in a state with 
other people and a physical world remains unexplained. The Boltzmann 
brain problem is probably worse for Bruno than the white rabbit problem.


Nevertheless, without actually providing a solution to the problem of 
time in his model -- which involves justifying the step from a physical 
computer running the UD, to Platonia which is static -- Bruno has not, 
it seems to me, demonstrated that consciousness is a computation in 
unphysical Platonia.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread meekerdb

On 4/2/2015 8:55 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The only reason that the dovetailer might have to worry about time limitations is if it 
is actually a physical computer. Physical computers have to contend with such things as 
physical laws, the finite speed of light, the properties of materials, the generation of 
heat (entropy) and the need to remove that heat to a safe distance before everything 
melts down. If your computer is not a physical device, then it has none of these 
limitations, and there is no such concept available as the 'speed' of the computation, 
the 'time for each step', or anything of this sort. From our external concrete 
perspective, the whole thing is instantaneous, or it enters statis at some point and 
gets nowhere. For a non-physical computer these things are equivalent.


So without a physical computer you have no dynamics. A mere ordering of states is still 
a static thing, and the dovetailer does nothing useful that could not more easily be 
done by referring to a normal number.


Why would it not have the same dynamics as in any Platonia version of physics, e.g. a 
block universe simulated in a digital computer? The states don't even have to be computed 
in their inherent time order.




This is why I have said several times in previous posts that you rely on an underlying 
notion of physical time, and an underlying physical computer, in order to make your 
computation dynamic and not static. What you say above does not let you escape from this 
conclusion, it merely reinforces it. The problem of time is your undoing. 


I think the UD necessarily takes unlimited time.  Given any particular state the UD will 
visit that state infinitely many times and compute infinitely many different successive 
states.  It doesn't halt, so all the different successor states are never completed. These 
states may be indexed by some internal time, per Barbour.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Apr 03, 2015 at 06:33:52PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 03 Apr 2015, at 00:44, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 
 The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
 argument if you assume that ontological reality
 
 I guess you mean here: physical ontological reality (assuming it
 exists).
 
 
 
 If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia),
 
 You really mean: robust physical ontology.

No, because the label physical should refer to what is phenomenal,
otherwise it doesn't have any meaning. The Church Thesis (true by
assumption) shows that what is phenomenal cannot be ontological (or
noumenal, to borrow Kant's term), when the ontology is robust. That is
pretty much the whole point of UDA1-7.


 
 Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
 recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.
 
 
 By adding the inert Klara? But then the physical role of the inert
 Klara to produce consciousness to the movie is not Turing emulable,
 and you stop assuming computationalism.

But in a robust ontology, the Klaras are no longer inert. They cannot be.

 
 I can understand the role of Klara and counterfactual correctness
 for the computation and behavior being correct hen change occur, but
 how could they change the consciousness by being non present when
 not needed?
 

If they are not needed, then some non-counterfactually correct
recordings can be conscious. I don't have a strong opinion on this, as
the relevant recordings will be really very complex, but do suspect,
along with Brent, that full embodiment in an environment is needed,
along with counterfactual correctness.

As I point out in my paper, that, physical supervenience, and the MGA entails
a robust ontology (ie something like the Multiverse to exist).

Cheers
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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-03 Thread meekerdb

On 4/3/2015 2:38 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




On 4 Apr 2015, at 7:32 am, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:



On 4/2/2015 4:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
world (although going from the general case of what I call
functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.


I don't understand how that applies to someone who, for example, is red-green 
colorblind.  Aren't they partial-zombies by your definition?  They may come to realize 
that they don't distinguish the full spectrum, just as we realize we don't see 
infrared.  Supppose the colorblind person used to see colors but lost the ability (as 
my mother did after cataract surgery)?  She realized it by noticing that things that 
used to be colorful weren't anymore.  But like the person born colorblind, she didn't 
directly experience a qualia of being colorblind.


She noticed a difference and there was also an objective change in her ability to 
discriminate between a colours. A partial zombie would not notice a difference and there 
would be no test that could find a difference.


But what does it mean to say she noticed a difference?  Was the noticing a perception of 
a difference, or was it just remembering that grass and roses aren't named by the same 
color.  The latter could be noticed by someone who had never had color vision (and was 
in fact well known to my father who was red-green colorblind all his life).  If the 
noticing was just a fact learned in the way anyone might learn a 3p fact, then I think 
that would still leave my mother a partial zombie by your definition.


Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 07:07:09AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
 
 Which assumes perhaps too strong a form of functionalism and/or digitalism
 that runs into its own contradiction with 1p consciousness?
 
 As pointed out in earlier post: With that move, it is no longer relevant to
 distinguish recording from person who has 1p experience, zombie question is
 nonsense, no indexical property, there is correct substitution level, all
 possible 1p consciousness of all persons supervenes on the recording
 (everything digital) *or* none at all since recording has no CC and other
 such funky consequences I can't recall. How is this avoided if everything
 is one bland sauce of digital?

It is not at all obvious that counterfactual correctness (CC) is
required for a computation to be conscious. Bruno usually argues that
feature is a red herring. If it is, then non-CC recordings are not
conscious, and the MGA goes through in the small (non-robust) universe
case. But recordings can also be counterfactually correct in principle
(in the form of a huge lookup table, for example, in Searles's Chinese
Room), or in the form of a precise specification of the quantum wave
function, or of a finite chunk of the UD* trace. Modulo the no-cloning
theorem, or the Seth Lloyd limit which would prevent such a recording
existing in our current universe.

 
 Thanks for pushing the question though Russell, as my earlier posts were
 perhaps less clear on this. I guess you're coming from some ground I can't
 parse or have missed reading and you have my apology here if so. But
 zombies can be tricky bastards :-)
 
 
  Where do you draw the line? I'm afraid
  intuition does not help much in this matter, which is why I say it is
  a weakness of the MGA.
 
 
  There must be something more to it than just complexity or even Turing
  universality. Bruno says human-like consciousness requires Lobianity.  But
  I think that's asking for more than just awarenss; it's asking for
  self-awarness.
 
 
 Which with comp assumptions/environment includes the properties that come
 with that kind of self-awareness, e.g. incompleteness, machine's silence
 etc. PGC
 
 
  If I were building a Mars Rover and gave it the ability to learn from its
  experience by reviewing its memory of events and projecting hypothetical
  futures, I would be concerned that I had created a sentient being that
  would forsee its own end.  So I would be sure to avoid putting its
  indefinite survival into its value system.
 
  Brent
 
 
 
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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Apr 2015, at 21:30, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




On Wednesday, April 1, 2015, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
On 1 April 2015 at 22:18, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 01 Apr 2015, at 02:05, LizR wrote:

Well, no, there is no TOE that describes all features of the  
physical universe yet.


But if comp is true, there is. If comp is true, the theory with the  
axioms Kxy = x + Sxyz = xy(zy), or elementary arithmetic HAVE TO  
describe all feature of the physical universe. If not comp is false.
With comp, we cannot add anything to elementary arithmetic or to any  
sigma-1 complete set. That is the point of the reasoning. That we  
don't succeed, or have not yet extracted it is another point. The  
TOE is there. All the physical (but non geographical, nor  
historical) feature of physics must be explained by elementary  
arithmetic, or computationalism is false. That follows from the UDA.


OK, but as you say - if comp is true. And I'm not saying you need to  
prove it's true because I know that's impossible. But as far as I  
know, no one has yet derived a convincing amount of physics from  
comp, so we don't yet have convincing evidence that it may well be  
true, if you see what I mean. (I think Bruce says the same thing in  
a post i'm about to read!)


I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not  
true then it would be possible to make partial zombies. If partial  
zombies are possible then there would be no difference between you  
having qualia or lacking qualia, which is equivalent to saying  
consciousness does not exist; not just that it is epiphenomenal but  
that it isn't there at all. So if consciousness exists, comp must be  
true.


That reasoning might asses that comp or your functionalism is  
provable, but comp, as I defined it, use Church-thesis (if only to get  
a universal dovetailer), and this gives one way to refute comp: to  
find a function that human can compute, but no computer could. It is  
hard to imagine, but it is logically possible (that is why attempt to  
refute CT continue to be made).
Then as I said, anosognosia might make conceivable partial zombiness,  
making consciousness non-existing, I could agree with this, but the  
partial zombie might not agree in the sense that it would say: no, my  
consciousness has not changed (despite some god could say, yes, the  
volume of its consciousness has drop 1/2, but he can't see that as he  
is amnesic of its precedent volume of consciousness. Again, this is  
close to non-sense to me, and eventually I might think that (comp v  
functionalism) is provable. Interesting point. I will dig on this ...  
hoping to find sometime. I have to go. Note that (comp v  
functionalism(yours) = functionalism(yours). It is not Putnam  
functionalism (which is comp, even with some high level substitution  
level).

You seem going to change my mind on something about comp/functionalism.

Bruno





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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 05:34, Russell Standish wrote:

On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 02:48:47AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  
wrote:


I still don't see what MGA pumps intuitively and incorrectly, as  
you seem
to assume that MGA is bad intuition pump, rather than good one  
that
facilitates seeing something tricky. You've not shown that  
consciousness
supervenes on broken gates, you don't treat movies like conscious  
entities,
and haven't pointed towards a recording that is obviously or  
demonstrably

conscious.



It is one thing to argue intuitively that playing Casablanca does not
instantiate Humphrey Bogart's consciousness. That I would happily  
agree

with. It only involves a few 100KB per second. It is another thing to
argue that a precise recording of the firings of every neuron in
someone's brain similarly doesn't instantiate consciousness (at around
10^11 neurons per typical human brain, this would be something of the
order of 10^16 bytes per second). This is the sort of recording being
used in Maudlin's thought experiment/MGA. And obviously, according to
COMP, a huge lookup table encoding the machine's output for every
possible input for a machine implementing a conscious moment (which is
just another type of recording, albeit a very complex one that would
exceed the Seth LLoyd bound for the universe) must be conscious. Note
this latter type of device was used in Searles Chinese Room argument,
and I think needs to be answered the same way Dennett answers the
Chinese Room argument.

At some point on the complexity scale, recordings go from being not
conscious to conscious. Where do you draw the line? I'm afraid
intuition does not help much in this matter, which is why I say it is
a weakness of the MGA.


The intuition pump is that the recording does not contain any  
computation, which is embarassing for a theory of mind requiring a  
computation. With stroboscope like argument, such a computation is   
not even well defined, nor is the time at which the movie is executed.  
As for the looking-table, it need to be infinite if it implements a  
universal machine. Consciousness, with comp, can be given to whatever  
brought that looking table into existence.
More on this mater, surely. The problem for the materialist is that he  
has no material definition of computation. It is always an act of  
faith in some primitive matter, and then an exploitation of the  
mathematical notion of computation, and of the fact that matter  
seems ... Turing universal. Again, it gives magical abilities to  
Turing machine, and entails the existence of infinitely many zombies  
in arithmetic. More on this, as I write very quickly (soory for  
possible typo) as I have to go now.


Bruno







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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruce Kellett

Russell Standish wrote:

On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 07:07:09AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

Which assumes perhaps too strong a form of functionalism and/or digitalism
that runs into its own contradiction with 1p consciousness?

As pointed out in earlier post: With that move, it is no longer relevant to
distinguish recording from person who has 1p experience, zombie question is
nonsense, no indexical property, there is correct substitution level, all
possible 1p consciousness of all persons supervenes on the recording
(everything digital) *or* none at all since recording has no CC and other
such funky consequences I can't recall. How is this avoided if everything
is one bland sauce of digital?


It is not at all obvious that counterfactual correctness (CC) is
required for a computation to be conscious. Bruno usually argues that
feature is a red herring. If it is, then non-CC recordings are not
conscious, and the MGA goes through in the small (non-robust) universe
case. But recordings can also be counterfactually correct in principle
(in the form of a huge lookup table, for example, in Searles's Chinese
Room), or in the form of a precise specification of the quantum wave
function, or of a finite chunk of the UD* trace. Modulo the no-cloning
theorem, or the Seth Lloyd limit which would prevent such a recording
existing in our current universe.


Why are the limitations due to the size and/or age of our present 
universe relevant if the computation is carried out in Platonia -- on a 
non-physical UTM?


If the computations are carried out on a real physical UTM then 
consciousness supervenes on the physical universe after all!


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 04:08, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 01 Apr 2015, at 03:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:
The digital simulation of brain functions is achieved on a  
physical computer after all, which is a physical object itself --  
simulating (primitive) physical processes.
Assuming a physical object, which I do not (nor do I assume they  
don't exist). Comp, the hypothesis is nutral on what exist, except  
for what is needed to have a UTM, so it assumes one UTM, if you  
want, but not necessarily a physical UTM.


You said somewhere that a computation is dynamical, not static,


Yes. That is important. But the notion of time needed is only some  
morphism in N. Compuational steps, which can be define in arithmetic  
in the relative way. (This has been done with the first intensional  
variant of provability by Rosser).



which is why you rejected the notion that Champernow's number  
contains all possible computations and hence is a dovetailer:  
(0,1234567891011 ..) does not emulate anything, despite describing  
(in some ways) all computations.


It describes the computations, but does not emulate them, contrary to  
arithmetic. That diophantine polynomial describes all computations is  
very easy to prove. That they emulate all UTMs took 50 years of hard  
work, and was thought y many being obviously impossible.





Emulation is a dynamical process in time. I wonder where you get a  
time variable for your UTM.


By a variable on the computational steps. It has nothing to do with a  
physical time a priori.




All that you say about the UTM and the dovetailer appears to assume  
an instantiation in some temporal structure.


Not at all.


I do not see time as a parameter in arithmetic! In other words, your  
dovetailer has to be running on a physical UTM.


Nope.



You claim above that it does not have to be physical. I would like  
you to point me to a non-physical Turing machine that actually runs  
programs. I.e., not just a description of a Turing machine.


You need to understand the difference between syntax and semantic in  
arithmetic. I will come back on this later. It is not easy to explain  
as people already confuse easily the number 0 and the symbol 0.





I have downloaded your SANE04 paper and will work through it in time.


OK. That is rather wise if you want criticize it.


A first glance suggests that I will have objections at very many  
points.


I wold be very happy to hear them.

Bruno




Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 03:12, LizR wrote:

Yes lots of people have said something like that (including me) but  
the time aspect is addressed in Bruno's argument. (Come to think of  
it you more or less addressed it yourself by commenting about block  
universes. A computation can run in a block universe, after all, in  
the important sense - having different states at different times.)


I think some notion of successor relations is all that's needed, or  
something like that -  I'm sure Bruno will explain.


Russell is right on this, I omit or abstract away from the fact that  
the audience might think proof abaout reality, which does not exist.  
PGC is right too, as not only movie would be able to think, but  
special relativity would false (by the stroboscope), movie would think  
all thinking simultaneously, and we might say yes to a doctor putting  
the movie of a mosquito brain in place of your brain. The problem is  
that this is logically not refutable, and so we have to be clearer on  
that. MGA is for people cutting air, and as I said once: the problem  
is that cutting air is not a boundable activity. as we cannot prove  
our consistency, the ultimate cutting air person can always say: may  
be you have just prove that 0 = 1 ...


Bruno





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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 00:29, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, Apr 01, 2015 at 01:50:51PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


OK, but so you agree that MGA shows that if comp is true, matter is
of no use, unless we admit that a complex experience like a human
dream can supervene on a very simple trivial activity. Then the MGA
intuition pump seems to work well enough, imo.

Bruno



You have just conceded my point. Then the MGA is not a logical proof  
(as

you have sometimes claimed, and Quentin claimed even more forcefully),
but rather an argument by incredulity, or an intuition pump as Daniel
Dennett puts it. Nothing wrong with that of course, we just need to
know what has actually been achieved.



Not really, I have always taken for granted that we cannot prove  
something about reality, so it was clear for me that MGA use Occam,  
and can only weaken the use of Occam, not that it proves something  
about reality. I agree that I should have expanded on this more in  
the Lille thesis (the only point where I agree with Delahaye).


As a proof, MGA proves (informally) something like comp implies non  
matter or movie can vehiculate any experience. Which is close to a  
proof that comp implies no-matter to me. But you and Delahaye are  
right, I should be clearer on this. Point well taken (but already  
conceded a long time ago, it seems to me).


Bruno






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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Apr 2015, at 21:51, meekerdb wrote:


On 4/1/2015 2:18 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Well, no, there is no TOE that describes all features of the  
physical universe yet.


But if comp is true, there is. If comp is true, the theory with the  
axioms Kxy = x + Sxyz = xy(zy), or elementary arithmetic HAVE TO  
describe all feature of the physical universe. If not comp is false.


But that's like saying if Catholicism is true then there is a God  
who's omniscient.  You should be more cautious about the modus  
tollens: There is no TOE hence comp is false.


No problem. There is an infinite scheme of TOEs (when we assume comp).  
I have given three in my recent preceding posts. Combinators, RA and a  
system of Diophantine equations. If you find something not explainable  
in one of them, then comp is refuted. That would be the case for  
classical comp (that is comp + Theaetetus) if you find a quantum  
tautology not provided by Z1*, S4Grz1, or X1*).


It would not be a problem for me if comp is refuted.

Bruno




Brent

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou




 On 3 Apr 2015, at 12:26 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
 
 On 02 Apr 2015, at 14:00, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
 
 On 2 April 2015 at 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
 Anosognosia is the inability to recognise when you have an illness or a
 disability, usually in the context of  neurological or psychiatric
 disorders. This differs from being a zombie in that behaviour is affected:
 if the patient suffers from cortical blindness with anosognosia, they are
 unable to recognise what is in front of them and walk into things. In
 addition, they not only have the deficit of lacking qualia, they have a
 specific delusional belief which cannot be shifted despite any evidence they
 might be presented with.
 
 
 You are right about anosognosia. But my point is that anosognosia might make
 conceivable partial zombiness, and thus comp or your functionalism false.
 Again, I agree that it would make consciousness spurious, but that is
 something to be expected from a computationalist believing in primitive
 matter. I just try to put myself in the mind of those people believing in
 both matter and mechanism.
 
 Anosognosia involves an additional cognitive deficit which makes the
 patient deny that he has a problem despite all evidence presented to
 him.
 
 Yes.
 
 
 If you damage enough of the brain, it's not surprising that
 generalised problems in thinking arise. But the case to consider is a
 person who has a cicumscribed deficit, say in some sensory modality,
 without a problem in thinking. That such a person might not notice
 that he has for example gone blind seems absurd. It could mean that
 you went blind yesterday, although you can still think and hear and
 feel, but you haven't noticed it, and you still enjoyed looking at the
 painting on your office wall this morning. If that is possible, then
 what is the difference between having visual qualia and not having
 them? To make it more concrete, if the doctor offered me an artificial
 brain which would leave me blind but with the guarantee that it would
 *seem* to me that I was seeing everything exactly the same as now,
 what reason would there be for me to choose the more expensive model
 which would allow me to *really* see everything the same as now?
 
 It is just that I can logically conceive this (still playing the devil 
 advocate role):
 The doctor assures me that my behavior will not change, but that my qualia 
 and consciousness intensity will diminish of one halve, but he add that this 
 change is anosognosic so that I will not feel any difference ... until I can 
 afford the better artificial brain. So I say yes to him, and indeed I feel 
 completely happy with the new brain ... until I get enough money for the new 
 brain, which the doctor told me, will make my volume of consciousness back to 
 normal (of course I have no idea at all what that could mean). But once I got 
 the new brain, I realize then that indeed, I was less conscious than before 
 the first brain operation, and that now, I feel like that again.

But you would not notice such a difference when you got the new brain, since 
the outputs are exactly the same. You could set it up in a try-before-you-buy 
test so that the cheaper and the more expensive visual cortex can be switched 
in and out of circuit and you would find that both are just the same. If there 
is a difference in your qualia not only is it impossible for an external 
observer to notice, it is also impossible for you, the experiencer, to notice. 
I don't think the word qualia can retain meaning under this sort of assault.

 Some type of dreams make me thing that such an experience might not be as 
 senseless as ti might seem, and this means that the weird anosognosia 
 condition might, perhaps, give sense to some notion of partial zombiness.
 
 Some people in this list defend the idea of volume or degree of 
 consciousness, and if there is anosognosia on such a volume or intensity, it 
 might gives some sense to some notion of partial zombiness, it seems to me 
 (currently).

I think anosognosia is a red herring. You might not notice something because 
the change is too subtle, because you forgot what it was like before, or 
because (as in anosognosia) your ability to reason is impaired. But the thought 
experiment is done under ideal circumstances, where the change is large and 
your ability to think and remember is intact. If you can't notice a change in 
qualia under such circumstances then I would say that under any reasonable 
definition of the term there *IS* no change in qualia.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 15:04, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 04:08, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Emulation is a dynamical process in time. I wonder where you get a 
time variable for your UTM.
By a variable on the computational steps. It has nothing to do with a 
physical time a priori.


What variable? A simple numbering of steps? But that will not work, or 
at least, you have hidden an assumption of an external time in your 
notation.


The external time is given by the universal machine running the 
computation. It can be the basic level (elementary arithmetic, or the 
universal dovetailer), or it can be some other universal layer, running 
on some other universal layer, running on some other  running on the 
basic level.


At the basic level, we have the block mindscape, like the UD* (the 
infinite cone of all computations).


This does not do the work you require of it. See below.



At the end of step 27, move to step 28. That contains an implicit 
notion of time -- 'ending' and 'moving' are temporal concepts. I do 
not see that you can remove all traces of the idea of an external 
temporal parameter. Otherwise the machine could just halt arbitrarily 
at some point and never know that it had halted.


I think you ned to flesh your ideas here out a great deal more.


Well, this is a forum, and I explain things already explained with all 
details in much longer text (which sometime does not help, because busy 
people tend to skip even more the long texts nowadays).


Let me try to help a bit though. Fix some universal programming 
language, like Fortran, say. Enumerate all programs computing function 
with 1 argument,  p_0, p_1, p_2, 


Let us denote by [p_i(j)^k] the kième step of the execution of the ième 
program on argument j, by the universal dovetailer (which dovetails then 
on all such [p_i(j)^k] .


Then we can define, indeed already in Robinson arithmetic, a computation 
by a sequence of such steps, when i and j are fixed. So a computation is 
given by the sequence


[p_456(666)^0]
[p_456(666)^1]
[p_456(666)^2]
[p_456(666)^3]
[p_456(666)^4]
etc.

 This sequence is a subsequence of the general universal dovetailing, 
which dovetails on all [p_i(j)^k].


It is a computation, only in virtue of the universal dovetailing, and 
the universal dovetailing can be defined in arithmetic. I can translate 
the proposition the UD access to [p_345(898786)^89] entirely in term 
of arithmetic, using only the notion of addition, multiplication, 
successor (of natural numbers) and 0, and predicate logic.


The only external time used is the ordering of the natural number, which 
is easily translated in arithmetic: x  y means Ez(x + z) = y).


OK?


I got this much from reading your paper and other things you have said. 
But this, at best, provides and ordering (indexing if you like) on the 
computational steps. It does not provide a time parameter. In fact, it 
is entirely static, and you get no more than some ordering imposed on 
sequences that can be found in any normal number.


Let me be more specific in my criticism.

In step 7 of your argument you introduce the dovetailer. But you then 
say Suppose now, for the sake of argument, that out concrete and 
'physical' universe is a sufficiently robust expanding universe so that 
a 'concrete' UD can run forever... Why do you need infinite time in an 
expanding universe to run the dovetailer if it is not a physical 
machine? You put the words 'physical' and 'concrete' in scare quotes, 
but that is merely a device to mislead -- you actually are talking about 
the everyday physical, concrete universe that we all know and love. 
There is no Platonia here, or else why worry about time limitations and 
require an infinite expanding universe in order to get all your 
computations in?


In step 8 you introduce the idea that the 'physical universe' really 
'exists' and is too small, in the sense of not being able to generate 
the entire UD*, nor any reasonable portions of it. You call this move 
/ad hoc/ and *disgraceful*, but that is again just a rhetorical trick to 
divert attention from the fact that you really are talking about a 
physical computer running in our physical universe. In which case, at 
any finite time from the beginning of the universe the dovetailer will, 
in general, not have generated any sequence of computations that would 
correspond to us or anything else. Far from being a disgracefully /ad 
hoc/ manoeuvre, this actually undoes your whole enterprise.


The only reason that the dovetailer might have to worry about time 
limitations is if it is actually a physical computer. Physical computers 
have to contend with such things as physical laws, the finite speed of 
light, the properties of materials, the generation of heat (entropy) and 
the need to remove that heat to a safe distance before everything melts 
down. If your computer is not a physical device, then it has none of 
these limitations, 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 05:10:37PM +1000, Bruce Kellett wrote:
 
 Why are the limitations due to the size and/or age of our present
 universe relevant if the computation is carried out in Platonia --
 on a non-physical UTM?
 
 If the computations are carried out on a real physical UTM then
 consciousness supervenes on the physical universe after all!
 

The whole point of the MGA is to try and close off a gap in the
argument if you assume that ontological reality is less than
Platonia. In such a non-robust universe setting, physical limits are
quite relevant.

If we have a robust ontology (ie the full Platonia), then the MGA is
not needed, the first 7 steps of the UDA suffice for Bruno's
point. Moreover, I would argue that the MGA doesn't even work, as
recordings can be fully counterfactually correct.

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 3 April 2015 at 01:06, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 However, what you call my fuctionalism is a superset
 of comp, and it may still be possible to replace part of the brain
 with a device incorporating a hypercomputer, or even a magical device
 animated by God, and preserve consciousness.


 ... making your functionalism trivial, if you excuse the straightness.

It is not trivial because it makes this (if I may say so) rather
profound claim: that it is impossible even for God to make a device
that reproduces the observable function of the brain without also
reproducing any associated consciousness. Roger Penrose proposes that
the brain utilises non-computable physics and that therefore it is not
possible to reproduce either the observable function of the brain or
its consciousness using a digital computer. This is logically
consistent, even if there is no actual evidence for it. John Searle,
on the other hand, believes that it is possible to reproduce the
observable function of the brain but that this would not necessarily
reproduce consciousness. Given that consciousness actually exists,
which entails that there is a difference between being conscious and
not being conscious, this is not logically consistent because it would
lead to partial zombies.

 It is my contention that
 the only requirement is that this device replicates the I/O behaviour
 of the part of the brain that it replaces, and any associated
 consciousness will follow necessarily.


 OK.

 I think you get close to prove the half of comp yes doctor, as everybody
 agrees that we cannot prove Church thesis. (which does not mean we cannot
 give very powerful evidences for it).

 Then the proof of yes doctor use the fact that partial zombiness makes no
 sense, but I think that anosognosia can be used, notably if we believe in
 things like a consciousness volume (on which the anosognosia would bear
 on).

I don't see how that could make sense. It is sufficient to consider
not special cases where the change is small or memory and cognition
are deficient, but a general case where the change in consciousness is
extreme and the person's cognition is intact. If you claim that it is
possible to radically change the consciousness volume without
someone noticing then I think that is tantamount to claiming that
consciousness does not exist.

 The point is logical. Like in MGA, once we argue on reality, we can only
 present evidences, no proofs. The LHC has not prove the existence of the
 Higgs boson, nor does Mars Rover and its image prove the existence of Mars,
 or Apollo 9 the existence of the moon. They just give strong evidence.

 It would be on that strong sense of proof that my critics would bear on. A
 bit like Russell's critics on the MGA.

I think the argument I present does not depend on any fact about the
world (although going from the general case of what I call
functionalism to what Putnam called machine-state functionalism and
you call comp does depend on the physical CT being true). It depends
on a very basic operational definition of consciouness: that you know
it if you are conscious and you realise if there is a large enough
change in your consciousness. If you don't accept this operational
definition then I can find no meaning in the word consciousness.


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Russell Standish
On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 10:30:04AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 The intuition pump is that the recording does not contain any
 computation, which is embarassing for a theory of mind requiring a
 computation. With stroboscope like argument, such a computation is
 not even well defined, nor is the time at which the movie is
 executed. 

You may well be right, my point only was that the intuition pump fails
at the realistic levels of complexity of the recordings involved. I
think Bruce appreciates this at least.

 As for the looking-table, it need to be infinite if it
 implements a universal machine. 

Not for implementing a finite subsequence of a computation as
discussed in the MGA. Let us say we're interested in a 10 second
sequence of observer moments. Running a program emulating that
sequence might involve the machine passing through some 10^15 32 bit
states (say - I'm just plucking figures from where the sun don't shine
here). Then to add in the counterfactual nature of this, we would just
need to create a lookup table with 32 ^ (10 ^ 15) entries in it. Rather
large, agreed, but last time I looked, a lot less than infinite.


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 2 April 2015 at 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Anosognosia is the inability to recognise when you have an illness or a
 disability, usually in the context of  neurological or psychiatric
 disorders. This differs from being a zombie in that behaviour is affected:
 if the patient suffers from cortical blindness with anosognosia, they are
 unable to recognise what is in front of them and walk into things. In
 addition, they not only have the deficit of lacking qualia, they have a
 specific delusional belief which cannot be shifted despite any evidence they
 might be presented with.


 You are right about anosognosia. But my point is that anosognosia might make
 conceivable partial zombiness, and thus comp or your functionalism false.
 Again, I agree that it would make consciousness spurious, but that is
 something to be expected from a computationalist believing in primitive
 matter. I just try to put myself in the mind of those people believing in
 both matter and mechanism.

Anosognosia involves an additional cognitive deficit which makes the
patient deny that he has a problem despite all evidence presented to
him. If you damage enough of the brain, it's not surprising that
generalised problems in thinking arise. But the case to consider is a
person who has a cicumscribed deficit, say in some sensory modality,
without a problem in thinking. That such a person might not notice
that he has for example gone blind seems absurd. It could mean that
you went blind yesterday, although you can still think and hear and
feel, but you haven't noticed it, and you still enjoyed looking at the
painting on your office wall this morning. If that is possible, then
what is the difference between having visual qualia and not having
them? To make it more concrete, if the doctor offered me an artificial
brain which would leave me blind but with the guarantee that it would
*seem* to me that I was seeing everything exactly the same as now,
what reason would there be for me to choose the more expensive model
which would allow me to *really* see everything the same as now?


-- 
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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 2 April 2015 at 08:30, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 4/1/2015 12:30 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not true
 then it would be possible to make partial zombies.


 I think that's the inference we're arguing.  It's certainly not obvious to
 me.

It's not obvious that comp can be proved or it's not obvious that if
comp were false it would be possible to make partial zombies?

 If partial zombies are possible then there would be no difference between
 you having qualia or lacking qualia,


 There would be no 3p observable difference in other people.  Just showing
 that a partial zombie is possible doesn't show that you are one.

A partial zombie would not only show no 3p difference, it would also
show no 1p difference. There is no conceptual problem with that in a
zombie, but there is in a partial zombie, which by definition has
normal feelings and cognition except for its zombified aspect. A
person who is otherwise normal immediately knows if he loses a
significant aspect of his consciousness, such as his vision or his
ability to understand language. Sometimes if neurological damage is
severe enough it can damage cognitive ability and the subject develops
the delusional belief, anosognosia, that he is normal despite all
evidence to the contrary, but that does not invalidate the argument.

 which is equivalent to saying consciousness does not exist;


 I think it is equivalent to the idea that some (humans) have souls and some
 (animals) don't.  I don't believe that, but it's logically possible.

I think you are not making the distinction between a zombie and a
partial zombie. A zombie is not obviously absurd, a partial zombie is.

 not just that it is epiphenomenal but that it isn't there at all.


 Maybe it isn't.  I only know about my own.

 Brent

 So if consciousness exists, comp must be true.


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 2 April 2015 at 18:37, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not true then
 it would be possible to make partial zombies. If partial zombies are
 possible then there would be no difference between you having qualia or
 lacking qualia, which is equivalent to saying consciousness does not exist;
 not just that it is epiphenomenal but that it isn't there at all. So if
 consciousness exists, comp must be true.


 That reasoning might asses that comp or your functionalism is provable, but
 comp, as I defined it, use Church-thesis (if only to get a universal
 dovetailer), and this gives one way to refute comp: to find a function that
 human can compute, but no computer could. It is hard to imagine, but it is
 logically possible (that is why attempt to refute CT continue to be made).

If the brain utilises non-computable functions then CT is false and it
will not be possible replace part of the brain with a computer, so
comp is false. However, what you call my fuctionalism is a superset
of comp, and it may still be possible to replace part of the brain
with a device incorporating a hypercomputer, or even a magical device
animated by God, and preserve consciousness. It is my contention that
the only requirement is that this device replicates the I/O behaviour
of the part of the brain that it replaces, and any associated
consciousness will follow necessarily.

 Then as I said, anosognosia might make conceivable partial zombiness, making
 consciousness non-existing, I could agree with this, but the partial
 zombie might not agree in the sense that it would say: no, my consciousness
 has not changed (despite some god could say, yes, the volume of its
 consciousness has drop 1/2, but he can't see that as he is amnesic of its
 precedent volume of consciousness. Again, this is close to non-sense to me,
 and eventually I might think that (comp v functionalism) is provable.
 Interesting point. I will dig on this ... hoping to find sometime. I have to
 go. Note that (comp v functionalism(yours) = functionalism(yours). It is not
 Putnam functionalism (which is comp, even with some high level
 substitution level).
 You seem going to change my mind on something about comp/functionalism.

 Bruno




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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 04:08, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Emulation is a dynamical process in time. I wonder where you get a 
time variable for your UTM.


By a variable on the computational steps. It has nothing to do with a 
physical time a priori.


What variable? A simple numbering of steps? But that will not work, or 
at least, you have hidden an assumption of an external time in your 
notation.


At the end of step 27, move to step 28. That contains an implicit 
notion of time -- 'ending' and 'moving' are temporal concepts. I do not 
see that you can remove all traces of the idea of an external temporal 
parameter. Otherwise the machine could just halt arbitrarily at some 
point and never know that it had halted.


I think you ned to flesh your ideas here out a great deal more.

Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 15:04, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Apr 2015, at 04:08, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Emulation is a dynamical process in time. I wonder where you get a  
time variable for your UTM.
By a variable on the computational steps. It has nothing to do with  
a physical time a priori.


What variable? A simple numbering of steps? But that will not work,  
or at least, you have hidden an assumption of an external time in  
your notation.


The external time is given by the universal machine running the  
computation. It can be the basic level (elementary arithmetic, or the  
universal dovetailer), or it can be some other universal layer,  
running on some other universal layer, running on some other   
running on the basic level.


At the basic level, we have the block mindscape, like the UD* (the  
infinite cone of all computations).





At the end of step 27, move to step 28. That contains an implicit  
notion of time -- 'ending' and 'moving' are temporal concepts. I do  
not see that you can remove all traces of the idea of an external  
temporal parameter. Otherwise the machine could just halt  
arbitrarily at some point and never know that it had halted.


I think you ned to flesh your ideas here out a great deal more.


Well, this is a forum, and I explain things already explained with all  
details in much longer text (which sometime does not help, because  
busy people tend to skip even more the long texts nowadays).


Let me try to help a bit though. Fix some universal programming  
language, like Fortran, say. Enumerate all programs computing function  
with 1 argument,  p_0, p_1, p_2, 


Let us denote by [p_i(j)^k] the kième step of the execution of the  
ième program on argument j, by the universal dovetailer (which  
dovetails then on all such [p_i(j)^k] .


Then we can define, indeed already in Robinson arithmetic, a  
computation by a sequence of such steps, when i and j are fixed. So a  
computation is given by the sequence


[p_456(666)^0]
[p_456(666)^1]
[p_456(666)^2]
[p_456(666)^3]
[p_456(666)^4]
etc.

 This sequence is a subsequence of the general universal dovetailing,  
which dovetails on all [p_i(j)^k].


It is a computation, only in virtue of the universal dovetailing, and  
the universal dovetailing can be defined in arithmetic. I can  
translate the proposition the UD access to [p_345(898786)^89]  
entirely in term of arithmetic, using only the notion of addition,  
multiplication, successor (of natural numbers) and 0, and predicate  
logic.


The only external time used is the ordering of the natural number,  
which is easily translated in arithmetic: x  y means Ez(x + z) = y).


OK?

Bruno





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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 14:00, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


On 2 April 2015 at 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Anosognosia is the inability to recognise when you have an illness  
or a

disability, usually in the context of  neurological or psychiatric
disorders. This differs from being a zombie in that behaviour is  
affected:
if the patient suffers from cortical blindness with anosognosia,  
they are

unable to recognise what is in front of them and walk into things. In
addition, they not only have the deficit of lacking qualia, they  
have a
specific delusional belief which cannot be shifted despite any  
evidence they

might be presented with.


You are right about anosognosia. But my point is that anosognosia  
might make
conceivable partial zombiness, and thus comp or your functionalism  
false.

Again, I agree that it would make consciousness spurious, but that is
something to be expected from a computationalist believing in  
primitive
matter. I just try to put myself in the mind of those people  
believing in

both matter and mechanism.


Anosognosia involves an additional cognitive deficit which makes the
patient deny that he has a problem despite all evidence presented to
him.


Yes.



If you damage enough of the brain, it's not surprising that
generalised problems in thinking arise. But the case to consider is a
person who has a cicumscribed deficit, say in some sensory modality,
without a problem in thinking. That such a person might not notice
that he has for example gone blind seems absurd. It could mean that
you went blind yesterday, although you can still think and hear and
feel, but you haven't noticed it, and you still enjoyed looking at the
painting on your office wall this morning. If that is possible, then
what is the difference between having visual qualia and not having
them? To make it more concrete, if the doctor offered me an artificial
brain which would leave me blind but with the guarantee that it would
*seem* to me that I was seeing everything exactly the same as now,
what reason would there be for me to choose the more expensive model
which would allow me to *really* see everything the same as now?


It is just that I can logically conceive this (still playing the devil  
advocate role):
The doctor assures me that my behavior will not change, but that my  
qualia and consciousness intensity will diminish of one halve, but he  
add that this change is anosognosic so that I will not feel any  
difference ... until I can afford the better artificial brain. So I  
say yes to him, and indeed I feel completely happy with the new  
brain ... until I get enough money for the new brain, which the doctor  
told me, will make my volume of consciousness back to normal (of  
course I have no idea at all what that could mean). But once I got the  
new brain, I realize then that indeed, I was less conscious than  
before the first brain operation, and that now, I feel like that again.


Some type of dreams make me thing that such an experience might not be  
as senseless as ti might seem, and this means that the weird  
anosognosia condition might, perhaps, give sense to some notion of  
partial zombiness.


Some people in this list defend the idea of volume or degree of  
consciousness, and if there is anosognosia on such a volume or  
intensity, it might gives some sense to some notion of partial  
zombiness, it seems to me (currently).


Bruno












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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 14:25, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


On 2 April 2015 at 18:37, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I don't think it's impossible to prove comp true. If comp were not  
true then

it would be possible to make partial zombies. If partial zombies are
possible then there would be no difference between you having  
qualia or
lacking qualia, which is equivalent to saying consciousness does  
not exist;
not just that it is epiphenomenal but that it isn't there at all.  
So if

consciousness exists, comp must be true.


That reasoning might asses that comp or your functionalism is  
provable, but

comp, as I defined it, use Church-thesis (if only to get a universal
dovetailer), and this gives one way to refute comp: to find a  
function that
human can compute, but no computer could. It is hard to imagine,  
but it is
logically possible (that is why attempt to refute CT continue to be  
made).


If the brain utilises non-computable functions then CT is false


I guess you mean non-computable by a computer. But computable by a  
human.





and it
will not be possible replace part of the brain with a computer, so
comp is false.


Yes. That's was my point.



However, what you call my fuctionalism is a superset
of comp, and it may still be possible to replace part of the brain
with a device incorporating a hypercomputer, or even a magical device
animated by God, and preserve consciousness.


... making your functionalism trivial, if you excuse the straightness.




It is my contention that
the only requirement is that this device replicates the I/O behaviour
of the part of the brain that it replaces, and any associated
consciousness will follow necessarily.


OK.

I think you get close to prove the half of comp yes doctor, as  
everybody agrees that we cannot prove Church thesis. (which does not  
mean we cannot give very powerful evidences for it).


Then the proof of yes doctor use the fact that partial zombiness  
makes no sense, but I think that anosognosia can be used, notably if  
we believe in things like a consciousness volume (on which the  
anosognosia would bear on).


The point is logical. Like in MGA, once we argue on reality, we can  
only present evidences, no proofs. The LHC has not prove the existence  
of the Higgs boson, nor does Mars Rover and its image prove the  
existence of Mars, or Apollo 9 the existence of the moon. They just  
give strong evidence.


It would be on that strong sense of proof that my critics would bear  
on. A bit like Russell's critics on the MGA.


Bruno




Then as I said, anosognosia might make conceivable partial  
zombiness, making
consciousness non-existing, I could agree with this, but the  
partial
zombie might not agree in the sense that it would say: no, my  
consciousness

has not changed (despite some god could say, yes, the volume of its
consciousness has drop 1/2, but he can't see that as he is amnesic  
of its
precedent volume of consciousness. Again, this is close to non- 
sense to me,

and eventually I might think that (comp v functionalism) is provable.
Interesting point. I will dig on this ... hoping to find sometime.  
I have to
go. Note that (comp v functionalism(yours) = functionalism(yours).  
It is not

Putnam functionalism (which is comp, even with some high level
substitution level).
You seem going to change my mind on something about comp/ 
functionalism.


Bruno




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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Apr 2015, at 08:13, Russell Standish wrote:

On Thu, Apr 02, 2015 at 07:07:09AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  
wrote:


Which assumes perhaps too strong a form of functionalism and/or  
digitalism

that runs into its own contradiction with 1p consciousness?

As pointed out in earlier post: With that move, it is no longer  
relevant to
distinguish recording from person who has 1p experience, zombie  
question is
nonsense, no indexical property, there is correct substitution  
level, all

possible 1p consciousness of all persons supervenes on the recording
(everything digital) *or* none at all since recording has no CC and  
other
such funky consequences I can't recall. How is this avoided if  
everything

is one bland sauce of digital?


It is not at all obvious that counterfactual correctness (CC) is
required for a computation to be conscious. Bruno usually argues that
feature is a red herring.


I do that in some place, but this is really what Maudlin showed, when  
keeping materialism and computationalism + the idea that something  
inactive in a brain during a specific computation would not change the  
specific consciousness if it were removed. I do that to get the  
absurdity.


But I keep comp, and counterfactual correctness is a bit of the  
essence of what a computation is. It is what make absurd the idea  
that a movie could be conscious: it does not enact a computation. It  
does not need a universal machine to be enactedn unlike any computation.
The same movie could correspond to different computations, if we  
change the universal machine which did that movie, and build an ad hoc  
different one.





If it is, then non-CC recordings are not
conscious, and the MGA goes through in the small (non-robust) universe
case. But recordings can also be counterfactually correct in principle


by adding the inactive Klara? Then we are again back to Maudlin's  
point. neurons must know which neurons did not trigger them. They need  
some telepathy.





(in the form of a huge lookup table, for example, in Searles's Chinese
Room), or in the form of a precise specification of the quantum wave
function, or of a finite chunk of the UD* trace.


You mean description of them, or they actualization or realization by  
some reality (arithmetical or physical).


You might be slipping from the computation to its description.

Bruno


Modulo the no-cloning
theorem, or the Seth Lloyd limit which would prevent such a recording
existing in our current universe.



Thanks for pushing the question though Russell, as my earlier posts  
were
perhaps less clear on this. I guess you're coming from some ground  
I can't

parse or have missed reading and you have my apology here if so. But
zombies can be tricky bastards :-)



Where do you draw the line? I'm afraid
intuition does not help much in this matter, which is why I say  
it is

a weakness of the MGA.



There must be something more to it than just complexity or even  
Turing
universality. Bruno says human-like consciousness requires  
Lobianity.  But

I think that's asking for more than just awarenss; it's asking for
self-awarness.



Which with comp assumptions/environment includes the properties  
that come
with that kind of self-awareness, e.g. incompleteness, machine's  
silence

etc. PGC


If I were building a Mars Rover and gave it the ability to learn  
from its
experience by reviewing its memory of events and projecting  
hypothetical
futures, I would be concerned that I had created a sentient being  
that

would forsee its own end.  So I would be sure to avoid putting its
indefinite survival into its value system.

Brent




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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Russell Standish
On Wed, Apr 01, 2015 at 08:37:36AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
 On Wed, Apr 1, 2015 at 7:32 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 wrote:
 
  On Wed, Apr 01, 2015 at 05:17:00AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
   On Wed, Apr 1, 2015 at 3:02 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
   wrote:
  
   
I have always disagreed with this. The movie+broken gates is still a
computation, just a rather simple one. Playing a movie in (eg)
SMPlayer is still running a computation.
   
  
   And I have never understood how that doesn't void significance of 1p
  views.
   If this is totally tight, correct, mechanistic 3p view, then you get
   corresponding complete absence of meaning on 1p level of person/machine's
   discourse.
 
  Happy April fool's to you!
 
  More seriously though, I haven't the foggiest what you mean. Even your
  follow on prose doesn't help.
 
 
  Why would the fact that playing a recording is a computation void
  significance of 1p views?
 
 
 Because it weakens/relativizes the difference between counterfactual
 possibility instantiating computation and say the
 numbers/sequences/patterns of a movie on my phone.
 

I really don't know what your push back is. The program consisting of
the nop instruction 1000 times in a row, followed by the halt
instruction is a perfectly valid program, and running it on a machine
is a perfectly valid computation, albeit a rather trivial one.

There are no counterfactuals involved. The program will do the same
thing regardless of what the CPU registers contain

Playing a recording is just a slightly more complex version of the
same thing.


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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:


If just one physical law cannot be deduced from them, it means that 
computationalism is false, and that consciousness requires something 
else (God, primitive actual matter, or something that we just not yet 
conceive).


I would like to see just one non-trivial physical law that has been 
deduced from comp.


Bruce

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Apr 2015, at 02:05, LizR wrote:


On 1 April 2015 at 03:58, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 30 Mar 2015, at 02:57, LizR wrote:

On 29 March 2015 at 21:04, Bruce Kellett  
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au wrote:


As you see, I believe in physicalism, not in Platonia. And I have  
not yet seen any argument that might lead me to change my mind.


One reason that has been suggested is the unreasonable  
effectiveness of maths as a description of physics. This is Max  
Tegmark's argument for the Mathematical Universe Hypothesis. To  
take this to its logical conclusion, if we ever formulate a theory  
that (as far as we know) describes everything that exists - a real  
live TOE - then, Tegmark would say, what is there that  
distinguishes the universe from the, by hypothesis completely  
accurate, description? His conclusion is nothing, and since the  
maths description is simpler than the observed universe, the  
scientific conclusion is that what we observe is a part of a  
multiverse containing all outcomes of the TOE (this is a bit like  
Russell's TON, with the equations of the TOE as the almost  
nothing that actually exists) - and that assuming the universe is  
anything more than just What the maths looks like from the inside  
is unnecessary - and untestable - metaphysical speculation.


?
On the contary: what arithmetic looks from inside can be made  
precise when the observer is assumed to be Turing emulable. The math  
is computer science, with the mathematical definition of computer.


As we have remarked previously, Max hasn't really dealt with the  
observer in his mathematical universe hypothesis. I used the MUH as  
an example of a reason to believe that one should perhaps prefer  
Platonia to physicalism because I feel it's a fairly  
straightforward example, without any need to worry about - for  
example - the nature of consciousness.


OK, but we have to take it into account if we want explain mind and  
matter.





Then the math, to be short, says: it looks like Parmenides,  
Plotinus, and the mystics. It feels like there is:


1)a big ONE without a name, a part of which is
2) the Intelligible part (and that part is actually far bigger or  
far more complex than the big ONE, which is relatively simple), and  
then there is
3) the universal soul, which is the fire in the equation, and  
actually makes a lot of mess in Platonia, but perhaps the worst is  
to come, as there are:

4) the intelligible matter (death and taxes), and
5) the sensible matter  (which can hurt).

Those are the five hypotheses of Parmenides, and they are recovered  
with the nuances:


p
[]p
[]p  p
[]p  t
[]p  t  p

That gives eight important distinct modes in which a universal  
machine can see herself and the math which encompass her. (8, not 5,  
as three modes inherit the G/G*split).



However we don't have such a TOE as yet,


Hmm... I guess you have lost your notes diary again.

With computationalism, it is a fair simplification to say that each  
universal machine is a TOE. Any first order specification of any one  
among them would do the same job, and lead to the same mind-body  
problem, and the same mind and body solution, but I have chosen  
elementary arithmetic and SK-combinators to fix the things.


Well, no, there is no TOE that describes all features of the  
physical universe yet.


But if comp is true, there is. If comp is true, the theory with the  
axioms Kxy = x + Sxyz = xy(zy), or elementary arithmetic HAVE TO  
describe all feature of the physical universe. If not comp is false.
With comp, we cannot add anything to elementary arithmetic or to any  
sigma-1 complete set. That is the point of the reasoning. That we  
don't succeed, or have not yet extracted it is another point. The TOE  
is there. All the physical (but non geographical, nor historical)  
feature of physics must be explained by elementary arithmetic, or  
computationalism is false. That follows from the UDA.





String theory and comp are both attempts at this (from very  
different starting points) but I don't believe either has reached  
the point where they can say (for example) the universe should  
appear to conserve energy, be Lorentz invariant, exhibit a  
fundamental uncertainty of various quantities, etc.


Not really, but a case can be made that we have already explained  
where the symmetries come from, and thus (by Noether) the (future,  
when we know what is energy) conservation of energy, the quantum  
logic, etc.
But even without that, comp has given the TOE. That we humans cannot  
still extract physics is another point. It might take many years, or  
even millenia, but then we get already the propositional theology,  
including the logic of the observable, and the reason why the measure  
exists (the existence of quantization, the symmetry of the physical  
bottom, the many worlds, etc.


The UDA just nullifies the use of any extra-axioms. The physical  
universe is really in the head of all 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Mar 2015, at 17:48, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




On Wednesday, April 1, 2015, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 30 Mar 2015, at 22:28, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:




On Tuesday, March 31, 2015, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 30 Mar 2015, at 10:06, LizR wrote:

On 30 March 2015 at 19:26, Stathis Papaioannou  
stath...@gmail.com wrote:

Fading qualia in the setting of normal behaviour, if logically
possible, would destroy the common idea of consciousness that we  
have.

It would mean, for example, that you could have gone blind last week
but not realise it. You would look at a painting, describe the
painting, have an emotional response to the painting - but lack any
visual experience of the painting. If that is possible, what meaning
is left to attribute to the word qualia?

Well, it would mean that comp is false, because the electronic  
replacements are not generating any conscious experience despite  
having their I/O matched to the rest of the brain.



Yes, there would be p-zombies. Behaving like conscious person, but  
without any private knowledge, qualia, sensation or consciousness.


And there would also be the possibility of partial p-zombies, which  
would mean that private knowledge, qualia, sensation and  
consciousness make no subjective difference, or equivalently that  
they don't exist.


Yes, and this eventually show that we can believe in non- 
computationalism if we are ready to believe in zombies, and partial  
zombies.


Bruno

Did you survive with the artificial brain? Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ... Oh, yes, no doubt about  
that, I feel no difference ... cling ...


A partial zombie would mean that you do feel different but you don't  
notice that you feel different. This applies not only to a  
difference you might conceivably not notice, like colour reversal,  
but to a gross sensory or cognitive deficit, such as going  
completely blind or losing the ability to understand language. It  
seems to me that if you allow that such things can happen without  
you or anyone else noticing then the whole idea of consciousness is  
spurious.


I think we agree on this. I have to think more if that can lead to a  
proof of computationalism, due to possible agnosologia (if that term  
is correct). I can imagine someone feeling less conscious, but losing  
all memories of having been more conscious, so that he does not feel  
the difference (like people becoming blind, but not noticing it). I am  
just the advocate of the devil, here.


Bruno






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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Apr 2015, at 02:35, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Mar 2015, at 07:42, Bruce Kellett wrote:
In a phrase I have used before, It did not spring forth fully  
armed, like Athena from Zeus's brow. Numbers were a hard-won  
abstraction from everyday physical reality. They do not have any  
independent existence.

In which theory? What has independent existence?


The external objective universe, of which we are part.


If it exists. But then you need to abandon computationalism if you  
hope to relate that physical universe to your consciousness here and  
now.

That is not obvious. It is the point of the UD Argument.





As someone has said, you do not come across a number 5 running  
wild in the undergrowth.
I am not sure, when I run I might not count them, but five  
incarnate in my feet and hands all the time, and even if I did not  
have legs, like a snake, 5 would still be prime, independently of  
me thinking about it or not.


You are running into the old problem of universals. You take the  
approach of Plato -- the universals are needed to explain the  
commonality between all sets of five things (like toes, finger,...),  
but even so, you don't see the universal 5 running in the wild --  
you see only five toes, or deer, or .. It is equally open to  
anyone to take Aristotle's line and hold that five exists only in  
sets of five things -- the modern nominalist position.


Assuming there are objects. But then ... (see above).




Two thousand five hundred years of philosophical argument have not  
settled this issue,


Progress haev been made, until Aristotle metaphysics has been imposed  
through violence, for 1500 years, now.
And the discovery of the universal machine solves the last problem  
they met. 1500 years of aristotelian physics have just put the  
consciousness problem under the rug.





so no-one need accept your enthusiastic embrace of Plato's account.


It is not part of the hypothesis. Platonism is extracted from  
arithmetic. The only platonism used at the start is the belief that  
(A v ~A) is true with A being a statement equivalent with the program  
i on input j will stop or will not stop.







Other accounts are just as good (in many ways preferable).


No problem. The point is that IF we assume comp, they are refuted, or  
epistemologically non sustainable. It is a technical point.






...

But I think we need to distinguish two senses in which something  
can be said to exist. There is mathematical existence,  
Exist_{math}, and physical existence, Exist_{phys}.

I agree. And those are quite different mode of existence.


I am glad we can agree on something.


Exist_{math} is the set of all implications of a set of axioms and  
some rules of inference.
Not at all. That would give only a tiny sigma_1 set. Even  
arithmetic is larger than that, and non unifiable in any effective  
theory.


I think you underestimate the power of an axiomatic theory.


?

No, it is a theorem. Arithmetic is not axiomatizable.


.


Exist_{phys} is the hardware of the universe.

OK. But then comp is false, there are zombies, etc.


Why do you think that is a problem? They exist only if you create  
them.


Well, assuming ~comp, you are back at square zero. I explain how comp  
solves the problem (or reduce it to another problem).
I am not defending any truth. I just show that IF computationalism is  
TRUE, then we have to extract the physical laws from elementary  
arithmetic or from any first order logical specification of any UTM.







You point and say That is a rock, cat, or whatever. In more  
sophisticated laboratory settings, you construct models to explain  
atomic spectra, tracks in bubble chambers, and so on. The  
scientific realist would claim that the theoretical entities  
entailed by his most mature and well-tested scientific theories  
exist_{phys}, and form part of the furniture of the external  
objective physical world.


 No, that's when he get wrong, with respect of the computationalist
 hypothesis.

You equivocate on this point at different times. I said previously  
that, by definition, computationalism is inconsistent with  
physicalism. You denied this. But what you say here is exactly this.



Because all my work consists in showing than comp (the idea that my  
physical brain is Turing emulable, like a computer) is inconsistent  
with physicalism. If I were putting the inconsistency with physicalism  
in the definition of comp, my proof could be simplified into: look at  
the axiom.  Don't confuse the comp thesis, and its highly non trivial  
(for most) consequence.





...

 So there is a very clear difference between the mathematical and
 physical worlds.

 Yes, but science has not yet decided which is the most fundamental.

You agree, then, that computationalism is just a hypothesis


Yes. I insist on that all the time. I am not a believer in comp at  
all. Nor am I am a disbeliever. I just don't do philosophy, I 

Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread LizR
On 1 April 2015 at 22:18, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 01 Apr 2015, at 02:05, LizR wrote:

 Well, no, there is no TOE that describes all features of the physical
 universe yet.


 But if comp is true, there is. If comp is true, the theory with the axioms
 Kxy = x + Sxyz = xy(zy), or elementary arithmetic HAVE TO describe all
 feature of the physical universe. If not comp is false.
 With comp, we cannot add anything to elementary arithmetic or to any
 sigma-1 complete set. That is the point of the reasoning. That we don't
 succeed, or have not yet extracted it is another point. The TOE is there.
 All the physical (but non geographical, nor historical) feature of physics
 must be explained by elementary arithmetic, or computationalism is false.
 That follows from the UDA.

 OK, but as you say - if comp is true. And I'm not saying you need to prove
it's true because I know that's impossible. But as far as I know, no one
has yet derived a convincing amount of physics from comp, so we don't yet
have convincing evidence that it may well be true, if you see what I mean.
(I think Bruce says the same thing in a post i'm about to read!)

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Re: The MGA revisited

2015-04-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Apr 2015, at 03:02, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Mar 27, 2015 at 07:28:51AM +0100, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


The ab asurdo is showing computationalism is incompatible with  
physical
supervenience, not that it is true. In the end by being forced to  
accept
consciousness must supervene on the movie + broken gate... If you  
believe
it,  then you've abandon computationalism as a theory of the mind  
as the
movie+broken gates is not a computation... Or you can keep  
computationalism

and abandon physical supervenience QED



I have always disagreed with this. The movie+broken gates is still a
computation, just a rather simple one. Playing a movie in (eg)
SMPlayer is still running a computation.


yes, but in the MGA we know the content of the consciousness (usually  
a dream where the person is flying).
So a human dream would supervene on a  very simple simple computation,  
which can be made arbitrary simple.
Would say yes to a doctor who suggest to replace your brain with a  
simple clock?






As I see it, the argument still relies on an intuition that the
movie+broken gates computation cannot support consciousness. It is an
intuition pump, not a proof, and consequently a weakness of the MGA.


MGA tackles the application of a theory to a reality. So it cannot  
leads to a proof, as we can prove nothing about reality, and so we do  
need some occam razor and intuition pump. The argumpent here can  
defeat all theories.





And static vs dynamic is a red herring, because as Bruce quite rightly
points out, a static block Multiverse contains at least one, and by
definition all possible conscious entities.


OK. Like arithmetic. Again the consciousness is not in any static  
elementary things, but in the static relations rich enough the give  
the internal dynamics, and, with luck (= if comp is true) the right  
relative measures.


Bruno




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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

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(http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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